Machine Translated by Google Working conditions regulation Consulted on 17-03-2022. Valid from 01-01-2017 to 24-02-2017 inclusive Regulations containing provisions for the implementation of by and pursuant to the Working Conditions Act and any other laws laid down rules The State Secretary for Social Affairs and Employment Having regard to Articles 7, fourth paragraph, under b, 9, fourth and sixth paragraph, 10, fifth paragraph, 41, first paragraph, and 42, second paragraph, of the Working Conditions Act, Article 6 of the Disabled Employees Employment Act and Article 11 of the General Act on the Recognition of EC Higher Education Diplomas; Furthermore, having regard to Articles 2.7, second and third paragraph, 2.8, 2.15, first and third paragraph, 2.24, first paragraph, 4.7, first, third and fifth paragraph, 4.8, second to fifth paragraph, 4.9, seventh paragraph, 4.10 , second and third paragraph, 4.14, fifth paragraph, 4.16, first paragraph, 4.42, fifth paragraph, 4.50, second paragraph, 4.54, third and fifth paragraph, 4.60, fourth and fifth paragraph, 4.65, first paragraph, under a and b, 4.66, under a and b, 4.67, first and fifth paragraph, 4.68, first paragraph, 4.7.0, third and fifth paragraph, 4.71, first paragraph, 4.72, first paragraph, 4.73, 5.12, 6.17, third paragraph, 7.19, eighth up to and including ninth and eleventh paragraphs, 7.29, sixth and seventh paragraphs, 7.32, second paragraph, and fourth up to and including seventh paragraphs, 8.4, second paragraph, of the Working Conditions Decree; In view of the advice of the Social and Economic Council of 28 July 1995, reference 95/35, and 28 March 1996, reference 96/31. Decision: Chapter 1. General Provisions Section 1.1. Definitions Article 1.1. General Definitions In this regulation, the following definitions apply: a. decision: the Working Conditions Decree; b. the minister: the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Section 1.1a. Certification Article 1.1a. annual report In the annual report of a certifying institution, as referred to in Article 1.5e, first paragraph, of the Decree, at least the following subjects are discussed: Machine Translated by Google a. the issued, withdrawn, suspended or refused by the institution certificates; b. changes in the accreditations, regulations and procedures relating to the professional field of the institution; c. changes in the division of tasks related to the work field of the institution; d. changes in the composition of the board; e. amendments to the articles of association or the internal regulations; f. work outsourced to third parties; g. structural bottlenecks in the field of work of the institution that is in the performance practice have occurred; h. the consultation and cooperation in the field with other certification bodies; i. complaints received by the institution and the manner in which they are handled; j. objections lodged and lodged against the decisions of the institution appeals and the manner in which they are handled; k. a financial report on the activities for which the institution is designated. Article 1.1b. Reimbursement of extra costs for certification and payment method a result of Insofar a request as additional or act or costs omission are incurred of the 1. in applicant connection for awith certificate the issue as referred of the certificate to in these as regulations, these costs will be passed on to the applicant. The costs associated with the issuance of a certificate are included in the application 2. fulfilled in accordance with the instructions of the institution. Section 1.2. General provisions on training Article 1.2. General Articles 1.3 up to and including 1.8 apply to the extent that rules have been laid down in these regulations regarding study programmes. Article 1.3. Material The training is given on the basis of clear written training material of sufficient didactic quality made available to the course participants. Article 1.4. teachers The lecturers demonstrably possess extensive theoretical, practical and didactic knowledge or skills for the subjects they deal with during the training. Article 1.5. Facilities Machine Translated by Google 1. The training institution has adequate training facilities. 2. The training institution offers the training at least twice a year and carries it out at least once a year. The training institution shall explain the responsibilities and authorities of all 3. those involved in the training in writing. 4. The training institution takes adequate measures to guarantee the safety of the course participants as much as possible. Article 1.6. Assessment attainment targets 1. The final objectives are assessed by means of an exam. The training institution administers the exams on the basis of sound and 2. written exam regulations. Article 1.7. diploma The training institution hands over to the student who has passed the examination a written certificate, signed by two members of the Examination Board or the head of the training institution. Article 1.7a. Foreign certificates and qualifications of professional competence [Expired as of 01-10-2012] Article 1.8. Administration The training institution maintains a proper administration in which the personal details of the student and the date on which the written proof referred to in Article 1.7 was issued, and in which the period during which the examination papers and their answers are stored is determined. Section 1.3. Recognition of EU professional qualifications and temporary and occasional provision of services Article 1.9. Definitions In this paragraph, the following definitions apply: a. law:General Act on the Recognition of EU Professional Qualifications; b. professional qualifications: professional qualifications, as referred to in Article 1 of the law; c. State concerned: State concerned, as referred to in Article 1 of the Act; d. service provider: service provider, as referred to in Article 21 of the Act; Machine Translated by Google e. adaptation period: adaptation period, as referred to in Article 1 of the Act; aptitude test: aptitude test, as referred to in Article 1 f. of the law. Article 1.9aa. Duties and powers of the certification body The duties and powers referred to in Articles 5, 6, 8, 11, 12, 13, 17, 19, 22, 23, 27, 28, 29, 30, 30a, 31, 31b, 32a, 34 and 35 of the become law if the Minister has designated a certification body as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree, exercised by that certification body. Article 1.9a. Recognition of EU professional qualifications 1. The application for a certificate of professional competence, as referred to in Article 1.5h, of the Decree is submitted to the Minister or, if the Minister has designated a certifying institution as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree, to that institution, providing the following documents: a. the documents concerning nationality and residence, referred to in Article 13, first paragraph, part a, of the Act; b. a certified copy of a document obtained in a concerned state educational qualification or certificate of competence on which the applicant relies; c. where appropriate, proof of his professional experience, in which if insight is provided into the duration of this professional experience and the components and contents of which the professional activities consisted; d. a statement of conduct as referred to in the Judicial and criminal information or a document corresponding to that statement as referred to in Article 14, paragraph 1, of the Act, or a certificate showing a statement under oath or a solemn statement as referred to in Article 14, paragraph 2, of the Act if such declaration from own nationals is also required; e. a health document as referred to in Article 15 of the Act if such a document is also required from its own nationals; and f. if the application and the documents referred to in parts b, c, d and e In a language other than Dutch, a translation into Dutch, prepared by a sworn translator, will be provided at the request of the Minister or the institution designated by him, as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree. If the minister or the aforementioned institution agrees, a translation of the documents in a language other than Dutch can be submitted. The minister or, if the minister is a certifying institution as referred to in Article 2. 1.5a of the Decree, that institution determines in the context of the recognition of professional qualifications whether the applicant has the professional qualification level referred to in Articles 6 and 9 of the Act and with due observance of the terms stated in Article 19 of the Act. Minister With has 3. due designated observance a certifying of Articleinstitution 11 of the as Act, referred the Minister to in Article shall determine 1.5a of thewhether Decree,the Machine Translated by Google that institution, inform the applicant of the requirement to pass a compensatory measure. 4. The costs associated with processing an application as referred to in the first paragraph, and with taking a compensatory measure as referred to in Article 11 of the Act, will be passed on to the applicant. These costs are paid upon application in accordance with the instructions of the certification body. 5. In the event that the applicant is required to follow an adaptation period on the basis of Article 11 of the Act: a. the applicant is informed about: 1°. the missing knowledge, skills and competences to which the adaptation period relates; 2°. the duration of the adaptation period; 3°. other requirements set in the context of the adaptation period; and b. during this period, the applicant carries out work under responsibility and supervision of an expert who is in possession of a certificate of competence in the relevant field. In the event that the requirement is imposed on the applicant pursuant to Article 11 of the Act 6. that he is taking an aptitude test, the applicant shall be informed of: a. the missing knowledge, skills and competences on which the test of competence relates; b. costs; and c. other requirements that are met in the context of the aptitude test put. Article 1.9b. Notification obligation and documents to be provided in the event of temporary and incidental service provision 1. Prior to the first provision of services, the service provider who exercises a profession as referred to in Articles 3.5h, third paragraph, 4.8, second and third paragraph, 4.9, second paragraph, 4.54d, fifth and seventh paragraph, 6.16, third and sixth paragraph , and 7.32, first paragraph, of the Decree, notification to the Minister or, if the Minister has designated a certifying institution as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree, that institution, providing the following documents: a. a written statement showing which regulated profession is the service provider comes to the Netherlands and which includes information regarding insurance cover or similar protection against financial risks of professional liability; the documents concerning nationality and residence, referred to in Article 23, b. third paragraph, part a, of the Act; c. proof of professional qualifications; d. proof that the service provider is entitled to practice the profession in question in a state other than the Netherlands; Machine Translated by Google e. a document that is not older than three months, showing that the applicant is not subject to a measure based on a judicial, disciplinary or administrative decision issued abroad, on the basis of which the rights to exercise the relevant profession in the country where the decision was made are lost in whole or in part, temporarily or permanently; f. if the applicant holds a formal qualification issued in a country other than the country of residence concerned, a written statement showing that the formal qualification has been recognized by the competent authority of the relevant country of residence; g. If the applicant's occupation or education leading to entry to or for the exercise of the profession, is not regulated in the relevant state of residence, a written statement showing that the applicant has exercised the relevant profession in the relevant state for at least one year in the ten years prior to the provision of services in the Netherlands of establishment; and h. a health document as referred to in Article 15 of the Act if such a document is also required from own nationals. 2. The service provider shall provide the statement referred to in the first paragraph, under a once a year if he intends to provide services in the Netherlands during that year. In doing so, the service provider will again provide the documents referred to in the first paragraph, insofar as there has been a change therein. 3. If the documents referred to in the first paragraph, under a, c, d, e, f, g and h, are in a language other than Dutch, at the request of the Minister or the institution designated by him, , referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree, if necessary, submit a translation into Dutch that has been prepared by a sworn translator. If the minister or the aforementioned institution agrees, a translation of the documents in a language other than Dutch can be submitted. Copies of these documents are certified. Article 1.9c. Verification of professional qualifications in temporary and occasional services for professions related to public health or public security 1. Prior to the first provision of services, the minister checks whether, if the the Minister has designated a certifying institution as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree, which institution, pursuant to Article 27 of the Professional Qualifications of the Service Provider Act, referred to in Article 1.9b. providerIn shall addition 2. provide to thethe documents Minister or, referred if the to Minister in Article has1.9b, designated first paragraph, a certifying theinstitution service as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree, that institution, upon request, with due observance of of the provisions of Article 1.9b, third paragraph, the following documents: a. the program of training for the profession concerned, subdivided into theory and practical subjects, stating the duration of education in those subjects, originating from the institution at which the service provider obtained the qualification; Machine Translated by Google b. lists of marks and assessments of study results, practical period or internships of the service provider; and c. evidence of any professional experience and additional education. The minister or, if the minister is a certifying institution as referred to in Article 3. 1.5a of the Decree, has designated that institution, taking a decision with due observance of the terms referred to in Article 28 of the Act. 4. In the event of significant differences as referred to in Article 27, third subsection of the Act, the Minister or, if the Minister has designated a certifying institution as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree, that institution, offers the service provider the opportunity, by means of an aptitude test, as referred to in Article 1.9 d, to demonstrate that he has the missing knowledge, skills or competences. 5. The service provider receives from the minister or, if the minister certifying institution as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree has designated that institution, a written statement in the form of proof of assessment if, on the basis of the audit, the professional qualifications are sufficient for temporary and incidental provision of services in the Netherlands. Article 1.9d. Aptitude test for temporary and occasional services 1. The service provider referred to in Article 1.9b is appointed by the Minister or, if the The Minister has designated a certifying institution as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree, which institution has been given the opportunity to take the aptitude test, as referred to in Article 1.9c(4). Article 1.9a, fifth paragraph, applies mutatis mutandis. 2. After completing the aptitude test, the Minister or, if the the Minister has designated a certifying institution as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree, that institution, proof of assessment against the service provider if the result of the aptitude test is sufficient for temporary and incidental provision of services in the Netherlands. If the result of the aptitude test is unsatisfactory, the 3. service provider the right to take another aptitude test. Article 1.9da. Validity certificate of competence and proof of assessment 1. A certificate of professional competence issued on the basis of Article 1.5h of the Decree or a proof of assessment issued on the basis of Article 1.9c or 1.9d for temporary and incidental services, has a period of validity that is equal to the period of validity of a personal certificate that is required by virtue of Article 20 of the Act referred to in Article 1.1 of the Decree for the exercise of the same profession. Machine Translated by Google 2. The validity of the certificate of competence referred to in the first paragraph or of the proof of assessment may be terminated or limited as a result of checks carried out in the context of supervision. Article 1.9e. Registration [Expired as of 04-10-2016] Section 1.4. Notification of occupational diseases Article 1.10. Work accidents data [Expired as of 01-01-2007] Article 1.11. Occupational disease data a result In of this 1. a article, load that'occupational has occurred disease' predominantly is understood in work toor mean: working an illness conditions. or condition as 2. The notification of an occupational disease, as referred to in Article 9(3) of the Act, includes at least the following, which cannot be traced back to an individual natural person: data: a. the diagnose; b. the sex and year of birth of the employee; c. the nature and extent of the burden on labor or working conditions; d. the nature of the work at the time of the onset of the occupational disease; e. the worker's occupation at the time of exposure, and f. the employer's economic activity at the time of exposure. 3. The information referred to in the second paragraph shall be provided in accordance with the instructions from the institution referred to in Section 9, subsection 3, of the Act. Section 1.5. Exemption Article 1.12. Exemption volunteers [Expired as of 01-01-2007] Section 1.6. Fiscal facilitation of health and safety investments Article 1.16. Designation of assets [Expired as of 01-01-2005] Article 1.17. Equivalent business assets Machine Translated by Google [Expired as of 01-01-2005] Article 1.18 [Expired as of 01-01-2005] Chapter 2. Additional requirements for risk inventory and evaluation, experts and occupational health and safety services Section 2.1. Further regulations on risk inventory and evaluation Article 2.0. Safety Management System In the safety management system, referred to in Article 2.5a, second paragraph, of the Decree, at least the elements listed in Annex I to this Regulation are discussed. Article 2.0a. Risk inventory and evaluation procedures 1. The procedures for the systematic identification of the unwanted events and the evaluation of the risks of major accidents, as referred to in Article 2.5b, first paragraph, under a, of the Decree, relate to: a. conducting a systematic investigation into the risks of a major accident associated with an installation during the design, construction, use and maintenance of the installation, as well as in the event of intended changes thereto; b. the criteria for determining the methods of research as referred to under a; c. the methodology for the evaluation of major accident risks. 2. The research method referred to in the first paragraph, part b, is geared to the phases referred to in that paragraph, part a. 3. The method referred to in the first paragraph, under c, is suitable for determining which measures are necessary to prevent major accidents or to limit the consequences thereof. Article 2.0b. Description of scenarios 1. The description of the scenarios referred to in Article 2.5b(1)(b) of the decision, relates to the parts of installations that present the greatest risks of a major accident. The identification of the relevant parts of the installations takes place on the basis of a documented method. 2. In the description of the scenarios referred to in the first paragraph, account shall be taken at least of which of the following events could trigger these scenarios: corrosion, erosion, external load, impact, overpressure, underpressure, low Machine Translated by Google temperature, high temperature, vibration, human error during use, modification or maintenance. For each scenario it is indicated what the probability and the effect is and 3. what measures have been taken to prevent the scenario from occurring. 4. Furthermore, for each scenario, taking into account the measures already taken, a coherent insight is provided into: a. the remaining chance that a major accident will occur; b. the seriousness of the consequences that the accident will have in that case; c. what further measures are technically possible to reduce the risk of a serious further reduce the accident to a specified level; an indication of the costs that would be associated with meeting the d. measures, referred to in part c. Article 2.0c. Internal emergency plan The internal emergency plan, referred to in Article 2.5c of the Decree, contains at least the data and descriptions referred to in Annex II to this Regulation. Section 2.2. Duties of experts and occupational health and safety services Article 2.1. Risk assessment and evaluation expert orWhen the company performing doctor, the tasks referred referred to in Article to in Article 2.14a,14, firstfirst paragraph, paragraph, of the under Decree a, of the or the Acthealth 1. the and safety service shall perform the following activities: a. testing whether the risk inventory and evaluation, referred to in Article 5 of the law, is complete and reliable; b. checking whether in the risk inventory and evaluation, referred to under a, de current insights in the field of working conditions have been incorporated; c. issuing advice to the employer on the basis of the risk inventory and evaluation referred to under a. This advice also relates to the way in which the identified shortcomings can be remedied, as proposed in the action plan, referred to in Article 5(3) of the Act, and the priorities and the order in which the measures are taken. 2. When performing the task referred to in Article 2.14b, paragraphs 2 and 3, under b, of the Decree, the expert or the company doctor, referred to in Article 2.14a, paragraph 1, of the Decree or the occupational health and safety service shall perform the following activities: a. checking whether the model, referred to in Article 14, twelfth paragraph, part b, under 1°, of the law or the instrument, referred to in Article 14, twelfth paragraph, part b, under 2°, of the Act, is complete and reliable is; b. checking whether in the model or instrument, referred to under a, the current insights in the field of working conditions in the relevant sector have been incorporated; Machine Translated by Google c. testing whether the model or instrument, referred to under a, contains adequate indications for drawing up an action plan, as referred to in Article 5, paragraph 3, of the Act. instrumentTheasLabor referred Foundation, to in Article in The 14, twelfth Hague,paragraph, is designated partasb,the under institution 2°, of the where Act 3. cananbe notified. 4. The Labor Foundation is responsible for the placement of a registered instrument as referred to in Article 14, twelfth paragraph, part b, under 2°, of the Act on the website www.rie.nl. Article 2.2. Sick leave counseling In performing the tasks referred to in Article 14, first paragraph, under b, of the Act, the company doctor, referred to in Article 2.14a, second paragraph, of the Decree or the occupational health and safety service supports the employer in adequately guiding employees who are illness are unable to perform their work in order to promote a responsible return to work. To carry out this task, the company doctor or the health and safety service records: a. how this task is performed and what procedures are involved are followed; b. how is the data about the absenteeism of employees; c. how the privacy of individuals is safeguarded. Article 2.3. Occupational health research When performing the task, referred to in Article 14, first paragraph, under c, under 1°, of the Act, the company doctor, referred to in Article 2.14a, second paragraph, of the decision or the health and safety service fixed: a. how this task is performed and what procedures are involved are followed; b. how the periodicity and content of the occupational health examinations have been arranged; c. how agreements are made with companies about the way in which employees can make use of the right to an occupational health examination; d. on which indications group occupational health examinations can take place; e. how the data arising from occupational health examinations are handled; f. how the privacy of individuals is safeguarded. Article 2.4. Appointment approval Machine Translated by Google When performing the task referred to in Article 14, first paragraph, under c, under 2° of the Act, the company doctor, referred to in Article 2.14a, second paragraph, of the decision or the health and safety service fixed: a. how the pre-appointment examination is carried out and which procedures be followed; b. how is the data collected from the research handled in arise within the framework of the pre-appointment examination; c. how the privacy of individuals is safeguarded. Article 2.5. Working conditions consultation hours [Expired as of 01-01-2007] Article 2.6. Notification data minister The 1. or,health if the and minister safety has service designated immediately a certification reportsbody, a change to the incertification its organizational body referred form to the to in Article 2.7. 2. If a change occurs in the data referred to in Articles 2.12, first paragraph, under a or b, or 2.13, first paragraph, under a, the occupational health and safety service or the employer will report this to the minister as soon as possible or, if the minister has designated a certification body to the certification body referred to in the first paragraph. Section 2.3. Certification Article 2.7. Designation certification body As a certification body as referred to in Article 2.14, first and second paragraph, of the Decree, an institution can be designated that meets the requirements laid down in the Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T on certification bodies belonging to the Certification Scheme for the provision of services by Occupational health and safety services: document: WDA&T Occupational Health and Safety Services, included in Annex IIa to the regulation. Article 2.8. Requirements for the health and safety service An occupational health and safety service certificate as referred to in Article 2.14(1) and (2) of the Decree is issued by the Minister or, if the Minister has designated an institution as referred to in Article 2.7, by that institution if the requirements laid down in the Work Field Specific are met. certification scheme for the Services by Occupational Health and Safety Services: document: WSCS Occupational Health and Safety Services, included in Annex IIb to the Regulation. Article 2.9. Complaints procedure [Expired as of 01-07-2012] Machine Translated by Google Article 2.10. Carry out control [Expired as of 01-07-2012] Article 2.11. Issuance of a health and safety service certificate [Expired as of 01/04/2013] Article 2.12. Provide data when applying for an external health and safety service certificate [Expired as of 01/04/2013] Article 2.12a [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 2.12b [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 2.13. Provide data when applying for an internal health and safety service certificate [Expired as of 01/04/2013] Article 2.14. Requirements for the designation as a certifying institution in the field of occupational health and safety experts A designation as a certification body as referred to in Article 2.14, first paragraph, of the Decree can be made if the applicant body meets the criteria as laid down in the Field-specific document for Designation and Supervision of the certification bodies charged with personal certification in the field of Occupational Health and Safety. and Organizational Expert, Occupational Hygienist and Higher Safety Expert, document: WDAT ARBO, as included in Appendix IIc to the Regulation. Article 2.15. Issuing certificate of professional competence in occupational hygiene A certificate of professional competence in occupational hygiene as referred to in Article 2.7, second paragraph, of the Decree, is issued by the certification body if the applicant meets the requirements as laid down in the Field Specific Certification Scheme for the Personal Certificate in Occupational Hygienist, document: WSCS-AH, as included in Annex IId to the Regulation. Article 2.16. Issuing certificate of professional competence safety expert A certificate of professional competence in safety science as referred to in Article 2.7, second paragraph, of the Decree is issued by the certifying institution if the applicant Machine Translated by Google meets the requirements as laid down in the Work Field Specific Certification Scheme for the Personal Certificate Higher Safety Expert, document: WSCS-HVK, as included in Annex IIe to the Regulation. Article 2.17. Issuing certificate of professional competence in work and organizational science The certificate of professional competence in work and organizational science as referred to in Article 2.7, second paragraph, of the Decree is issued by the certifying institution if the applicant meets the requirements laid down in the Field Specific Certification Scheme for the Personal Certificate Work and Organizational Expert, document: WSCS -AO, included in Annex IIf to the Regulation. Article 2.18. Providing data certificate of professional competence in occupational and industrial medicine, occupational hygiene, safety science and occupational and organizational science [Expired as of 03-12-2004] Section 2.4. EC declaration Article 2.19. Application [Expired as of 01-01-2009] Article 2.20. Requirements [Expired as of 01-01-2009] Article 2.21. Delivery [Expired as of 01-01-2009] Article 2.22. Aptitude test and adaptation internship [Expired as of 01-01-2009] Section 2.5. Exemption Article 2.23. Exemption from occupational health and safety service in the event of absenteeism [Expired as of 01-07-2005] Article 2.24. Exemption from occupational health and safety service for risk inventory and evaluation [Expired as of 01-07-2005] Article 2.25 Machine Translated by Google [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 2.26 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Chapter 3. Drilling Extractive Industries Section 3.1. Building process Article 3.1. Model notification [Expired as of 01-07-2012] Section 3.2. Extractive industries using drilling Article 3.2. Definitions In this paragraph and paragraph 3.3, the following definitions apply: a. risk analysis: systematic investigation of risks to health and safety on the basis of which an assessment of those risks is made as referred to in Article 5 of the Act; b. acceptance criteria: the limits within which risks are acceptable; c. performance standards: clear and measurable parameters with regard to the performance of a process installation or components thereof, of equipment and of management systems, which directly contribute to the achievement of health and safety objectives; d. mining work: a work as referred to in Article 1, part n, of the Mining Act; e. mining installation: an installation as referred to in Article 1.1(3)(f) of the Decree; f. Directive: Directive no. 2013/30/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 12 June 2013 on the safety of offshore oil and gas activities and amending Directive 2004/35/EC (OJEU 2013, L 178); g. safety and health care system: a system as referred to in Articles 2.42e, first paragraph, and 2.42k, second paragraph, of the Decree; h. health and safety document: a document as referred to in Articles 2.42f, first paragraph, and 2.42k, first paragraph, of the Decree. Article 3.2a. Determination of risks and limits Machine Translated by Google 1. The risks in the context of the risk analysis, referred to in Article 3.2, part a, are determined qualitatively and, as far as possible, quantitatively. 2. The limits in the context of determining the acceptance criteria, referred to in Article 3.2, part b, are determined quantitatively, as far as possible. Insofar as this is not possible, these limits are determined qualitatively. Article 3.3. Safety and Healthcare System The safety and health care system is based on a process-oriented internationally recognized standard for the control of safety, health, quality assurance or the environment. Article 3.4. Security and healthcare system capture 1. The safety and health care system is documented. 2. The description of the safety and health care system indicates what the components of this system entail and how the cohesion between these components is. Article 3.5. Security and healthcare system vetting The security and healthcare system is regularly screened on the basis of 1. of internationally recognized standards for health system screening. 2. The nature and frequency of the screening is chosen in such a way that the effectiveness of the safety and health care system can be determined every three years. Article 3.6. Safety and health document 1. A safety and health document is prepared for the following mining works: a. any mining work on land; b. any permanently installed mining installation; c. any mining installation that can be moved as a whole, and d. any other movable installation using drill holes are drilled or work is carried out in or on an existing borehole; 2. The health and safety document referred to in the first paragraph is present at the mining works referred to in the first paragraph. Article 3.7. Work safety and health document Machine Translated by Google Insofar as not already at the time of drawing up the health and safety document, 1. referred to in Article 3.6, this has been taken into account, a health and safety document is drawn up for the following special activities: a. drilling a borehole; b. performing work in or on an existing borehole, and c. simultaneously carrying out work on a mining work or on or in the vicinity of a mining installation, if the simultaneous execution of these activities poses a risk to health and safety. 2. The health and safety document, referred to in the first paragraph, must be present with the work to be performed. Article 3.8. Safety and Health Document Parts for Mining Works 1. The health and safety document, referred to in Article 3.6, under a and b, consists of the following parts: a. the preliminary draft report; b. the detailed design, start-up and use; c. the addendum usage; d. the addendum major changes, and e. exit and delete the addendum. 2. The health and safety document, as referred to in Article 3.6, under c and d, consists of the following parts: a. the detailed design, start-up and use; b. use the addendum, and c. the addendum major changes. Article 3.9. Safety and health document content for mining works The health and safety document, referred to in Article 3.6, contains: a. a clear and accurate description of the mining work as well as of the work being performed on the mining work, including an indication of the provisions included in the design of the mining work to exclude or reduce the risks; b. in addition to part a, the information referred to in Annex IV to this regulation; c. the information, referred to in Annex V to this Regulation, with regard to the fire fighting plan; d. the information referred to in part c is based on the statement referred to in Article 2.42f, first paragraph, under a, of the Decree; e. a statement of the acceptance criteria; f. a list of all identified and analyzed risks, including a summary of the research carried out in this context for the onshore mining work or the fixed mining installation as referred to in Annex VI to this Regulation or for the mining installation as a wholly relocatable mining installation or a other movable Machine Translated by Google installation by means of which boreholes are drilled or work is carried out in an existing borehole, as referred to in Annex VII to these Regulations; g. a specification of the sources used in identifying, analyzing and evaluating the risks, including a description of how the suitability and reliability of the sources has been determined; h. an assessment of the effectiveness and suitability of the safety and health care system for the mining work, including the results and any changes or additions to that health system deemed necessary; i. a summary, in non-technical terminology, of the research, referred to in Annexes VI and VII to these Regulations, that was carried out in the context of drawing up the health and safety document; j. a statement of the risk-reducing measures deemed necessary, including a summary of all research carried out in this context; k. a statement of the performance standards; l. the limits within which the equipment used on the mining work and management systems can function normally; m. an action plan with a timeline for the realization of the measures referred to in part j; n. an assessment of the stated risks against the acceptance criteria; O. an assessment of the performance of a process installation or components thereof, of equipment and of management systems to the performance standards, and p. a written statement that the risks are at least within predefined acceptance criteria and performance standards. Article 3.10. Safety and health document content for work 1. The health and safety document, referred to in Article 3.7, contains: a. an overview drawing showing the combinations referred to in the second paragraph, are indicated; b. a statement of the acceptance criteria; c. an assessment and evaluation of the hazards and associated risks specific to the site and to the work to which the safety and health document relates; d. a specification of the sources used in identifying, analyzing and evaluating the risks, including a description of how the suitability and reliability of the sources has been determined; e. an evaluation of all management systems that contribute to risk reduction; f. a statement of the risk-reducing measures deemed necessary, including a summary of all research carried out in this context; a statement of the performance standards; an assessment of the stated risks against the acceptance criteria, and ghi an assessment of the performance of a process installation or components thereof, of equipment and of management systems to the performance standards. 2. In the safety and health document, referred to in the first paragraph, the measures, which are necessary for the management of risks, tailored to the Machine Translated by Google health and safety document, as referred to in Article 3.6, if a combination of: a. a permanently installed mining installation as referred to in Article 3.6(1)(b) and a mining installation that can be moved as a whole as referred to in Article 3.6(1)(c); b. another movable installation using which boreholes are drilled drilled or work is carried out in an existing borehole as referred to in Article 3.6(1)(d) and a permanently installed mining installation as referred to in Article 3.6(1)(b); c. a mining installation that can be moved as a whole as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, part c and another portable installation with the help of which work is carried out in an existing borehole as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, part d, or d. a mining work on land as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, part a and another portable installation with the aid of which boreholes are drilled or work is carried out in an existing borehole as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, part d. Article 3.11. Send preliminary draft report and safety and health document for mining works The preliminary draft report, referred to in Article 3.8, first paragraph, under a, is 1. prior to the application for an environmental permit as referred to in Article 2.1, first paragraph, opening words and under e, of the General Provisions for Environmental Law Act and the application for a permit as referred to in Article 40 of the Mining Act, sent in duplicate to a designated supervisor. The detailed design, start-up and use, referred to in Article 3.8, first and 2. subsection 2, shall be sent in duplicate to a designated supervisor twelve weeks before a mining work is put into use. 3. The use addendum referred to in Article 3.8, first and second paragraph, is sent in duplicate for the first time five years after the detailed design, start-up and use has been sent and subsequently once every five years to a designated supervisor. 4. Leaving and removing the addendum, referred to in Article 3.8, first paragraph, will be sent in duplicate to a supervisor designated for that purpose twelve weeks before leaving a mining work or removing a permanently installed mining installation. of a supervisor The information appointedreferred for thatto purpose in Article 5. 3.9, part c, will be sent to him in duplicate at the request Article 3.12. Sending the health and safety document for work Machine Translated by Google 1. The health and safety document for the special activities, as referred to in Article 3.7, first paragraph, under a, b and c, will be sent in duplicate to a supervisor designated for that purpose eight weeks before the start of the activities. This safety and health document shall be accompanied by the work programme, 2. referred to in Article 74 of the Mining Decree if it concerns the following activities: a. drilling a borehole; b. performing work in an existing borehole. Article 3.13. Safety and Health Document Compliance 1. The employer who is responsible for the mining work, as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, checks whether the safety and health document, with the exception of the preliminary draft report, referred to in Article 3.8, first paragraph, under a, is complied with. The employer who is responsible for the mining work, as referred to in Article 3.6, 2. first paragraph, regularly and systematically assess the compliance and effectiveness of the safety and health document. 3. If the results of the assessment referred to in the second paragraph give cause to do so, the employer responsible for the workplace will revise the health and safety document. The revised parts of the safety and health document are sent in duplicate to a designated supervisor before the amended safety and health document is executed. Article 3.14. emergency plan 1. The emergency plan, referred to in Article 3.37v of the Decree, shall in any event contain the information, referred to in Annex VIII to this Regulation. 2. The emergency plan is available at the mining work, as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph. Section 3.3. Extractive industries for the exploration and extraction of hydrocarbons Article 3.15. Switching determination In addition to the requirements of section 3.2 of this chapter, the requirements of this section also apply to a workplace in the extractive industry for the exploration and production of hydrocarbons. Article 3.16. Major Accident Safety and Healthcare System Machine Translated by Google In addition to Article 3.4, the supplement to the safety and healthcare system, as referred to in Article 2.42k, paragraph 2, of the Decree contains at least the information referred to in Annexes I, part 9, and IV, part 1, to the directive. Article 3.17. Major Accident Safety and Health Policy and Document In addition to Articles 3.8 and 3.9, the health and safety document referred to in Article 3.8, paragraphs 1 and 2, respectively, about the supplement to the working conditions policy, as referred to in Article 2.42k, paragraph 1 of the Decree, contains at least the information, referred to in Annexes I, part 8, and IV, part 1, to the Directive. Article 3.18. Risk inventory and evaluation in connection with major accidents at mining works as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, parts a and b referredIntoaddition in Articleto3.8, Articles paragraphs 3.8 and13.9, andthe 2, respectively, safety and health concerning document a mining work as referred to in Article 3.6, paragraph 1, under a or b, shall contain, insofar as this is a production installation as referred to in Article 2, part 20, of the Directive, at least the information referred to in Article 2.42l, paragraphs 1 to 4, of the Decree is provided with regard to the supplement to the risk inventory and evaluation. in Annex I, Section 2, to the Directive, with the exception of point 15. referredIntoaddition in Articleto3.8, Articles paragraphs and 3.81and and3.9, 2, respectively, the safety and concerning health document a mining work as referred to in Article 3.6, paragraph 1, under a and b, shall contain, insofar as this is not a - production installation as referred to in Article 2, part 17, of the Directive, with regard to the supplement to the risk inventory and evaluation, referred to in Article 2.42l, paragraphs 1 to 4, of the Decree, at least the information listed in Annex I, Section 3, to the Directive, with the exception of point 15. Article 3.19. Risk inventory and evaluation in connection with major accidents at mining works as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, under c and d referredIntoaddition in Articleto3.8, Articles first paragraph and 3.8 and and 3.9, second the safety paragraph, and health respectively, document concerning a mining work as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, under c and d, insofar as this is a production - installation as referred to in Article 2, part 20, of the Directive, about the supplement to the risk inventory and evaluation, referred to in Article 2.42l, paragraphs 1 to 4, of the Decree, at least the information, listed in Annex I, Section 2, to the Directive, with the exception of point 15. 2. In addition to Articles and 3.8 and 3.9, the health and safety document referred to in Article 3.8, first paragraph and second paragraph, respectively, concerning a mining work as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, under c and d, insofar as this is a non-production installation as referred to in Article 2, part 17, of the Directive, is about the Machine Translated by Google supplement to the risk inventory and evaluation referred to in Article 2.42l, paragraphs 1 to 4, of the Decree, at least the information referred to in Annex I, part 3, to the Directive, with the exception of point 15. Article 3.20. Emergency plan in connection with major accidents In addition to Article 3.14, first paragraph, the supplement to the emergency plan, referred to in Article 3.37za, first paragraph, of the Decree contains at least the information referred to in Annex I, part 10, to the Directive, on the understanding that an external emergency plan as referred to in points 2 and 9 is understood to mean: the North Sea Incident Response Plan, as referred to in Article 23 of the Maritime Accidents Control Act, the crisis plan, as referred to in Article 16 of the Security Regions Act, or the disaster management plan, as referred to in Article 17 of the Security Regions Act. Chapter 4. Safety of tankers and dangerous goods Section 4.1. Safety on or in tankers Article 4.1. Definitions For the purposes of this paragraph: a. flammable liquids: liquids whose flash point does not exceed 100°C; b. K0, K1 and K2 liquids: flammable liquids, with a flash point lower or equal to 55°C, including flammable gases, whether or not in liquid form, not included under KT liquids; c. K3 liquids: flammable liquids, not being KT liquids, of which the flash point is higher than 55°C; d. KT liquids: flammable liquids, including flammable gases, whether or not in liquid form, which may pose a risk of poisoning, intoxication or suffocation; e. T-liquids: liquids, other than flammable liquids, including also included gases, whether or not in liquid form, which can cause intoxication or suffocation danger; f. K1 space: a space belonging to a ship in which K0-, K1- or K2- liquids and no KT liquids or residues thereof are present other than in packaging; g. K3 space: a space belonging to a ship in which no flammable liquids other than K3 liquids or residues thereof occur other than in packaging; h. KT space: a space belonging to a ship in which KT liquids or residues thereof appearing other than in packaging; i. T-space: a space belonging to a ship in which T-liquids and no KT liquids or residues thereof are present other than in packaging; K1 ship: a ship of which one or more of the cargo tanks is a K1 space j. or for cleaning it; Machine Translated by Google k. K3 ship: a ship, in the cargo tanks of which neither flammable liquids other than K3 liquids do not contain T-liquids or residues of one of those liquids other than in packaging; l. KT ship: a ship of which one or more of the cargo tanks is a KT space or for cleaning it; m. T-ship: a ship, not being a K1 or KT ship, of which one or more of the cargo tanks is a T- space or was used for cleaning; n. fire: fire, sparking, open light or any surface having a temperature equal to or greater than the minimum ignition temperature of the liquids or gases contained in the cargo tanks or of which residues are present in those tanks; O. work with fire: work in which fire is used or can be used to arise; cold work: work where no fire is used or p. to arise; q. cleaning: any action aimed at or related to the cleaning, gas-free or drying of a K1, KT, K3 or T-room; r. cargo zone: the cargo tanks and all directly adjacent to these tanks tanks or other spaces separating the cargo tanks from the other spaces of the ship; s. gas expert: an expert as referred to in Article 3.5h, third paragraph, of the decision that complies with Article 4.14; t. health and safety statement: a statement issued by a gas expert after an effective investigation, as referred to in Article 3.5h, paragraph 3, of the Decree, in accordance with one of the models laid down in Annex IX to this Regulation. Article 4.2. Scope This section applies to the activities on K1, K3, KT or T vessels referred to in Article 3.5h, first paragraph, of the Decree. Article 4.3. Safety precautions If, during or as a result of carrying out the work, as referred to in Article 3.5h, first paragraph, of the Decree, dangerous gases are concentrated and these are not diluted or discharged quickly enough due to insufficient air movement, measures will be taken to limit these concentrations. If this is not sufficiently possible, the tank lids will be closed and the relevant activities will be discontinued. Article 4.4. To clean Before employees enter the areas to be cleaned, it has been established that this 1. can be done without risk to health and safety. A room to be cleaned is not entered as long as as a result of 2. work in an adjacent room the temperature of the bulkheads can become significantly higher than the ambient temperature. Machine Translated by Google A room to be cleaned is also not entered as long as in an adjacent room 3. space an explosive mixture is present and this space is not closed. 4. During cleaning, no activities other than those related to cleaning are performed on deck and in the cargo area, unless these activities take place during a closed cleaning process and relate exclusively to loading and unloading. Cleaning and loading and unloading activities: a. take place completely separate from each other; b. do not influence each other and c. are under constant supervision. Article 4.5. Research During cleaning, as often as necessary, it is examined whether the released liquids, gases or vapors pose a risk of fire, explosion, intoxication, suffocation or poisoning. Article 4.6. Preventing hazards 1. The cleaning of K1, K3 and KT areas is aimed at keeping the concentration of gases and vapors below the lower explosion limit or reducing it to below that limit in a safe manner. If a gas composition occurs during cleaning, which poses a risk of explosion, the duration of this state is kept as short as possible. If the cleaning is carried out using inert gas, it is carried out in such a way that an explosive mixture cannot be formed. expectation Theofcleaning intoxication, of K1, suffocation K3, KT andor T poisoning spaces isinside carried andout 2.in outside such athose way that spaces. thereIf is the nocleaning reasonable is done using inert gas, it is done in such a way that an explosive mixture cannot occur. Article 4.7. Safety conditions Cleaning K1, K3 or KT spaces on board K1, K3, or KT ships 1. only takes place if no fire is present or can reasonably be expected to start within a distance of 25 meters from the cargo area. 2. Cleaning of K1, K3 or KT spaces on board K1, K3 or KT ships only takes place if there is no risk of sparking or ignition due to electrostatic charges within a distance of 25 meters from the cargo area. 3. Cleaning of K1, K3 or KT spaces on board K1, K3 or KT ships only takes place if smoking is not allowed within 25 meters of the cargo area. Machine Translated by Google Cleaning K1, K3 or KT spaces on board K1, K3, or KT ships 4. only takes place if no unauthorized persons can come within a distance of 25 meters from the cargo area. until the The first cargo to fourth tanks paragraphs in the entire have cargo beenzone complied of K1,with. K3 and KT ships shall not be opened 5. 6. The cargo tanks in the entire cargo area of T-ships are not opened until after the fourth paragraph has been met. Article 4.8. Safety and health statement Articles 4.4, fourth paragraph, and 4.7 do not apply to K3 spaces outside the cargo zone on K1, KT and T ships if a safety and health declaration as referred to in Article 4.1, under t, is issued for these ships. has been issued. Article 4.9. Maintain, renovate, repair and demolish The maintenance, conversion, repair and demolition of K1, K3, KT or T ships 1. only takes place after an investigation has been carried out in accordance with the rules laid down in Article 4.10 and in connection with this investigation a fully and correctly completed health and safety statement has been issued to the employer who has issued the maintenance, repair, conversion, or demolition work. The maintenance, conversion, repair and demolition of K1, K3, KT or T ships 2. will also only take place insofar as those activities and the areas in which they are performed are stated as being permitted in the health and safety declaration referred to in the first paragraph. 3. A safety and health statement as referred to in the first paragraph is requested from a gas expert. The application shall be accompanied by all information required with a view to the issue of 4. of the health and safety declaration are relevant, while further information on this matter will be provided if required. Article 4.10. Research gas expert The investigation referred to in Article 4.9 is initiated by the gas expert, who 1. states the results of that examination on the health and safety statement to be issued by him. 2. The gas expert extends this investigation to all areas in which he deems this necessary in connection with the nature of the work to be performed. If necessary, the gas expert will involve a well-equipped laboratory in the investigation. He uses sound measuring and other auxiliary equipment in good condition. Machine Translated by Google 3. He determines whether the areas to be examined: a. are K1, KT, K3 or T spaces; b. are safe for humans in the sense that: 1º. employees who use spaces without the use of personal access protective equipment, and 2º. there is no danger of intoxication, suffocation, poisoning or injury, with the proviso that an area in respect of which the foregoing has not been proven is indicated on the safety and health declaration as “not safe for people”; c. be safe from fire in the sense that: 1º. residues of flammable liquids have been removed from it so that there is no danger of fire; 2º. any flammable gases or vapors still present do not form a concentration in the air that is higher than 20% of the lower explosion limit; 3º. the adjacent spaces either meet the requirements under 1° and 2°, or are filled to the top with water on which there are no K0, K1, K2 or KT liquids, or are fire- and explosion-proof in some other way created, on the understanding that an area in respect of which the foregoing has not been proven is indicated on the health and safety declaration as “not safe from fire”. 4. The gas expert issues a health and safety statement if he has established that: a. the areas in which cold work is to be performed are safe for people; b. the areas in which work with fire is to be carried out are both safe for people and safe from fire; c. the condition in which spaces other than those referred to under a and b are and the manner in which they are closed are such that the activities indicated in the declaration can be carried out without endangering the safety and health of the employees. 5. He shall only issue a safety and health certificate for carrying out work with fire in a part of the cargo area of K1 and KT ships if an effective investigation has shown him to be at least six hours after the determination referred to in paragraph 4. , that the spaces referred to in that paragraph still comply with the to demand. work withNotwithstanding fire in the cargo the areafourth of K1paragraph, and KT ships he shall if he has onlyestablished issue a health that: and safety statement for 6. carrying out a. the entire cargo area is safe for people as referred to in paragraph 3(b) and safe from fire as referred to in paragraph 3(c), and b. the condition in which spaces other than those referred to under a are located and the way in which they are closed are such that the activities indicated in the health and safety declaration can be performed safely and Machine Translated by Google if, at least six hours after that determination, an effective investigation has shown to him that there has been no change in the situation referred to under a and b. A safety and health declaration does not apply to pipes in or 7. outside the tanker and is only valid if it is filled in completely and correctly and as long as the condition on the basis of which the declaration was issued is unchanged. Article 4.11. Working with fire without a safety and health declaration Work with fire above or in a part of the cargo zone on a K1 or KT ship that is not safe from fire as referred to in Article 4.10, paragraph 3, under c and where, in deviation from Article 4.9, the required safety measures are not and health certificate has been issued is only permitted if: a. the nature of the work, the place or places where it work will be performed and the period in which they will be performed have been accurately indicated by the repairer; b. the places where sparks or glowing metal parts can fall as a result of the work have been accurately indicated by the repairer; c. the places where significant temperature increase can occur if as a result of the work, are accurately indicated by the repairer; d. a dated statement has been issued by a gas expert from which it appears that the remains of flammable liquids have been removed from the places referred to under a to c, so that there is no fire risk; e. a fully and correctly completed safety and health certificate has been issued showing that rooms in which work is to be carried out and adjacent areas are safe for people or inertized as referred to in Article 4.10, third paragraph, under b. Article 4.12. Working with fire without a safety and health declaration, within 25 meters of the cargo area 1. Within 25 meters of the cargo area on a K1, or KT vessel that is not safe from fire as referred to in Article 4.10, paragraph 3, under c, and for which, notwithstanding Article 4.9, the required safety and health certificate has not been issued, the presence of fire is only permitted if a statement is issued by a gas expert before the start of the work. has been issued showing that the cargo zone is safe for people as referred to in Article 4.10, paragraph 3, under b. the declaration, The presence referredoftofire, in the as referred aforementioned to in theparagraph, first paragraph, that: is also permitted if 2. it appears from a. the combustible gases in the atmosphere of the cargo area have no concentration of more than 20% of the lower explosive limit, or b. the condition of the atmosphere present in the cargo zone is such that at dilution with air does not form a flammable or explosive mixture. Article 4.13. Work notification Machine Translated by Google If the situations referred to in Articles 4.11 and 4.12 occur, this will be reported to the designated supervisor before the work commences. Article 4.14. Issuing certificate of professional competence gas expert A certificate of professional competence as a gas expert as referred to in Article 3.5h(4) of the Decree is issued by the Minister or, if the Minister has designated a certifying institution, the certifying institution, if the applicant meets the requirements referred to in version 1. of the Regulation SGT no. REG/SGT/20/001 of the Hobéon SKO Certification Foundation, established on 15 May 2009. Article 4.15. Provide data when applying for a certificate [Expired as of 03-12-2004] Section 4.2. Working safely with explosives Article 4.16. Issuing certificate of professional competence jumping master A certificate of professional competence as a show jumper as referred to in Article 4.8, second paragraph, of the Decree is issued by the Minister or, if the Minister has designated a certification body, the certification body, if the applicant meets the requirements as laid down in the certification scheme for the personal certificate of show jumping master, as included in Appendix X to the Regulations. Article 4.17. Provide data when applying for a certificate [Expired as of 03-12-2004] Section 4.2a. Working safely with professional fireworks Article 4.17a. Definitions In this paragraph, the following definitions apply: a. large fireworks: professional fireworks intended for outdoor use during an event or performance; b. pyrotechnic special effects: professional fireworks that are intended for use during an event or performance with close public distances and of which the manufacturer or importer has indicated that they are suitable for this use. For the purposes of this paragraph, consumer fireworks referred to in 2. Article 1.1.1, first paragraph, of the Fireworks Decree that is intended for use during an event or performance or that is processed for an event or performance designated as large fireworks. Machine Translated by Google Article 4.17b. Issuing certificate of professional competence professional fireworks The designation as a certifying institution as referred to in Article 4.9, second paragraph, of 1. the decision can be made if the applicant institution meets the requirements such as laid down in the Field-specific document for designation and supervision of certification bodies belonging to the certification scheme for the Fireworks expert personal certificate, document code WDAT-VD as included in Annex XIIa to the Regulation. 2. A certificate of professional competence for professional fireworks as referred to in Article 4.9, second paragraph, of the Decree, is issued by the certifying institution referred to in the first paragraph, if the applicant meets the requirements as laid down in the Field Specific Certification Scheme for the Personal Fireworks Expert Certificate, document code WSCS. -VD, as included in Annex XIIb to the Regulation. Article 4.17c. Provide data when applying for a certificate [Expired as of 03-12-2004] Article 4.17d. Data work plan professional fireworks [Expired on 01-07-2011] Section 4.2b. Detect conventional explosives Article 4.17e. Requirements for designation as a certification body in the field for detecting conventional explosives A designation as a certification body as referred to in Article 4.10, second paragraph, of the Decree can be made if the applicant body meets the criteria as laid down in the Field-specific document for Designation and Supervision of the certification bodies charged with system certification in the field of Detection Conventional Explosives, document: WDAT-OCE: 2012, version 1, as included in Annex XI to the Regulation. Article 4.17f. Issuing process certificate for detecting conventional explosives A process certificate for the detection of conventional explosives as referred to in Article 4.10, paragraph 2, of the Decree is issued by the certification body if the applicant meets the requirements as laid down in the Field-specific certification scheme for the system certificate for the detection of conventional explosives, document WSCS-OCE as included in Annex XII to the Regulation. Section 4.3. Assessment of risk of exposure to hazardous substances in combination Article 4.18. Assessment of risk of exposure to hazardous substances in combination Machine Translated by Google When assessing the risk of exposure in the employee's individual breathing zone to hazardous substances in combination, as referred to in Article 4.2, sixth paragraph, of the Decree, in the case of the risk of exposure to substances of which these substances are known to be have the same health-related effect on the same organ system, appendix XIIc to the regulation applied. Section 4.4. Legal limits Article 4.19. Hazardous Substances 1. If limit values as referred to in Article 4.3, first paragraph, jo. Article 4.1, second paragraph, under a, of the Decree designates the values that are included in Annex XIII to this Regulation. 2. The results of the assessment, as referred to in Article 4.2, first paragraph, of the Decree, are tested against that limit value for each substance for which a limit value has been established in accordance with the first paragraph and Article 4.3, second paragraph of the Decree. The assessment takes place in accordance with a standardized method suitable for that purpose. Article 4.19a. Biological limit values As a limit value as referred to in Article 4.3, first paragraph, jo. Article 4.1, second paragraph, under b, of the Decree, for lead is determined: 70 µg/100 ml blood. Article 4.20. Carcinogens and mutagens If limit values as referred to in Article 4.16, first paragraph, of the Decree are 1. designated the values listed in Annex XIII to this Regulation. 2. The results of the assessment, referred to in Article 4.2, first paragraph, of the Decree are tested against that limit value for each substance for which a limit value has been established in accordance with the first paragraph and Article 4.16, second paragraph of the Decree. The assessment takes place in accordance with a standardized method suitable for that purpose. Section 4.4a. Further regulations on working with lead Article 4.20a. Measurement frequency and analysis of lead in air of lead inInthe theair context is measured of the assessment every three months. referred to Measuring in Article once 4.2 ofathe year Decree, will suffice the concentration if there is no change in working practices and exposure conditions, and a. the lead level in the blood of no employee, measured in accordance with Article 4.10b of the Decree, exceeds 60 µg/100 ml of blood, or Machine Translated by Google b. two successive preliminary measurements have shown that the concentration of lead in air is less than 100 µg/m3 air or exposure conditions do not vary appreciably. The determination of the concentration of lead in the air, as referred to in the first paragraph, 2. be carried out by atomic absorption spectrometry or other analytical method which gives equivalent results. Article 4.20b. Control of lead in the blood 1. Within the framework of the assessment referred to in Article 4.2 of the Decree, the employees are given the opportunity to measure the lead level in the blood at least twice a year. 2. The frequency of measuring the lead content in blood can be reduced to once a year if the lead content of no employee exceeds 50 µg/100 ml of blood and the two consecutive previous measurements have shown that the concentration of lead in the blood air is less than 100 µg/ m³ air. The lead level in the blood as referred to in Article 4.10b, second paragraph, of the Decree 3. is measured by atomic absorption spectrometry or other equivalent method. 4. limit value The referred results oftothe in Article measurement, 4.19a. The as referred assessment to intakes the first place paragraph, in accordance are tested with against a the standardized method suitable for that purpose. 5. The occupational health examination, as referred to in Article 4.10b, first paragraph, of the decision, the employees are offered at least once a year. Section 4.4b. Carcinogenic Processes Article 4.20c. Note The processes in which the following mixtures of substances are released are classified as carcinogenic processes, as referred to in Article 4.11, part c, under 2° of the Decree: designated: a. diesel engine emissions; b. a mixture of N-[3-hydroxy-2-(2-methylacryloylaminomethoxy)- propoxymethyl]-2-methylacrylamide and N-[2,3-bis-(2- methylacryloylaminomethoxy)propoxymethyl]-2-methylacrylamide and methacrylamide and 2-methyl-N- (2-methylacryloylaminomethoxymethyl)acrylamide and N-(2,3- dihydroxypropoxymethyl)-2-methylacrylamide, or; c. CI Basic Violet 3 with 0.1% or more Michlers ketone. Section 4.5. Asbestos measurement methods Machine Translated by Google Article 4.21. General [Expired on 01-07-2014] Article 4.22. Sampling [Expired on 01-07-2014] Article 4.23. Materials to be used [Expired on 01-07-2014] Article 4.24. fiber count [Expired on 01-07-2014] Article 4.25. Regulations for counting [Expired on 01-07-2014] Article 4.26. Calculation [Expired on 01-07-2014] Section 4.6. Certification provisions work with asbestos Article 4.27. Requirements for issuing certificates in the field of asbestos A certificate can be issued if: a. in the case of the certificate referred to in Article 4.54a, fourth paragraph, of the decides, the applicant complies with the requirements laid down in the Field Specific Certification Scheme for the Asbestos Inventory Process Certificate, as included in Annex XIIIa to the Regulation; b. in the case of the certificate referred to in Article 4.54d, first paragraph, of the decides, the applicant complies with the requirements laid down in the Field-specific certification scheme for the Asbestos Removal Process Certificate, as included in Annex XIIIb to the Regulation; c. in the case of the certificate referred to in Article 4.54d, paragraph 5, of the Decree, the applicant complies with the requirements laid down in the Field-specific certification scheme for the Personal Certificate of Expert Asbestos Removal Supervisor (DTA), as included in Annex XIIIc to the Regulation; d. in the case of the certificate referred to in Article 4.54d, seventh paragraph, of the In the decision, the applicant complies with the requirements laid down in the Field Specific Certification Scheme for Personal Certificates for Expert Asbestos Remover Level 1 and Level 2 (DAV-1 and DAV-2), as included in Annex XIIIc to the Regulation. Machine Translated by Google Article 4.28. Requirements for designation and (continued to) function as a certifying institution in the field of asbestos Designation as a certifying body can be made if: a. in the case of a certification body as referred to in Article 4.54a, fourth subsection, or Article 4.45d, subsection 1, of the Decree, the applicant body meets the criteria laid down in the Field-Specific Document for Designation and Supervision of the Certification Bodies for Asbestos Removal Companies (AVB) and Asbestos Inventory Companies (AIB), as included in Annex XIIIe to the Regulation; b. in the case of a certification body as referred to in Article 4.54d, fifth or seventh paragraph, of the Decree, the applicant body meets the criteria laid down in the Field-specific document for Designation and Supervision of the certification bodies for Expert Asbestos Removal Supervisor (DTA) and Expert Asbestos remover (DAV), as included in Annex XIIIf to the Regulation. Article 4.29. Provision of data and information The provision of data and information between the Minister, the supervisors, the certifying bodies and the Accreditation Council, as referred to in Article 1.5e, paragraph 3, of the Decree, in the field of asbestos in the field of asbestos takes place in accordance with the information protocol as included in Annex XIIIg. at the scheme. Section 4.7. Special regulations asbestos Article 4.30. Exceptions in case of final measurement Under small loose surfaces as referred to in Article 4.53c, second paragraph, 1. part a, is understood to mean: a loose surface of maximum 2.5 m2. The concentration of the amphibole asbestos fibers actinolite, amosite, anthophyllite, 2. tremolite and crocidolite in the air to which employees may be exposed in connection with work is limited within the meaning of Article 4.53c, second paragraph, under b, if the concentration is caused by: a. removal of asbestos-containing material containing a maximum of 2% by mass of amphibole asbestos fibers actinolite, amosite, anthophyllite, tremolite and crocidolite; or b. an asbestos removal in which an inaccessible partition is present during the duration of the asbestos removal work between the asbestos application and the employee performing the removal, which encloses the asbestos application in its entirety without leaks. Section 4.8. Working with sandstone Article 4.31. Issue certificate sandstone company [Expired as of 03-12-2004] Article 4.32. Provide data when applying for a certificate Machine Translated by Google [Expired as of 03-12-2004] Section 4.8a. Volatile Organic Compounds Article 4.32a. Gluing and painting in indoor situations 1. In this paragraph, the following definitions apply: a. products: adhesives, paints, lacquers, stains, varnishes, fillers, oil or waxy products, impregnating agents and floor coatings that contain volatile organic compounds as referred to in Article 4.62a of the Decree; b. components of homes or other buildings: all objects that are present in homes or other buildings and which cannot reasonably be removed from them due to their nature, shape, weight or dimensions. Components of homes and other buildings do not include objects that are manufactured, repaired or maintained in the context of a production process, or repair or maintenance, insofar as the manufacture, repair or maintenance is performed in a workplace that is adequately equipped for this purpose. 2. If activities as referred to in Article 4.62b of the Decree are designated acts in homes or other buildings, consisting of: a. gluing cladding to floors, stairs, walls or ceilings of houses or other buildings, including pre-treatment; b. the application of products in homes or other buildings or on components of homes or other buildings, including pre-processing. 3. The second paragraph, under b, does not apply to: a. metal components of buildings for which the use of products is permitted on the basis of the circumstances described in Annex XIV to this Regulation; b. the preparation of walls and ceilings of houses or other buildings in places where these walls and ceilings are seriously contaminated by fire or smoke damage or attack from smoking tobacco products; c. roughing in the sense of reinforcing highly porous or powdering components of homes or other buildings; d. repairing damage to steel structures with the help of paint or varnish in new homes or other buildings; e. the restoration or maintenance of historical finishing or top layers in a technique that is equal to or corresponds to that historical finish, whereby the activities are aimed at preserving the monumental values of a national monument within the meaning of the Heritage Act; f. applying traditional imitation painting, such as marble and wood grain painting, as well as gilding using gold paint. Application does not include pre-processing; Machine Translated by Google g. applying a product to glazing sealant in buildings insofar as these were delivered before January 1, 2001, in order to make this kit suitable for the application of water- based paint products. 4. Products that are used in the activities referred to in the second paragraph, under a, contain a maximum of 5 grams of volatile organic compounds per kilogram of ready-to-use product. 5. Products that are used in the activities referred to in the second paragraph, under b, insofar as it concerns the application of wall paint, contain a maximum of 60 grams of volatile organic compounds per liter of ready-to-use product. 6. Products that are used in the activities referred to in the second paragraph, under b, insofar as they concern activities other than the application of wall paint, contain a maximum of 100 grams of volatile organic compounds per liter of ready-to-use product. If the products referred to in the first sentence are epoxy-based products, benzyl alcohol is excluded when determining the weight of the volatile organic compounds. Article 4.32aa. Temporary regulation of floor coatings based on methyl methacrylate 1. In addition to Article 4.32a, third paragraph, Article 4.32a, second paragraph, under b, does not apply application to the use of floor coatings based on methyl methacrylate, insofar as it concerns the repair and maintenance of an existing floor in a residence or a building, provided that the commissioning and full chemical and mechanical resistance of that floor are necessary within 7 days after applying the floor coatings and this is not possible under the given circumstances with products as referred to in Article 4.32a, paragraph 6. 2. This article expires on August 1, 2020. Article 4.32ab. Temporary arrangement for floor coatings based on MMA [Expired as of 01-08-2015] Article 4.32b. offset printing 1. The following are designated as activities as referred to in Article 4.62b of the Decree: a. printing using an offset press; b. the daily cleaning of machines or machine parts, tools or materials used in offset printing; c. the non-daily cleaning of machines or machine parts, tools or materials used in offset printing. maximumThe of 8fountain percent solution by volumethatisopropyl is used for alcohol the activities or other referred mono-alcohols to in thewith firstautomatic paragraph, dosing 2. under systems a, contains and a a maximum of 10 percent by volume with manual dosing systems. Machine Translated by Google dosing systems and in web offset presses first put into service before January 1, 1985. 3. Products used in the activities referred to in the first paragraph, under b, contain a maximum of 0.1 volume percent halogenated hydrocarbons or monoaromatics with a vapor pressure of more than 0.1 millibar at 20 °C and have a flash point of at least 55 °C. 4. Products used in the activities referred to in the first paragraph, under c, contain a maximum of 0.1 percent by volume of halogenated hydrocarbons or monoaromatics with a vapor pressure of more than 0.1 millibar at 20 °C. Article 4.32c. screen printing 1. The following are designated as activities as referred to in Article 4.62b of the Decree: a. cleaning machines or machine parts, tools or materials used in screen printing; b. screen printing of paper and cardboard intended for indoor applications and weighing more than 135 grams per square metre. 2. Products used in the activities referred to in the first paragraph, under a, contain a maximum of 0.1% by volume of halogenated hydrocarbons or monoaromatics with a vapor pressure of more than 0.1 millibar at 20 °C and have a flash point of at least 21. °C. 3. Products used in the activities referred to in the first paragraph, under b, contain a maximum of 150 grams of volatile organic compounds per kilogram of product. Article 4.32d. Illustration intaglios 1. If activities as referred to in Article 4.62b of the Decree are designated cleaning floors in illustration intaglio printing houses. 2. Products that are used in the activities referred to in the first paragraph, contain not more than 0,1 % by volume halogenated hydrocarbons or monoaromatics with a vapor pressure greater than 0,1 millibar at 20 °C and have a flash point of at least 55 °C. Article 4.32e. Packaging gravure and flexo printing In this article is understood by: a. painting: applying a lacquer to a flexible material or an adhesive to a flexible material for the purpose of later sealing of that material; b. lamination or lamination: bonding two or more flexible materials into one laminate flooring. Machine Translated by Google 2. The following are designated as activities as referred to in Article 4.62b of the Decree: a. printing, lacquering, laminating or laminating using a packaging rotogravure press, flexo press, lacquering, laminating or laminating machine that is not connected to an extraction system; b. the cleaning of machines or machine parts, tools or materials that are used in the activities referred to under a, unless these activities are performed using a closed installation or an installation that is extracted; c. laminating or laminating using a laminating or laminating machine which is not connected to an installation for the recovery or destruction of volatile organic compounds; machine not printing connected or coating to anpaper installation and cardboard for the recovery using a or d. destruction flexo printing ofpress volatile or organic lacquering compounds; e. the cleaning of machines or machine parts, tools or materials that are used in the activities referred to under c and d, unless these activities are performed using a closed installation or an installation that is extracted. 3. Products that are used in the activities referred to in the second paragraph, contain a maximum of 50 grams of volatile organic compounds per kilogram of product. 4. The third paragraph does not apply to the products used in the activities, as referred to in the second paragraph, under c, d and e, if special requirements are set for the quality or resistance of the manufactured product, provided that on an annual basis the weight of the volatile organic compounds of the products used in the activities referred to in the second paragraph, under c, d and e, do not exceed 80% of the weight of the applied solid matter. Article 4.32f. Repair car damage 1. In this article, motor vehicle is understood to mean: a passenger car, a delivery van, a motorcycle, a bus or a camper as referred to in Article 2, under b, c, d, e and g, respectively, of the Motor Vehicle Tax Act 1994 or a truck as referred to in Article 1, first paragraph, under e, of the Road Freight Transport Act. 2. The following are designated as activities as referred to in Article 4.62b of the Decree: a. applying or applying primer, surfacer, sealer or 1 and 2 coats topcoat systems or of special or other products as referred to in Annex XV to these Regulations, for the purpose of repairing paint damage or renewing paint layers on parts of motor vehicles; b. the cleaning of tools that are used in the activities referred to under a, or surfaces of parts of motor vehicles for the purpose of the repair or renewal work referred to under a. Machine Translated by Google 3. The second paragraph does not apply to work for the purpose of repairing paint damage or renewing paint layers on parts of motor vehicles built before 1970; or spray-ready Products form, used contain in the at activities most thereferred contenttoofinvolatile the second organic paragraph, compounds 4. inthat ready-to-use has been established with regard to these products in Annex XV to these Regulations. Article 4.32g. Coating of carpentry in indoor situations 1. In this article, coating is understood to mean: a product that is applied to a surface to obtain a decorative, protective or other functional effect. 2. Activities in indoor situations are designated as activities as referred to in Article 4.62b of the Decree, consisting of: a. applying a coating to parts of newly manufactured exterior doors, frames, windows, interior cavity leaves, facade infilling elements and other facade carpentry, insofar as they are made of wood or an equivalent or comparable material, as part of the production process; b. applying a coating to parts of newly manufactured internal stairs, insofar as they are made of wood or an equivalent or comparable material, as part of the production process. Coatings that are used in the activities referred to in the second paragraph, 3. under a and b contain a maximum of 150 grams of volatile organic compounds per liter of ready-to-use product. Article 4.32h. Equalization of replacement products With the provisions in Articles 4.32a fourth to sixth inclusive, 4.32b, second to fourth paragraph, 4.32c, second and third paragraph, 4.32d, second paragraph, 4.32e, third paragraph, 4.32f, fourth paragraph and 4.32g, third paragraph, the products referred to are assimilated products that have been lawfully manufactured and marketed in another Member State of the European Union or that have been lawfully manufactured in a state, not being a Member State of the European Union, which is a party to the Agreement on the European Economic Area, and which meet requirements providing a level of protection at least equivalent to that sought by national requirements. Section 4.9. [Cancelled] Article 4.33 [Expired as of 19-04-2002] Article 4.34 [Expired as of 19-04-2002] Machine Translated by Google Article 4.35 [Expired as of 19-04-2002] Article 4.36 [Expired as of 19-04-2002] Article 4.37 [Expired as of 19-04-2002] Article 4.38 [Expired as of 19-04-2002] Article 4.39 [Expired as of 19-04-2002] Article 4.40 [Expired as of 19-04-2002] Article 4.41 [Expired as of 19-04-2002] Article 4.41a [Expired as of 09-01-2000] Article 4.41b [Expired as of 09-01-2000] Article 4.42 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 4.43 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 4.44 Machine Translated by Google [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 4.45 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 4.46 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 4.47 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 4.48 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 4.49 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 4.50 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Chapter 5. Screen Work Article 5.1. Equipment and furniture Equipment and furniture used when performing VDU work shall in any event comply with the following regulations: a. the characters on the screen are sufficiently sharp, clearly defined and sufficiently large, with sufficient distance between the characters and the lines; b. the image on the screen is stable; c. the luminance or contrast between the characters and the background is easily adjustable by the user; d. the screen can be positioned freely and is easily adjustable and tiltable; e. the screen is free from glare that is annoying to the user and reflections; f. the keyboard can be placed at an angle and does not form a whole with the display screen; there is sufficient space for the hands and arms of the keyboard in front of the keyboard g. user; h. the keyboard has a matte surface; i. the layout of the keyboard and the shape of the keys are aimed at facilitating use; Machine Translated by Google j. the symbols on the keys are sufficiently high in contrast and sufficiently legible from a normal working position; k. the work table or work surface allows a comfortable posture for the user and has a low- reflection surface, is of sufficient size and allows a flexible arrangement of the screen, keyboard, documents and accessories; l. a document holder necessary for work is stable and adjustable and positioned to minimize uncomfortable head and eye movements; m. the work chair is stable, has a height-adjustable seat and a backrest, whose height and angle of inclination are adjustable and gives the user freedom of movement and a comfortable working position; n. if the user wishes, a footrest is fitted. Article 5.2. Set up of the VDU workstation The environment in which the VDU work is performed and the layout of the VDU workplace must in any case meet the following requirements: a. the lighting of the workspace or the VDU workstation provides sufficient light and an appropriate contrast between screen and environment, taking into account taking into account the nature of the work and the visual needs of the user; b. possible glare and annoying reflections on the screen or on devices from artificial light sources are avoided; c. there are no direct glare and annoying reflections on the screen through windows and other openings, walls and devices; d. the windows are equipped with suitable adjustable brightness protection to reduce the intensity of the light that falls on the computer screen; e. the noise produced by the equipment does not disturb attention and the spoken word; f. the equipment does not generate heat that is inconvenient for the employees; g. the humidity level is always sufficient. Article 5.3. Software The software that is used when performing VDU work shall in any case meet the following requirements: a. the software is adapted to the task to be performed; b. the software is easy to use and adaptable to the level of knowledge and experience of the user; c. no use is made without the knowledge of the user quantitative or qualitative control mechanism; d. the systems provide the user with data on their operation; e. the systems render the information visible in a form and pace adapted to the user; f. the principles of ergonomics are applied in the processing of information by the user. Chapter 6. Work under excess pressure Machine Translated by Google Section 6.1. Certification Article 6.1. Requirements for designation as a certifying institution in the field of diving work 1. As a certifying institution as referred to in Article 6.14a(3) of the Decree, a training institution that provides training with the aim of training persons who, on the basis of a business or profession, carry out or will carry out occupational health examinations as referred to in Article 6.14a, first and second paragraph, of the Decree, and who meets the criteria as laid down in the document, mentioned in the second paragraph. As a certifying institution as referred to in Article 6.16, third, sixth or seventh paragraph, 2. of the Decree, an institution can be designated that meets the criteria as laid down in the Field Specific document for the designation and supervision of certification bodies charged with personal certification in the field of Overpressure Work, document: WDAT-WOD-P, as included in Annex XVI to the Scheme. 3. The designated certifying institution as referred to in Article 6.16, paragraphs 3, 6 or 7 of the Decree is an institution that: a. on the basis of a regulation established for that purpose by the Minister of Security and Justice, takes an exam belonging to the training course diving team leader, diver or diving medical supervision from the fire brigade; b. provides training as a diver doctor, diving team leader, diver or diving medical supervision at the Ministry of Defense on the basis of a regulation established for that purpose by the Minister of Defense and takes the associated exams. Article 6.2. Provide data [Expired as of 01-07-2012] Article 6.3. Issuing certificate diving team leader, diving work and diving medical supervision [Expired as of 01-07-2012] Article 6.3a. Issuing certificate diver doctor [Expired as of 01-07-2012] Article 6.4. Compensation [Expired as of 01-07-2012] Section 6.2. educations Article 6.5. Certificate of issue of a diving doctor, diver, not being a fire-fighting diver, diving team leader, not being fire-fighting diving team leader, and diving medical supervisor Machine Translated by Google certifyingAinstitution certificateifas thereferred applicant: to in Article 6.14a, paragraph 3, of the Decree is issued by the 1. a. is registered as a company doctor as referred to in Article 14, first paragraph, preamble of the law; b. has passed the examination associated with the degree program referred to in Article 6.1, paragraph 1, and c. meets the criteria as laid down in the Work Field Specific certification scheme for the personal certificate diving doctor, document: WSCS-WOD-A, as included in Annex XVIa to the Regulation. 2. A certificate as referred to in Article 6.16, paragraph 3, of the Decree is issued by the certifying institution if the applicant, who is not a fire department diving team leader, meets the criteria as laid down in the Field Specific Certification Scheme for the Personal Certificate Diving Team Leader, document: WSCS-WOD- L, as included in Annex XVIb to the Regulation. 3. A certificate as referred to in Article 6.16(6) of the Decree is issued by the certification body issued if the applicant, who is not a fire diver, meets the criteria as laid down in the Field-specific certification scheme for the diving work personal certificate, document: WSCS-WOD-D, as included in Annex XVIc to the Regulation. A certificate as referred to in Article 6.16, seventh paragraph, of the Decree is issued by the 4. certifying institution issued if the applicant meets the criteria as laid down in the Field Specific Certification Scheme for the Personal Certificate for Diving Medical Supervisor, document: WSCS-WOD-B, as included in Annex XVId to the Regulation. Article 6.6. Issuing certificate fire diver and fire dive team leader 1. A certificate as referred to in Article 6.16, paragraph 3, of the Decree is issued by the certifying institution referred to in Article 6.1, paragraph 3, if the applicant, being a fire brigade diving team leader, meets the criteria as laid down in the Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate. diving team leader at the fire service, document: WSCS-WOD-F, as included in Annex XVIe to the Regulation. 2. A certificate as referred to in Article 6.16(6) of the Decree is issued by the certifying body referred to in Article 6.1(3), if the applicant, being a fire diver, meets the criteria as laid down in the Field- specific certification scheme for the personal certificate. diving work performed by the fire service, document: WSCS-WOD-E, as included in Annex XVIf to the Regulation. Section 6.3. Occupational health examination divers Article 6.7. Content occupational health research Machine Translated by Google [Expired as of 01-07-2012] Section 6.4. Exemption Article 6.8 Exemption certificate diving work students A valid license NOB**, issued by the Dutch Underwater Sports Association, or a license equivalent in the opinion of the Minister is designated as a recreational diving license as referred to in Article 6.31, paragraph 2 of the Decree. Chapter 7. Work equipment Section 7.1. Crane certification Article 7.1. Definitions [Expired as of 01-09-2003] Article 7.2. Examinations and tests categories of cranes [Expired as of 09-01-2003] Article 7.3. Issuing Certificate of Approval [Expired as of 01-09-2003] Section 7.2. Hoisting and lifting equipment and hoisting and lifting equipment on board ships Article 7.4. Model certificates tests and examinations Models of the certificates referred to in Article 7.29, paragraph 9, of the Decree are the models of the certificates, referred to in Article 25, paragraph 3, of the Convention on occupational safety and health in dock work (1979). Article 7.5. Model register The model referred to in Article 25, second paragraph, of the Convention on Occupational Safety and Health in Dock Work (1979) is adopted as the model for the register referred to in Article 7.29, paragraph 10, of the Decree. Section 7.3. Crane operators and foundation machines certification Article 7.6. Categories tower cranes, mobile cranes and mobile pile drivers A person is in possession of a certificate of professional competence as referred to in Article 7.32, first paragraph, under a, of the Decree if he operates a tower crane, mobile crane or mobile piling installation as described in parts a to c. : Machine Translated by Google a. tower crane: tower-shaped crane whose maximum operating load moment is 10 tonne meters or more or the boom is mounted 20 meters or higher above the plane of the support of the crane; b. mobile crane: movable, non-stationary crane that is not a tower crane and of which the maximum operating load moment is 10 tonne-meter or more, with the exception of: 1º. a loading crane mounted on a vehicle which is exclusively designed or at least exclusively used for loading and unloading the loading body of the vehicle or a combination of vehicles; 2º. an earth-moving machine that makes excavations and that immediately connects pipework in those excavations or places support partitions for the purpose of carrying out earth-moving work; c. mobile piling installation: wheeled or rollable foundation rig designed or intended to drive, drive or remove piles or other elongated objects in the ground and to carry out operations directly related to this, including the with a maximum operating load moment of 10 tonne meters or more moving loads. With regard to a certificate as referred to in the first paragraph, 2. distinguished: a. a certificate of competence for operators of tower cranes, divided into the following categories: 1°. mobile tower crane; 2°. top tower crane; 3°. trolley tower crane; b. a certificate of competence for mobile crane operators, subdivided into the following categories: 1°. mobile crawler crane; 2°. auto truck/rough terrain crane/road terrain crane; 3°. earth-moving machine with lifting function; 4°. truck-mounted crane; 5° telehandler with lifting function. c. a certificate of competence for mobile pile drivers installations, subdivided into the categories: 1°. small foundation rig: machine with its own mass including equipment and foundation element that is equal to or less than 30 tons, has a total height of less than 10 meters and which processes foundation elements shorter than 10 meters; 2°. large foundation rig: machine with its own mass including equipment and foundation element of 30 tons or more, has a total height of 10 meters or more, or which processes foundation elements of 10 meters or more. Article 7.7. Issue certificate of professional competence Machine Translated by Google 1. The designation as a certification body, as referred to in Article 7.32, first paragraph, preamble and under a, of the Decree, can take place if the applicant body meets the requirements as laid down in the Field-Specific Document for the designation and supervision of the certification and inspection bodies that certifying persons in the context of vertical transport, document code WDAT-VT-Personen as included in Annex XVII to the Regulation. Minister Ahas certificate designatedas referred a certifying to ininstitution Article 7.6asshall referred be issued to in the by the firstMinister paragraph, or, ifthe the certifying institution, if the applicant meets the following requirements: a. if it concerns a certificate for the operation of a mobile tower crane of the category referred to in Article 7.6, second paragraph, part a, sub 1°, the Work-field-specific certification scheme 'Machinist Mobile Tower Crane', document code WSCS-VT Machinist Mobile Tower Crane, as included in Annex XVIIa to the Regulation; b. if it concerns a certificate for the operation of a tower crane from the categories referred to in Article 7.6, second paragraph, part a, sub 2° and 3°, the Workfield-specific certification scheme 'Machinist Tower Crane', document code WSCS-VT Machinist Tower Crane, as included in Annex XVIIb to the Regulation or the Workfield-specific Certification Scheme for Machinist Mobile Tower Crane, document code WSCS VT Machinist Mobile Tower Crane, as included in Annex XVIIa to the Regulation; c. if it concerns a certificate for the operation of a mobile crane of the categories referred to in Article 7.6, second paragraph, part b, sub 1° and 2°, the Workfield-specific certification scheme 'Machinist Mobile Crane', document code WSCS-VT Machinist Mobile Crane, as included in Annex XVIIc to the Regulation; d. if it concerns a certificate for the operation of a mobile crane, being an earth-moving machine with a lifting function, of the category referred to in Article 7.6, second paragraph, part b, sub 3°, the Work Field-specific certification scheme 'Machinist Earth- moving Machine with Lifting Function', document code WSCS-VT Machinist Earth-moving Machine with Lifting Function, as included as appendix XVIId to the Regulation or the Field Specific Certification Scheme for Mobile Crane Operator, document code WSCS-VT Mobile Crane Operator, as included in Appendix XVIIc to the Regulation; e. if it concerns a certificate for the operation of a mobile crane, being a truck- mounted crane with a lifting function, of the category referred to in Article 7.6, second paragraph, part b, sub 4°, the Work-field-specific certification scheme 'Machinist Truck-mounted crane', document code WSCS-VT Driver Loading Crane, as included in Appendix XVIIe to the Regulation or the Work Field-specific Certification Scheme for Machinist Mobile Crane, document code WSCS-VT Machinist Mobile Crane, as included in Appendix XVIIc to the Regulation; f. if it concerns a certificate for the operation of a mobile crane, being a telehandler with a lifting function, of the category referred to in Article 7.6, second paragraph, part b, sub 5°, the Work Field-specific certification scheme 'Operator Telescopic Handler with Hoisting Function', document code WSCS-VT Operator Telescopic Handler with Hoisting Function, as included in Annex XVIIf to the Regulation or the Field Specific Certification Scheme for Mobile Crane Operator, document code WSCS-VT Mobile Crane Operator, as included in Appendix XVIIc to the Regulation; g. if it concerns a certificate for the operation of a foundation rig as referred to in Article 7.6, second paragraph, part c, sub 1°, of the Machine Translated by Google Field-specific certification scheme 'Machinist Small Foundation Machine', document code WSCS-VT Machinist Small Foundation Machine, as included in appendix XVIIg to the regulation or the Workfield-specific certification scheme 'Machinist Large Foundation Machine', document code WSCS-VT Machinist Large Foundation Machine, as included in Annex XVIIh to the Regulation; h. if it concerns a certificate for the operation of a foundation rig as referred to in Article 7.6, second paragraph, part c, sub 2° of the Workfield-specific certification scheme 'Machinist Large Foundation Machine', document code WSCS-VT Machinist Large Foundation Machine, as included in Annex XVIIh to the Regulation. Article 7.8. Provide data when applying for a certificate [Expired as of 03-12-2004] Article 7.9 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 7.10 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 7.11 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 7.12 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 7.13 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 7.14 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 7.15 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 7.16 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Machine Translated by Google Article 7.17 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 7.18 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 7.19 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Article 7.20 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Chapter 8. Health and Safety Signage Article 8.1. Requirements 1. Safety or health signs as referred to in Article 8.4 of the Decree comply with the second paragraph and Articles 8.2 up to and including 8.29. 2. Safety or health signs are regularly cleaned, maintained, verified and repaired or replaced as necessary, as appropriate, with a view to preserving their intrinsic or functional qualities. Article 8.2. Permanent signaling 1. Signals relating to prohibitions, warnings and orders, as well as signals relating to the location and identification of rescue or rescue aids, are carried out on a permanent basis by means of signs. 2. The signaling for the localization and identification of fire-fighting equipment is done permanently by means of signs or a safety colour. 3. The signaling on reservoirs and pipes takes place in accordance with Articles 8.4, third paragraph, 8.9 and 8.11 up to and including 8.15. 4. The dangers of impacts against obstacles and of persons falling are signaled permanently by means of a safety color or signs. 5. Traffic routes are permanently marked with a safety colour. Article 8.3. Occasional signaling Machine Translated by Google 1. The signaling of dangerous events, the summoning of persons for a specific action, as well as the urgent evacuation of persons takes place occasionally, by means of a light signal, an acoustic signal or a verbal announcement. by means Directing of handpersons signals or whosemaphore carry out actions signals where or verbal there announcements. is a danger, is occasionally done Article 8.4. Free choice of signaling 1. If the alert is equally effective, there is a free choice between: a. the light signals, the acoustic signals or the verbal communication; b. the hand or arm signal or the verbal communication; c. a safety suit or a sign indicating the danger of tripping or falling due to height difference. 2. The following signaling modes can be used simultaneously: a. the light signal and the acoustic signal; b. the light signal and the verbal communication; c. the hand or arm signal and the verbal communication. 3. The effectiveness of a signal must not be compromised by the presence of another signal or by other factors which impair sight or audibility, poor design, insufficient numbers, poor placement, poor condition or malfunctioning of the signaling means or signaling facilities. Article 8.5. Use of colors Insofar as signaling is made by means of a safety colour: a. marked with the color red: 1°. a prohibition signal; 2°. danger or alarm; identification and localization of firefighting equipment and 3°. firefighting equipment; b. a warning signal indicated by the color yellow or orange-yellow; c. indicated by the color blue a command signal; d. indicated by the color green: 1°. a rescue signal or a first aid signal; 2°. a safe situation. Article 8.6. Emergency installation Signals requiring an energy source shall be fitted with an emergency installation in the event that this energy source fails, unless the danger to be signaled ceases to exist when the energy fails. Article 8.7. Control light and sound signals Machine Translated by Google being putThe into light operation. and sound This signals check ishave repeated been sufficiently checked foroften proper afterwards. functioning and 1. real effectiveness before A light or sound signal indicates the start of an action when actuated: the 2. its duration is as long as the action requires. The light and sound signals are immediately reactivated after each use. Article 8.8. Protection specific employees If the workers concerned have limited hearing or vision, including by wearing individual protective equipment, adequate additional or replacement measures should be taken. Article 8.9. General requirements safety signs 1. The icons that feature safety signs are so simple possible and for the sake of understanding superfluous details are omitted. The plates are made of material with the greatest possible shock resistance and 2. weather resistance. 3. The signs have such dimensions and color and light technology properties that they are easily visible and easy to understand. Article 8.10. Types of plates 1. Prohibition signs are characterized by a round shape, a black pictogram on a white background, a red border and a bar that runs across the pictogram from left to right at an angle of 45° to the horizontal line, the red color being at least 35% of the the surface of the board. 2. Warning signs are characterized by a triangular shape, a black pictogram on a yellow background and a black border, with the yellow color occupying at least 50% of the surface of the sign. 3. Mandatory signs are characterized by a round shape, a white pictogram on blue background, where the blue color occupies at least 50% of the surface of the board. 4. Rescue boards are characterized by a rectangular or square shape, white icon on a green background, with the green color occupying at least 50% of the surface of the sign. Machine Translated by Google 5. Signs associated with the fire-fighting equipment are characterized by a rectangular or square shape and a white pictogram on a red background, with the red color occupying at least 50% of the surface of the sign. specifiedThe therein. signs included in Annex XVIII to this Regulation are used in the 6. situations The pictograms used may differ slightly from or be more detailed than 7. the pictograms of the signs, referred to in Annex XVIII to this Regulation. However, their meaning is then the same and differences or adaptations do not make the meaning unclear. Article 8.11. Placement of signs 1. The signs are placed at an appropriate height, taking into account any obstacles and installed in an appropriate position in relation to the field of vision, either at the entrance to an area where there is a general risk or in the immediate vicinity of a specific risk or the object to be signaled, in a well-lit, easily accessible and visible Place. In poor natural lighting conditions, fluorescent colors, 2. Use reflective materials or artificial light. 3. A sign is removed once the situation that warrants its presence no longer exists. Article 8.12. Reservoirs and pipes with hazardous substances 1. Reservoirs used in work with or storage of chemical substances or mixtures classified as hazardous in accordance with the EC Regulation Classification, Labeling and Packaging of substances and mixtures on the basis of the criteria for any physical hazard class or health hazard class, as well as pipes containing such contain substances and mixtures, or through which these substances and mixtures are transported, shall be marked with the relevant hazard pictograms in accordance with that Regulation. 2. The previous paragraph does not apply to reservoirs used in activities of short duration or frequently changing content provided that adequate alternative measures are taken, in particular in the field of information or training, which guarantee the same level of protection. 3. The hazard pictograms referred to in the first paragraph can: a. be replaced by warning signs as shown in Article 8.10 with the same pictogram or symbol on the understanding that if Article 8.10 does not contain an equivalent warning sign, the relevant hazard pictogram as shown in Annex V of the EC Regulation on classification, labeling and packaging of substances and mixtures is used; Machine Translated by Google b. be supplemented with additional information such as the name or formula of the hazardous substance and a detailed description of the hazard; c. for the transport of containers at the workplace are supplemented with or replaced by signs that are applicable to the transport of dangerous goods pursuant to the Transport of Dangerous Goods Act or the Aviation Act. Article 8.13. Placing signage on reservoirs and pipes The sign as referred to in Article 8.12 is affixed to the visible sides in the form of hard material, self-adhesive material or paint. Article 8.14. Placement on pipes The hazard pictograms or signal words used on pipes shall be displayed visibly and with sufficient repetition in the vicinity of the most dangerous places, such as valves and connection points. Article 8.15. Signaling when storing hazardous substances 1. The signaling of places, rooms or enclosed spaces used for the storage of significant quantities of hazardous substances is done by means of a suitable warning sign as referred to in Article 8.10 or by hazard pictograms and signal words as referred to in Article 8.12, unless, taking into account Article 8.9, paragraph 3, with regard to size, the hazard pictograms and signal words of the separate packaging or on the reservoirs will suffice. The signs or hazard pictograms and signal words referred to in the first paragraph 2. are placed near the storage area or on the access door to the storage area. 3. If Article 8.10 does not contain an equivalent warning sign, the relevant hazard pictogram as shown in Annex V of the EC Regulation on classification, labeling and packaging of substances and mixtures is used. Article 8.16. Method of use light signals Taking into account the conditions of use, the light emitted by a signal produces a light contrast adapted to the environment, which must not lead to dazzling but is sufficiently visible. Article 8.17. Uniformity 1. The light surface emitting a signal is uniform in color or contains a icon on a certain background. 2. The uniform color complies with Article 8.5. 3. If the signal contains a pictogram, this complies with Article 8.10. Machine Translated by Google Article 8.18. Special light signals 1. When a facility can transmit a continuous and an intermittent signal, the intermittent signal is used to indicate, relative to the continuous signal, that a situation is involved that presents a greater danger or where the desired or mandatory intervention or action is more urgent. has to be done. 2. When an intermittent light signal is used in place of or to complete an audio signal, the code of the signal is identical. 3. A device to emit a light signal in the event of great danger is specially monitored or equipped with a spare lamp. 4. The duration and frequency of the flashes of an intermittent light signal are such that: a. the message of the signal is well understood, and b. avoiding confusion between different light signals or between a continuous and an intermittent light signal. Article 8.19. Sound signals requirements 1. A sound signal: a. has a noise level that is significantly higher than the level of the environmental noise so that it is clearly audible but not too loud or painful to the ears; b. is easily recognizable; c. is easily distinguishable from another sound signal and other ambient sounds. 2. Where a facility is capable of transmitting a variable and fixed frequency sound signal, the variable frequency shall be used to indicate, relative to the fixed frequency, that there is a situation of greater danger or where the desired or mandatory intervention or action must be carried out with greater urgency. 3. The sound of an evacuation signal is continuous. Article 8.20. General requirements for the oral communication 1. The oral communication takes place between a speaker or sender and one or more listeners, in the form of short texts, phrases or individual words, possibly encoded. 2. The oral messages are as short, simple and clear as possible. 3. The language skills of the speaker and the hearing ability of the listener are sufficient to establish unambiguous communication. Machine Translated by Google 4. The oral communication is direct through the use of the human voice or indirectly through the human voice or speech synthesis, disseminated through an ad hoc means. 5. If the oral communication is used instead of or in addition to hand or arm signals and no codes are used, in particular the following words are used: a. start, to indicate the beginning of a command; b. stop, to interrupt or end a movement; c. end, to stop the work; d. to hoist, to raise a load; e. to celebrate, to make a burden celebrated; f. forward, backward, to the right, to the left, in combination with the right hand or semaphore, to cause a movement to take place in a particular direction; gh danger, to force an emergency stop; fast, to speed up a movement. Article 8.21. Language used The persons concerned know the language used in such a way that they can correctly pronounce and understand the message and, depending on the message, behave appropriately in terms of safety or health. Article 8.22. General requirements for hand and semaphore signals 1. A hand or arm signal is precise and simple and consists of a broad gesture. 2. The simultaneous use of both arms is symmetrical and gives only one single signal. Article 8.23. signalman 1. The signaller transmits control instructions to the receiver of the signals using hand and semaphore signals. 2. The signalman devotes his attention solely to giving the operating instructions and the safety of the workers who are in the vicinity. 3. The signaller can see the entire control operation without being hindered by the action. 4. If the conditions referred to in the third paragraph cannot be met, one or more additional signalmen shall be engaged. Article 8.24. Receiver of signals Machine Translated by Google The receiver of the signals stops the transport movement in progress to request new instructions, if he cannot carry out the orders received with the necessary security guarantees. Article 8.25. Signalman's awareness The signaller is easily recognizable to the receiver of the signals. Article 8.26. Prevent ambiguity signals The hand signals and semaphores listed in Annex XIX to this Regulation are used in the situations specified therein, without prejudice to the use of other applicable codes, in particular in certain sectors of industry, denoting the same operations. Article 8.27. Signaling of obstacles and dangerous places 1. The signaling of danger caused by impacts against obstacles, by falling objects or persons, is done by means of yellow, alternating with black, or red alternating with white, within the built-up areas of the company or the establishment to which the employee is assigned in the context of his work. has access. 2. The yellow and black or red and white bands are applied at an angle of approximately 45° and have approximately the same dimensions. Article 8.28. Matching signal to obstacle or dangerous place The dimensions of the signage take into account the size of the detected obstacle or dangerous place. Article 8.29. Highway marking requirements When the protection of the workers so requires, the traffic routes are closed 1. clearly indicated in the workplace for vehicles by continuous stripes with a clearly visible color. 2. When applying the stripes, the necessary safety distances between the vehicles that can drive there and any object that may be in the vicinity and between the pedestrians and the vehicles are taken into account. Chapter 8a. Violations and measures Article 8.29a. Violations An offense for which an administrative fine can be imposed is an act or omission contrary to the regulations included in Articles 3.4, 3.5, 3.11, 3.12, 3.13, 3.14, 4.3 up to and including 4.7, 4.9, 4.11 to Machine Translated by Google and with 4.13, 4.15, 4.18, 4.19, second paragraph, 4.20, second paragraph, 4.20a, 4.20b, first, third, fourth and fifth paragraph, 4.22 to 4.26, 5.1 to 5.3, 8.1, second paragraph, 8.2, 8.3, 8.4, third paragraph, 8.5 to 8.11, 8.12, first and second paragraph, and 8.13 to 8.29. Article 8.29b The amount of the standard fine, referred to in Article 9.10a, fifth paragraph, of the Decree is € 4500. Article 8.29c. Similar violations Similar violations as referred to in Article 9.10c of the Decree are considered to be acts or omissions contrary to the provisions of the Articles, which are always indicated in the separate subsections: a. of the Working Conditions Act: Articles 14, seventh paragraph, 14a, fourth member; b. of the Working Conditions Decree: 1°. Article 1.36, first and second paragraph; 2°. Article 1.42, paragraphs 1 to 4 inclusive; 3°. Article 1.46, third paragraph, under a to d; 4°. Article 1.46, fourth paragraph, under a and b; 5°. Article 1.46, paragraph 6 and paragraph 7; 6°. Article 1.46, ninth and tenth paragraphs; 7°. Article 2.42h, paragraphs 2 to 4 inclusive; 8°. Article 3.2, paragraphs 1 to 3 inclusive; 9°. Article 3.3, first and second paragraph; 10°. Article 3.4, first and second paragraph; 11°. Article 3.5, third, fourth and seventh paragraph; 12°. Article 3.5c, first to third paragraphs inclusive; 13°. Article 3.5d, first to third paragraphs inclusive; 14°. Article 3.5g, first and second paragraph; 15°. Articles 3.6, 3.7, first and second paragraph; 16°. Article 3.7, paragraphs 3 to 6 inclusive; 17°. Article 3.13, first to fourth paragraph and eighth to tenth inclusive member; 18°. Article 3.13, fifth to seventh paragraphs; 19°. Article 3.16, first and fifth paragraph; 20°. Article 3.29, first and fourth paragraph; 21°. Article 3.37, first and second paragraph; 22°. Articles 3.37k, first and second paragraph, 3.37n, first paragraph, 3.37r, first to fourth paragraph, 3.37t, first, second and fourth paragraph, and 3.37u; 23°. Articles 3.37m, 3.37p, first and second paragraph, 3.37s, second and third paragraph, 3.37v, first to third paragraph, and 3.37w, second paragraph, under a; 24°. Articles 3.37n, second paragraph, and 3.37w, first, third and fourth paragraph; 25°. Articles 3.37q, first and third paragraph, 3.37s, fourth paragraph, and 3.37w, second paragraph, parts b to e; 26°. Article 3.37s, first, fifth and sixth paragraph; Machine Translated by Google 27°. Article 4.1c, first paragraph, parts d and e; 28°. Article 4.1c, first paragraph, under f and g; 29°. Article 4.1d, first paragraph, under a and b; 30°. Article 4.1d, third paragraph, under a to d; 31°. Article 4.2, paragraphs 2 to 7; 32°. Article 4.3, paragraphs 3 and 4; 33°. Article 4.7, paragraphs 2 and 3, under a; 34°. Article 4.8, first to third paragraphs; 35°. Articles 4.8, fourth paragraph, 4.9, third paragraph, and 4.10, third paragraph; 36°. Articles 4.10a, first and second paragraph, and 4.10b, first paragraph; 37°. Article 4.16 third and fourth paragraph; 38°. Article 4.19, parts d and e; 39°. Articles 4.45a and 4.45b, first and second paragraph; 40°. Article 4.47, fifth and sixth paragraph; 41°. Articles 4.47, first paragraph, and 4.47a, eighth paragraph; 42°. Article 4.47c, first and second paragraph; 43°. Article 4.50, first to fourth paragraph; 44°. Article 4.51a, first and third paragraph; 45°. Article 4.51a, paragraphs 2 and 4; 46°. Articles 4.54a, fifth and sixth paragraph, and 4.54d, third and ninth paragraph; 47°. Article 4.54d, first, fifth and seventh paragraph; 48°. Article 4.58, first and second paragraph; 49°. Article 4.59, first and second paragraph; 50°. Article 4.60, first and third paragraph; 51°. Article 4.61a, first and third paragraph; 52°. Article 4.85, first and second paragraph; 53°. Article 4.87a, paragraphs 2 and 3; 54°. Article 4.89, sixth and seventh paragraph; 55°. Article 4.90, paragraphs 3 and 4; 56°. Article 4.91, first to third and tenth paragraphs; 57°. Article 4.94, first, third and fifth paragraph; 58°. Article 4.99, first and second paragraph; 59°. Article 4.105, paragraphs 1 to 3; 60°. Articles 4.108, first and second paragraph, and Article 4.109; 61°. Articles 5.2 and 5.3, part a; 62°. Article 5.5, first and second paragraph; 63°. Article 5.11, paragraphs 1 to 3 inclusive; 64°. Article 6.1, first and second paragraph; 65°. Article 6.7, first and fourth paragraph; 66°. Article 6.8, first, third and eleventh paragraph; 67°. Article 6.10, first to third paragraph; 68°. Article 6.11b, first, second and sixth paragraph; 69°. Article 6.11c, paragraphs 2 and 3; 70°. Article 6.11e, first, second and fourth paragraph; 71°. Article 6.12f, first and second paragraph; 72°. Article 6.14a, first and second paragraph; 73°. Article 6.15, first paragraph, under c, and second paragraph; Machine Translated by Google 74°. Articles 6.15a, second paragraph, and 6.16, eighth paragraph; 75°. Article 6.16, third, sixth and seventh paragraph; 76°. Article 6.17, first and second paragraph; 77°. Article 6.18, first to third paragraphs inclusive; 78°. Article 6.20, first to third paragraph; 79°. Article 6.20b, first and second paragraph; 80°. Article 7.4a, paragraphs 1 to 4 inclusive; 81°. Article 7.5, paragraphs 2 and 3; 82°. Article 7.6, first and second paragraph; 83°. Article 7.7, paragraphs 2 to 7; 84°. Article 7.13, first and second paragraph; 85°. Article 7.13, fifth and sixth paragraph; 86°. Article 7.14, first paragraph, and 7.15, first paragraph; 87°. Article 7.17a, first, second, fourth and fifth paragraph; 88°. Article 7.17c, paragraphs 4 to 6 inclusive; 89°. Article 7.18, sixth to eighth paragraphs inclusive; 90°. Article 7.18a, third and thirteenth paragraphs; 91°. Article 7.18b, paragraphs 1 to 3; 92°. Article 7.21, first and second paragraph; 93°. Article 7.23, paragraphs 3 to 5 inclusive; 94°. Article 7.23, eighth to tenth paragraphs; 95°. Article 7.23a, first to third paragraphs inclusive; 96°. Article 7.23b, paragraphs 3 and 5; 97°. Article 7.23b, sixth and seventh paragraph; 98°. Article 7.23c, first paragraph, under a to e, and second paragraph; 99°. Article 7.26, first and second paragraph; 100°. Article 7.29, paragraphs 2 to 4 inclusive; 101°. Article 7.29, fifth and sixth paragraph; 102°. Article 7.29, seventh and eighth paragraphs; 103°. Article 8.1, second to fourth and seventh paragraphs; 104°. Article 8.3, first and second paragraph; and 105°. Article 8.3, paragraphs 3 and 4; c. of the Working Conditions Regulation: 1°. Article 3.5, first and second paragraph; 2°. Article 3.11, paragraphs 1 to 5 inclusive; 3°. Article 3.12, first and second paragraph; 4°. Article 4.4, paragraphs 1 to 3; 5°. Article 4.6, first and second paragraph; 6°. Article 4.7, first to third paragraphs; 7°. Article 4.9, first and second paragraph; 8°. Article 4.15, first paragraph, under a to d, second and third member; 9°. Articles 4.19, second paragraph, and 4.20, second paragraph; and 10°. Article 8.2, first and second paragraph. Chapter 9. Transitional and Final Provisions Machine Translated by Google Article 9.2a The issue of a certificate of professional competence in occupational hygiene by the Foundation for the Certification of Professional Competency SKO in the period from November 1, 1999 to November 3, 2006 is regarded as the issue of a certificate of professional competence in occupational hygiene as referred to in Article 2.15. Article 9.2b. Transitional Scheme for Certification of Diver Doctors The requirement included in Article 6.5, first paragraph, under a, does not apply if the applicant was already working as a diving doctor before 1 January 2003 and in the period of one year before the first issue of the diving doctor certificate to him, at least 10 persons were charged. with the performance of diving work. Article 9.2c. Transitional provision for professional fireworks certification [Expired as of 03-12-2004] Article 9.2d. Transitional provision for certification diving supervisors [Expired as of 01-01-2007] Article 9.2e. Transitional provision for certification of diver doctors [Expired as of 01-01-2007] Article 9.2f. Transitional provision for certification work with asbestos [Expired as of 01-02-2012] Article 9.3. Transitional arrangement Chapter 2, Section 3.3 Extraction industries for the exploration and production of hydrocarbons The supplement to the safety and health care system, referred to in Article 3.16, the supplement to the safety and health policy and document, referred to in Article 3.17, the supplement to the risk inventory and evaluation, referred to in Articles 3.18 and 3.19, and the supplement to the emergency plan, as referred to in Article 3.20, are recorded by the employer and sent to the supervisor: a. for installations existing on the day prior to the date of entry into force, as referred to in Article II: no later than 19 July 2018; for installations other than those referred to in part a: before the start of the b. activities. Article 9.4 [Expired as of 01/11/1999] Machine Translated by Google Article 9.5. Quote title This regulation is cited as: Working Conditions Regulation. This regulation will be published in the Government Gazette with the explanatory notes and appendices. The Hague, 12 March 1997 The Secretary of State mentioned above, wg FHG de Grave Appendix 0. , belonging to Article 1.7a [Cancelled] Annex I. belonging to article 2.0 In the safety management system referred to in Article 2.5a, second paragraph, of the Decree: a. those parts of the general management system, which include the organizational structure, responsibilities, practices, procedures, working methods and production methods and resources that enable the definition and implementation of major accident prevention policies; b. the organization and the personnel: the tasks and responsibilities of the personnel involved in major-accident risk management at all organizational levels, identification of the training needs of such personnel, the organization of such training and the participation therein by the personnel, contractors and subcontractors; c. the identification of the hazards and the assessment of the risks of major accidents, as referred to in Article 2.5b, first paragraph, of the Decree; d. monitoring implementation: the adoption and application of procedures and instructions for the control of the safety of the business, including the maintenance of the installations and the temporary interruptions; e. the manner in which changes are dealt with: the establishment and application of procedures for the planning of changes with regard to the company or the establishment or a part thereof or the applied working methods and production methods or with regard to the design of new working methods or production methods ; f. emergency planning: the establishment and application of procedures for the systematic identification of emergency situations as well as for the development, practice and review of emergency plans. When practicing emergency plans Machine Translated by Google all site employees are involved, including relevant contractors and subcontractors; g. performance monitoring: the establishment and implementation of procedures for the continuous assessment of compliance with the objectives of the major-accident prevention policy and of the safety management system, as well as the establishment of investigation and correction mechanisms for non-compliance take that. These procedures include the system for reporting major accidents and near misses, especially those where protective measures have failed, investigation and follow-up, based on past experience; h. audits and assessment: the establishment and application of procedures for the systematic periodic evaluation of the major accident prevention policy and the effectiveness and adequacy of the safety management system as well as for the documented analysis by the employer of the results of the policy, the safety management system and its updating. Annex II. belonging to article 2.0c The internal emergency plan as referred to in Article 2.5c of the Decree contains the following information and descriptions: a. the name and position of the persons authorized to initiate emergency procedures and of the person responsible for directing and coordinating the measures to combat an accident within the company or establishment; b. the name and position of the person responsible for liaising with the authorities responsible for the external emergency plan; c. for foreseeable circumstances or events that can play a decisive role in the occurrence of a major accident, a description of the measures to be taken to control the situation or the event and to limit the consequences thereof, including a description of the available safety equipment and resources; d. the measures to limit the risk for persons within the company or the equipment, including the alarm system and the rules of conduct when the alarm is triggered; e. the arrangements to put into effect the authority responsible for to promptly inform the external emergency plan in the event of an accident, the information to be provided immediately and the arrangements for providing more detailed information when it becomes available; f. the arrangements for training the employees to perform the tasks expected of them and, if necessary, coordinating this with the external emergency services; g. the aid schemes for external control measures. Machine Translated by Google Annex IIa. belonging to Article 2.7 Working Conditions Regulation Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on certification bodies belonging to the: Certification scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services Document: WDA&T Occupational Health and Safety Services Under the management of: Stichting Beheer Certification Arbodiensten (SBCA) PO Box 12 3740 AA Baarn TABLE OF CONTENTS 1. PREFACE 2. DEFINITIONS 3. FIELD SPECIFIC CHARACTERISTICS 3.1. Description document 3.2. Active parties 3.3. Risk analysis 4. REQUIREMENTS FOR THE CLUE 4.1. Assessment criteria 4.2. Designation Criteria 5. SUPERVISION 6. MEASURES 1 INTRODUCTION The services provided by occupational health and safety services are an activity of great social importance, namely the prevention of accidents at work and absenteeism, as well as limiting absenteeism and promoting adequate reintegration. In order to safeguard the social interest – safety and health in connection with work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme with regard to the services provided by occupational health and safety services. The certificate is issued by CKIs under this scheme. In order to be allowed to issue certificates, a CKI must be designated for this purpose by the Minister. This is done by checking against this Document for Designation and Supervision of the Certification and Inspection Bodies for the provision of services by occupational health and safety services. This document indicates which rules and procedures the relevant CKIs must adhere to. Machine Translated by Google 2. DEFINITIONS In this document, the following terms or abbreviations have the following meanings: Term or abbreviation Meaning Applicant of a The (legal) person who applies a certificate for from the CKI to issue a certificate. Note Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Working conditions service An organization that offers services in the field of working conditions, at least in accordance with Article 14, first paragraph of the Working Conditions Act (hereinafter: Working Conditions Act). Three (organizational) forms of occupational health and safety services can be distinguished: internal health and safety service: the occupational health and safety service that was established by, is part of and offers services to one specific employer (the company, see there); also the service that, in the case of a joint venture or holding company, acts within the company or institution where there is a majority interest; partnership: the internal health and safety service as in a), where Machine Translated by Google at least one of the mandatory core experts is employed by the employer, with a written collaboration agreement with the other experts or their employer(s); external health and safety service: the health and safety service that offers services as an independent body, with legal personality and registered with the Chamber of Commerce. Audit Systematic, independent and documented process for obtaining audit evidence and its objective assessment to determine in what degree of agreed audit criteria is complied with (this in accordance with ISO 9000:2005). Management Foundation Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme Assessment (initial, or Rating re-)by the national accreditation body of CKIs on the basis of the Document for designation and supervision established by the Minister of SZW, on the basis of which the national Machine Translated by Google accreditation body reports in writing whether the body is competent to issue legally required certificates to give. When establishing the document by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is aligned as much as possible with international systems and standards. Central Board of the college, part Experts (CCvD) from and facilitated by the Foundation Management Occupational Health and Safety Services Certification Scheme (SBCA), which offers interested parties in the health and safety services sector the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field- specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Certificate A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Commodities Act . In addition, a certificate must be considered as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder (Legal) person who in Machine Translated by Google is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification process All activities via that a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification regulations Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification system Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and Calibration or Inspection Body Conformity Assessment (CKI) bodies such as certification bodies, user laboratories, inspection inspection services, bodies and test institutes. Certification scheme for The certification scheme the services provided by the health and safety services, such as the CKIs, when assessing whether (potential) occupational health and safety services are eligible for an occupational health and safety services certificate. Check Periodic assessment by the national Machine Translated by Google accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Disciplines The four disciplines as indicated in Article 2.7, paragraph 1 of the Working Conditions Decree: occupational and industrial medicine occupational hygiene safety science occupational health and safety organizational science House rules The household regulations of the CKI. Core experts Expert officers associated with an occupational health and safety service who are prescribed in Section 3, paragraph 2, Article 2.7, paragraph 1 of the Working Conditions Decree (safety expert, labor and occupational physician, occupational hygienist and occupational and organizational expert) and who are certified/ registered in accordance with Article 14, paragraphs 1 and 20 of the Working Conditions Act. Customer The organization or legal entity that receives a product or service from the health and safety service (this in accordance with ISO 9000:2005). Quality Management System Management System for teem directing and controlling Machine Translated by Google of an organization with regard to quality (this in accordance with ISO 9000:2005). minister The Minister of Social Affairs Affairs and Employment (SZW). Procedure Specified way of performing an activity or a process (in accordance with ISO 9000:2005) Risk analysis Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended field-specific scheme. SBCA Management Foundation Certification scheme Occupational health and safety services (SBCA) Supervision Gathering the information about whether an act or thing meets the requirements set for it, then forming it of a judgment about it and the possibly as a result of this intervene. Declaration The EC type-examination certificate or EC declaration of conformity as referred to in or pursuant to the Machinery Directive or any other EU product directive. Machine Translated by Google Employee The person who works for the customer of the occupational health and safety service on the basis of an employment contract or a public law appointment. WDAT Occupational Health and Safety Services Field- specific document of designation and supervision of a certification body and belonging to the Certification Scheme for the services provided by Occupational Health and Safety Services. 3. FIELD-SPECIFIC CHARACTERISTICS 3.1. Description document This field-specific document for designation and supervision for the provision of the SBCA's health and safety service was proposed by the CCvD on (date) and adopted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment – including any adjustments – by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This adopted document thus supersedes previous versions. Comments and comments about this document can be submitted to the CCvD, per address: SBCA, PO Box 12, 3740 AA Baarn. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this designation and supervision document, the following have been involved in the preparation: •. SBCA (Stichting Beheer Certification Arbodiensten) •. CCvD (Central Board of Experts of the SBCA) 3.3. Risk analysis The CKIs must assess (potential) occupational health and safety services with the question: does this (potential) occupational health and safety service meet the requirements laid down in the certification scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services. In turn, the CKIs should also be assessed on their certification expertise. This assessment takes place on the basis of this Field-specific designation and supervision document. This scheme is again largely based on the international standard for CKIs: ISO/IEC 17021: 2011. This international standard has a number of general starting points/principles on the one hand and a number of general requirements for the work of the CKIs on the other. Machine Translated by Google 4. REQUIREMENTS FOR DESIGNATION 4.1. Assessment criteria The assessment and designation of CKIs for system certification takes place on the basis of the following systems of standards: 1. NEN-EN-ISO 9001:2008 2. ISO/IEC 17021:2011 3. the applicable international Guidance documents IAF MD 1: 2007 and IAF MD 5:2009 4. and the requirements imposed on the CKI on the basis of designation criteria (see 4.2). 4.1.1. Deployment of Auditors The CKI must be able to deploy the following officers for the certification of occupational health and safety services, in accordance with section 7.2 of ISO/IEC 17021:2011: 1. a lead auditor for certification of occupational health and safety services (= leader of the audit team); 2. a second auditor, an expert from another discipline; 3. a third auditor, expert from another, third discipline; 4. a coordinator occupational health and safety certification. The lead auditor and coordinator for the certification of occupational health and safety services must have a permanent employment contract with to have the CKI. The CKI will make such provision that, in addition to the aforementioned presence of three disciplines, an expert from the fourth discipline, which is mandatory for occupational health and safety services, can also be consulted in the short term. The lead auditor of the CKI must meet the following profile: Education: •. lead assessor for quality systems in accordance with ISO/IEC 17021:2011; •. successfully completed one of the four training courses for core experts (higher safety science, occupational hygiene, occupational and industrial medicine and occupational and organizational studies); or •. a demonstrably equivalent level of education (in connection with international recognition schemes). Experience: •. three years of practical experience in the last ten years as an expert in the in the field of occupational health and safety care or absenteeism guidance. More than half of the experience must relate to relevant health and safety aspects (at least those aspects that are mentioned in the health and safety legislation); or •. three years of practical experience as an expert in the field of occupational health and safety or absenteeism counseling and at least three years of experience in the certification of occupational health and safety services over the past ten years. Machine Translated by Google Ability: The expertise is maintained by: •. attending at least one continuing education activity for the relevant core experts per year or publishing at least one article in the field of the relevant core expert; •. spending at least ten days a year auditing management systems; •. participation in consultations between the various auditors of the designated CKIs for the harmonized implementation of the certification requirements included in Annex IIb; and •. participation in the meetings of the Central Board of Experts of the SBCA, in which proposals for harmonized implementation of the certification requirements included in Annex IIb are established. Other auditors must meet the following profile: Education: •. lead assessor for quality systems in accordance with ISO/IEC 17021:2011; •. successfully completed one of the four training courses for core experts (higher safety science, occupational hygiene, occupational and industrial medicine and occupational and organizational science), other than that of the lead auditor; or •. a demonstrably equivalent level of education. Experience: •. practical experience as an expert in the field of occupational health and safety care or absenteeism counseling for at least twelve months in the past five years. Ability: attending at least one continuing education activity for the relevant core experts per year or publishing at least one article in the field of the relevant core expert; The occupational health and safety certification coordinator must meet the following profile: Education: •. lead assessor for quality systems in accordance with ISO/IEC 17021:2011; •. successfully completed one of the four training courses for core experts (higher safety science, occupational hygiene, occupational and industrial medicine and occupational and organizational studies); or •. a demonstrably equivalent level of education. Ability: Machine Translated by Google The expertise is maintained by: •. attending at least one continuing education activity for the relevant core experts per year or publishing at least one article in the field of the relevant core expert; •. spending at least ten days a year auditing management systems; •. participation in consultations between the various auditors of the designated CKIs for the harmonized implementation of the certification requirements included in Annex IIb; and •. participation in the meetings of the Central Board of Experts of the SBCA, in which proposals for harmonized implementation of the certification requirements included in Annex IIb are established. 4.2. Designation Criteria In the context of its designation on the basis of Articles 1.5a to 1.5d Working Conditions Decree, the CKI is assessed against the following criteria. 4.2.1 The designated CKI and the employees in charge of the inspections or assessments perform them with the highest degree of professional integrity. 4.2.2 There is an integrity policy, which has been worked out in clear regulations where necessary. The staff is demonstrably committed to this conformed. 4.2.3 The designated CKI acts with integrity and does not act in the market outside its powers. 4.2.4 The personnel of the designated CKI is demonstrably bound by professional secrecy with regard to everything that they do in the performance of their duties in the Machine Translated by Google under the Decision, except to the competent public authorities. 4.2.5 Security of confidential information must be arranged in such a way that only officials of the certification CKI unimpeded for this have access. 4.2.6 The designated CKI must to have a adequate liability insurance. 4.2.7 The designated CKI must have a procedure in which it is arranged that in the event of a suspicion of an imminent threat to security, this is immediately notified by the relevant party; employee is reported to his/ her supervisor, and it is stated that the institution will inform the interested parties as soon as possible, including, if applicable, the relevant government agency. 4.2.8 Upon termination of the activities by the designated CKI, he must immediately to inform the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. The minister of SZW determines what the Machine Translated by Google (formerly) appointed CKI has to do with the files, the (formerly) appointed CKI must cooperate with this. This does not indemnify the (previously) appointed CKI against any liability for errors in inspections or assessments carried out by it. 4.2.9 For decisions of the CKI is regarding the granting of certificates on the basis of the designation is subject to a complaints procedure and a review procedure. The applicable procedures for this have been established by SZW and included in the WSCS Occupational Health and Safety Services. 4.2.10 The designated CKI must demonstrably show represent them in the national consultations of the institutions, organized by the CCvD. The CKI must be able to demonstrate that they implement the agreements made in consultation with the CCvD. 4.2.11 The CKI reports in appropriate cases, the refusal, suspension or revocation of certificates to any other CKIs. 4.2.12 Language of the reports and files. The CKI uses the Dutch Machine Translated by Google language. A different language can be used if this is more effective and other interests are not harmed. (all documents and registrations in traffic with the government must be in the to be Dutch unless otherwise agreed with the government). 4.2.13 Ban on (sub-)outsourcing of the issue of certificates and the preceding assessment and decision. 4.2.14 To the extent that a sanction and measures policy has been laid down, the CKI must adhere to this sanctions and measures policy when imposing sanctions/measures. In the event of manifest unreasonableness, the inspection body has, on the basis of the General Administrative Law Act, the authority to deviate from this. Deviation only takes place on the basis of arguments to be put forward by the certificate holder. The substantiation for the deviation is included in the decision on the sanction imposed. Deviations are registered by the Machine Translated by Google inspection body. 5. SUPERVISION In connection with the obligations in the context of supervision, the following articles of application: Articles 1.5b and 1.5c Working Conditions Decree and Article 1.1a Working Conditions Regulation. For the purpose of collecting information, the CKI must: •. Submit to the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment in writing before 1 March of each year account for the legitimacy and effectiveness of the functioning in each field of activity for which the institution has been designated by the Minister of SZW (the written justification is sent to the Inspectorate SZW and a copy to the SBCA for the attention of the CCvD). This written report covers at least the following topics: 1. the certificates issued, suspended, revoked or refused by the institution; changes in the field of work of the 2. institution-related accreditations, regulations and procedures; changes in the composition of the 3. board; amendments to the articles of association 4. or the internal regulations; outsourced to third parties 5. activities; structural 6. bottlenecks in the work field of the institution that have arisen in the implementation practice; the consultation and 7. cooperation in the field with other certification bodies; 8. complaints received by the institution and Machine Translated by Google the manner in which it is handled; 9. objections and cases filed against the decisions of the institution and the manner in which they are handled; 10. a financial report on the activities for which the institution is designated. •. To cooperate in inspections, on behalf of the Minister of SZW (in practice this means that the inspections can be carried out by the Inspectorate SZW and the national accreditation body). •. To provide timely and correct information that the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment needs to be able to assess whether it continues to meet the designation standards (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW and the national accreditation body). •. Immediately provide information to the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment and to the SBCA in the context of their registration task, about individual certificates/certificate holders on whom a sanction has been imposed (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW). •. Provide information to the Inspectorate SZW about the way in which they has issued depositary receipts and of the way in which it periodically assesses the actions of depositary receipt holders. •. If requested, demonstrate to the Minister of SZW that she adequately checks whether certificate holders continue to comply with the certification requirements (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW or the national accreditation body). In any case, the frequency, nature and extent (duration) of the checks are shown. •. Notify the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment as soon as she intends to do one or more of the following: to end its duties. •. To inform the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment as soon as she submits an application for an additional assessment based on a statutory specific schedule. •. To inform the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment without delay of the loss of a valid agreement with the SBCA •. Notify the SBCA promptly about any, refused, suspended and revoked certificates. 6. MEASURES Machine Translated by Google If the designated institution no longer meets the requirements in this scheme, this may have consequences for the designation. See Policy rule for measures policy certification of the Working Conditions Act and the Commodities Act. Appendix IIb. belonging to Article 2.8 Working conditions regulation Field-specific certification scheme for the Services provided by Occupational Health and Safety Services Document: WSCS Occupational Health and Safety Services Under the management of: Stichting Beheer Certification Arbodiensten (SBCA) PO Box 12 3740 AA Baarn TABLE OF CONTENTS PART 1: GENERAL PROVISIONS 1. PREFACE 2. DEFINITIONS 3. FIELD SPECIFIC CHARACTERISTICS 3.1. Description scheme 3.2. Risk analysis and infringement criteria 4. CERTIFICATION RULES 4.1. Objective 4.2. Certification procedure 4.3. Certification decision 4.4. Validity period of the certificate 4.5. Information on the certificate 4.6. Complaints about the CKI 4.7. Objection procedure 4.8. System Certification Registry 4.9. Norm Interpretation 5. SUPERVISION 5.1. Access 5.2. Frequency of supervision Machine Translated by Google 5.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out 5.4. Report of findings Measures 5.5. (Article 1.5.e Working Conditions Decree) 5.6. Criteria PART II: STANDARDS 6 FIELD SPECIFIC TO DEMAND 7 ASSESSMENT TECHNIQUE Attachment 1: Audit days per occupational health service PART I: GENERAL PROVISIONS Part 1 of this certification scheme contains general principles and provisions for certification by CKIs and conditions under which certificates must be issued. Described is successively: •. the field of activity to which this certification scheme relates (1), •. definitions (2), •. a description of the specific characteristics of the field, including a risk analysis (3), •. the certification regulations (4), and •. compliance/enforcement control (5). 1 INTRODUCTION This field-specific certification scheme for systems has been approved by the Central Board of Occupational health and safety services experts drawn up. This Central Board is part of the Stichting Beheer Certificatieregeling Arbodiensten. It concerns the system certification in the field of the services provided by occupational health and safety services. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The system to be certified concerns the services provided by occupational health and safety services, as required under Article 20 and Article 14, paragraph 1 of the Working Conditions Act. The system of an occupational health and safety service to be certified relates to the four statutory tasks that every health and safety service must at least perform: •. testing a risk inventory and evaluation and providing a advice on this; •. supervising sick employees; •. conducting the occupational health examination; •. the appointment check. Machine Translated by Google 2. DEFINITIONS Term or abbreviation Meaning The a Certificate Applicant to the certification (legal) person andwho inspection applies for body for the issuance ofService an Occupational Certificate.Health and Safety Note Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Occupational health science A g research occupational health examination, as referred to and prescribed in Article 18 of the Working Conditions Act . Working conditions service An agency that offers services in the field of working conditions, at least in accordance with Article 14, first paragraph of the Working Conditions Act (hereinafter: Working Conditions Act). There are three (organizational) forms of occupational health and safety services: distinguish: a) internal health and safety service: the health and safety service that is founded by, is part of and offers services to one specific employer (the company, see there); also the service acting in the case of a joint venture or holding company Machine Translated by Google within the company or institution where there is a majority interest; b) partnership: the internal health and safety service as in a), where at least one of the mandatory core experts is employed by the employer, with a written collaboration agreement with the other experts or their employer(s); c) external health and safety service: the occupational health and safety service that offers services as an independent body, with legal personality and registered with the Chamber of Commerce. Audit or external audit Systematic, independent, documented process for obtaining records, statements of fact or other relevant information and its independent assessment by a CKI to determine to what extent to the specific requirements of the Certification scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services are met. Audit day One day that one auditor spends auditing a occupational health service (incl. Machine Translated by Google report). Rating Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the Minister of SZW, WDA&T, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates. When determining the WDA&T by the Minister of SZW, so much is may be in line with international systems and standards. Stakeholders have Person or group who an interest in the performance or success of the health and safety service; such as customers (see there), end users, people in the organization, owners and investors, suppliers and partners, society in terms of the community and citizens affected by the organization or its products. (ISO 9000:2005) Central Board of the Board, Experts section (CCvD) of and/facilitated occupational health and safety services by the Stichting Beheer Machine Translated by Google Certification scheme Occupational health and safety services (SBCA), which manages about the certification scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services. The CCvD offers interested parties in the occupational health and safety services sector the opportunity to participate in the drafting and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Occupational health and safety service certificate The certificate in the meaning of article 20 and Article 14, paragraph 1 of the Working Conditions Act . The Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate that a CKI provides to the health and safety service to indicate that there is justifiable confidence that the quality of the service corresponds to the Certification scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services. Certificate Holder (Right) Person who is in possession of a valid statutory Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate. Certification agreement The agreement whereby the health and st safety service has the right gets to carry a Certificate Occupational health and safety service and those for Machine Translated by Google contain the rights and obligations in this regard. Certification process All activities through which a CKI assesses and decides whether a system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification and The organization that is the Minister of SZW (CKI) by the Inspection Institution designated and those is authorized to issue, refuse, suspend/suspend or revoke an Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate. Contract The agreement that an occupational health and safety service concludes with a customer or principal to provide certain legally prescribed services. Check Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Third parties Other persons or companies who do not work in or for the health and safety service and who are not customers of the health and safety service. Experts Professional practitioners, (whether or not) associated with an occupational health and safety service, who contribute to the provision of services in the field of health and safety. Machine Translated by Google working conditions, for example: core experts (see there), ergonomists, company social workers, occupational health nurses, doctor's assistants, labor experts and psychologists. Document assessment Assessment of documents or quality manual by auditors of CKIs. It document can be paper, magnetic, electronic or optical computer disk, photograph or master sample or a combination thereof. Requirement The condition or condition set by the certification and inspection body to which the health and safety service must comply. Household The internal Rules regulations of the Central Board of Experts in Occupational Health and Safety Services. Internal audit An independent, objective assurance and consulting activity with the intent of adding value to and improving the operations of a health and safety service. Core experts Expert officers associated with an occupational health and safety service prescribed in Machine Translated by Google Section 3, paragraph 2, Article 2.7, paragraph 1 of the Working Conditions Decree (higher safety expert, occupational and occupational health physician, occupational hygienist and occupational and organizational expert) and who are certified/ registered in accordance with Article 14, paragraphs 1 and 20 of the Working Conditions Act . Core tasks The tasks that an occupational health and safety service according to article 14a, paragraph 2 and art. 14, paragraph 1 of the Working Conditions Act, in summary: testing the risk inventory and evaluation and advice on this; assistance in guiding employees who are illness are unable to perform their work; conducting the occupational health examination; carrying out the pre-employment examination, if the employer has it carried out. judge The employee who undergoes an appointment test. Customer The organization or legal entity receiving a product or service, including the Machine Translated by Google Employee representation (works council / employee representation / employee participation council) of the health and safety service (this in accordance with ISO 9000:2005). Quality of All quality service requirements set for the service of an occupational health service. Quality management sys The organizational teem structure, responsibilities, authorities, procedures, processes and facilities for implementing quality assurance. Management review The assessment of the quality management system, implemented by top management, to ensure the suitability, adequacy and effectiveness in achieving the to determine established (quality) objectives. Employee representation The works council representation (OR) or(PVT), personnel as referred representation to in the Works Councils Act (WOR) and the interested employees such as referred to in the working conditions law t. Employee representation = employee representation. For some Machine Translated by Google sectors, the employee representation representation is the Participation Council (MR) minister The Minister of Social Affairs Business and Employment. New occupational health and safety service An occupational health and safety service that entry into force of this Certification Scheme. Non conformity note Failure to comply with one or more requirements from this Certification Scheme or reasonable doubt has arisen as to whether the customer's management system is capable of meeting the requirements of this Certification scheme te to fulfil. Company The work organization that has set up an internal health and safety service. Periodic audits Periodic audits that are aimed at checking whether the quality of the service during the validity of the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate still meets the requirements of the Certification Scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services. OVAL Organization for Vitality, Activation and Career. The OVAL is a sector organization that (also) stands up for the interests of (certified) occupational health and safety services. The OVAL originates from the Machine Translated by Google sector organization for occupational health and safety services and reintegration companies (Boaborea). Procedure Specified way to perform an activity. Professional Services provided services by employees of the occupational health and safety service with a completed training aimed at providing prevention, absenteeism counseling and reintegration (for example (core) experts, ergonomist, company social worker, occupational health nurse, doctor's assistant, occupational expert). The employees work in accordance with the requirements of the Certification Scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services, including the Certification scheme referred to professional statutes of Boaborea (today called OVAL), the Dutch Association for Safety Science (NVVK), the Dutch Association for Occupational Hygiene (NVVA), the professional association for occupational health and safety Organizational experts (BA&O) and the Dutch Association for Labor and Employment Occupational Medicine Machine Translated by Google (NVAB) and meet the requirements of (re)registration or working under the supervision of a registered professional. Council for Accreditation National body that assesses CKIs and CKI schemes. Risk analysis Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. Risk inventory The inventory and evaluation (RI&E): evaluation of the risks that the work poses for employees with entails, as referred to in Article 5 of the Working Conditions Act. (The RI&E contains a description of the hazards, the risk mitigation measures and the risks for special categories of employees. The RI&E also pays attention to workers' access to skilled workers and individuals. The RI&E is accompanied by a plan of approach, which indicates which measures will be taken in connection with the intended risks and the relationship between them, one and the other in accordance with article Machine Translated by Google 3 of the Working Conditions Act . The plan of approach indicates periods within which the measures will be taken.). SBCA Stichting Beheer Certification Arbodiensten (SBCA) Articles of association The statutes of the Stichting Beheer Certificatieregeling Arbodiensten (SBCA). Founding See: SBCA. Supervision Collecting the information about whether an act or thing complies with the requirements, the subsequent formation of a judgment about it and possibly to cause to intervene. Employee The person who works at the customer. This concerns employees within the meaning of Article 1, first paragraph, under b. and second paragraph, under b. of the Working Conditions Act. Field specific Term used by SZW certification scheme for a certification scheme that has been accepted by the Minister of SZW for use within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. 3. FIELD-SPECIFIC CHARACTERISTICS Machine Translated by Google In order to safeguard the public interest – safety and health in and around work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for assuring the quality/safety of services provided by occupational health and safety services. 3.1. Description scheme The field-specific certification scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services from .... (date) was drawn up on .... (date) by the CCvD and by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment – including any adjustments – determined by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can also make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. Comments or comments about the certification scheme can be submitted to the SBCA, attn. the CCvD, PO Box 12, 3740 AA Baarn. The system to be certified concerns the services provided by occupational health and safety services, as required under Article 20 and Article 14, paragraph 1 of the Working Conditions Act. The system of an occupational health and safety service to be certified relates to the four statutory tasks that every health and safety service must at least perform: •. testing the risk inventory and evaluation and advising on this; •. assistance in supervising employees who are unable to perform their work due to illness; •. conducting the occupational health examination; •. carrying out the pre-employment examination, if the employer allows it perform. 3.2. Risk analysis and detriment criteria With the arrival of the Working Conditions Act/TZ, as it came into effect on 1 January 1994, occupational health and safety services exist in the Netherlands. These occupational health and safety services were given the task of carrying out both preventive and absenteeism counseling tasks. The occupational health and safety service thus became an integrated service provider. The preventive tasks arose from the European Framework Directive 89/391/EEC and the Working Conditions Act. The absenteeism counseling tasks arose from the obligation to continue to pay wages as formulated in the Dutch Civil Code. Later on, the obligations based on the Gatekeeper Improvement Act were added. Occupational health and safety services can be provided by private law organizations that have to compete with each other. The government was not in control occupational health and safety services, but switched to a certification system for occupational health and safety services. Every employer is obliged to be assisted by certified occupational health services or certified core experts, after approval by a works council or employee representation. This obligation can be found in Articles 14 and 14a of the Working Conditions Act. Every employee must have access to these experts or to prevention officers (art.5, paragraph 2 of the Working Conditions Act). Machine Translated by Google The mandatory assistance of an employer by a certified occupational health service or by certified core experts relates to four tasks: •. testing the risk inventory and evaluation and advising on this; •. assistance in supervising employees who are unable to perform their work due to illness; •. conducting the occupational health examination; •. carrying out the pre-employment examination, if the employer allows it perform. Each of these tasks is of great importance to both the employer and the employees within the organization. The assessment of the RI&E by a health and safety service and the provision of advice on this should support the employer in pursuing a good health and safety policy. Without a proper analysis and evaluation of the risks within a company and without concrete and practical proposals to improve the situation through the action plan, companies run the risk of tackling the wrong topics in the wrong way. Assessing the RI&E (including the action plan) by the health and safety service is therefore essential to properly support companies in pursuing an adequate health and safety policy. Various goals are pursued with the absenteeism guidance of sick employees by the company doctor/ occupational health and safety service. Both the health of the sick employee and the company's interests must be taken into account by the health and safety service. It is precisely this aspect that makes a appeal to the independence of the occupational health and safety service. Absenteeism counseling requires a careful approach from the health and safety service. This approach should contribute to a speedy recovery of the sick employee's health, to the timely reintegration of the sick employee into the company and, in general, to the prevention of the influx of employees into a benefit situation such as the WIA. Effectively guiding sick employees leads to lower costs for the employer (less continued payment of wages). Based on the idea of an integrated health and safety service, effective sick leave counseling should also lead to measures in the preventive area (arbo policy). Periodic assessment of the health of employees, as done through occupational health examinations, is primarily aimed at preventing health risks and limiting them if they occur. Occupational health research is therefore an instrument to help shape working conditions policy. The appointment inspection can have major consequences for the employee concerned as well as for the company, because an unfavorable result makes the employee unsuitable for a certain position. The legislation requires a high degree of care in the implementation by the health and safety service with regard to the pre- appointment inspection. The performance of these four legally required tasks by an occupational health and safety service must therefore be done carefully and efficiently. If this is not done properly, the employee runs the risk of health damage, the employer the risk of high costs (including sick leave, Machine Translated by Google disability and claims) and society the risk of a large outflow of employees from work and a large inflow into benefit situations. Chapter 6 elaborates on the requirements with regard to these four statutory tasks. An important, more specific, risk in the performance of the four statutory tasks by an occupational health and safety service is the risk of violation of the privacy regulations. Violation of these regulations by a health and safety service as a legal person and/or by employees of a health and safety service is a serious act, with major consequences for the employee concerned. 4. CERTIFICATION RULES 4.1. Objective This part of the scheme describes the procedures relevant to the correct application of the specific scheme. It concerns the following topics: •. Application for certificate (§ 4.2); •. Initial audits (§ 4.2); •. Certification decision (§ 4.3); •. Certificate validity period (§ 4.4); •. Information on the certificate (§ 4.5); •. Complaints (§ 4.6); •. Request for revision (§ 4.7); •. Register for system certification (§ 4.8); •. Norm interpretation (§ 4.9) 4.2. Certification procedure The occupational health and safety service must work with a CKI ) There are currently two CKIs active: Lloyd's RQA and DNV Certification.), in accordance with the certification procedure, submitted an application for the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate. The certification procedure follows the procedure that applies to a regular ISO 9001:2008 certification process. Application In accordance with this certification procedure, the (potential) client submits a request to a CKI for the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate or for the maintenance of the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate (recertification). The CKI provides information about the state of affairs in the processing of the application for the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate before a contract is signed. Machine Translated by Google The requirements from this Certification Scheme are declared applicable in the contract that the CKI concludes with the health and safety service. With the application, the external health and safety service provides the CKI with the information as formulated in Article 2.12 of the Health and Safety Regulations. The internal working conditions service provides the CKI with the information as formulated in Article 2.13 of the Working Conditions Regulations with the application. Initial audits The audit is performed in accordance with the work plan. The audits are conducted by a team of a lead auditor and a second auditor. Both auditors should be experts. The initial audits are performed by a team consisting of the lead auditor and at least one expert auditor from another discipline. One of the lead auditors is also team leader and as such responsible for the audit process, including the content of the audit report. In the certification process, when the auditor's expertise is deployed, account must be taken of the division of activities of the health and safety service over the various core tasks. The number of audit days differs per health and safety service, depending on the number of employees (full-time equivalent) and the number of locations. Appendix 1 of this Certification Scheme contains an overview of the maximum number of audit days that a CKI can spend on the certification of occupational health and safety services. The same certification procedure applies to new external health and safety services or companies, but with the following adjustments: a. upon request, the CKI will provide proof that the newly established external or internal occupational health and safety service has submitted an application for a Health and Safety Service Certificate; b. during the first audit (within 3 months after the application) at least assessed two of the four core tasks performed in practice. The four core tasks concern: •. testing the risk inventory and evaluation and about it to advise; •. assistance in supervising employees who are unable to work due to illness be able to perform their work; •. conducting the occupational health examination; •. carrying out the pre-employment examination, if the employer late. In the event of a positive decision by the CKI to enter into a certification agreement, a Occupational health and safety service certificate issued with a maximum term of 1 year; Machine Translated by Google c. at the first periodic check, to be carried out within 1 year after signing the certification agreement, the health and safety service must meet all requirements from this Certification Scheme; in the event of a positive decision, the certificate is converted into the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate with a term of three years. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is made in accordance with the requirements of the Certification Scheme by an officer of the CKI who is qualified and appointed in accordance with the quality management system of the CKI and who has not been involved in the assessment of the system according to the procedure under 4.2. In the event of a positive decision, an Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate is issued with a term of three years. This Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate shows that there may be justified confidence that the occupational health and safety service complies with the regulations laid down by or pursuant to the Working Conditions Act. These regulations can be found in Article 2.11 of the Working Conditions Regulation. the health and safety service has the right to use the Occupational Health and Safety Certificate logo. The CKI has the duty to notify the SBCA of the issue, refusal, suspension, suspension or withdrawal of a Certificate of Occupational Safety and Health. This communication is passed on by the SBCA to the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate In the event of a positive decision, an Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate is issued with a validity period of three years. 4.5. Information on the certificate The Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate contains at least the following information: •. Details of the certified company: i. Full company name; II. Business location; III. Scope of the certificate. •. Data from the CKI: i. Name; II. Business location; III. Logo; IV. Feature of the clue. •. Other data certificate: O. Validity period; O. Text: The certificate must state that the institution declares that the system in question meets the requirements of the field-specific certification scheme; O. Signature authorized person CKI; O. Logo and logo of the SBCA. Machine Translated by Google 4.6. Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. 4.6.1. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. 4.6.2. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. Machine Translated by Google The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method Machine Translated by Google General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: O. name and address of submitter O. date O. a description of the contested decision O. the grounds of the objection. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. Machine Translated by Google •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the objection is manifestly inadmissible or is manifestly unfounded, the objection has meanwhile been met, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision added to the objection. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. System Certification Register The CKI registers the current data in the Occupational Health and Safety Service Register on a monthly basis. In accordance with the agreement between the CKI and the SBCA, the data is sent electronically to the SBCA for the SBCA Certificate Occupational Health and Safety Register. This register is made accessible via the internet, within the legal frameworks. The issue, refusal, suspension/suspension or revocation of certificates must be immediately communicated by the CKI to the SBCA and the other CKIs. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD ensures an unambiguous standard interpretation of the requirements in this certification scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in the certification scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services. Should it happen that applicants for the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate, certificate holders and CKIs use divergent definitions and differences of opinion about this (continue to) exist, differing interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. Machine Translated by Google 5. SUPERVISION The CKI is obliged to continuously test the certificate holder against the requirements of the Certification Scheme for services by occupational health and safety services. The CKI assesses the certificate holder in accordance with the requirements of section 9.3 of ISO 17021:2011. 5.1. Access For supervision it may be necessary for the CKI, the RvA, the Inspectorate SZW to gain access to data of the certificate holders. This concerns the following data of the certificate holder: •. the audit report of the CKI; •. the certificate; •. all documents relevant to the proper exercise of supervision. The certificate holder provides access to the requested data by means of: •. sending written documents; •. making electronic data or files available. The CKI includes this obligation for the certificate holder in the certification agreement. 5.2. Frequency of supervision This section indicates how often the CKI carries out checks or (interim) audits. The following principle applies: in all cases, it is possible to decide on unannounced random checks. The purpose of this check is to verify whether matters have actually been properly arranged with the certificate holder. During the term of the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate, an interim audit of the CKI takes place every year. The CKI can always decide to carry out an unannounced random check of the certificate holder. 5.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out A lead auditor and an auditor are involved in the interim audits. The expertise to be deployed during the term of the certificate for the audits is determined after consultation between the CKI and the health and safety service. The auditors investigate whether the health and safety service meets the requirements set out in the Certification Scheme and report to the CKI's health and safety certification coordinator. This coordinator assesses the content and process of the report. If the CKI knows or can know that the safety and health of employees and third parties is or can be endangered by activities that are regulated by a certificate it has issued, the CKI must report this to the Inspectorate SZW (art. 1.5b). , paragraph 3 Working Conditions Decree). Machine Translated by Google 5.4. Report of findings The CKI prepares a report of its findings during the interim audit. This report is made available to the certificate holder. He may, if necessary, submit a request for review; see section 4.7. If it appears from the report of the CKI that non-conformities have been found, the CKI will explicitly state how and within what period the non-conformities found will be remedied. The maximum term for eliminating a non-conformity is three months for major non-conformities and six months for minor non- conformities. The term for removing deviations from the requirement to have an employment contract or public law appointment for an indefinite period of time for three of the four core experts with a scope of at least 40 hours per year, as formulated in chapter 6 'WORK-SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS', after the caption 'Additional requirements', in part 3 'Personnel', second bullet, ends with effect from 1 January 2017. Findings that violate the employee's privacy should be assessed as a major non-conformity. The lack of a mandatory element in the privacy regulations leads to a minor non-conformity. 5.5. Measures (Article 1.5e Working Conditions Decree) If it appears that a certificate holder does not or no longer meets the requirements or standards in the professional field-specific certification scheme, this will result in measures by the CKI. The measures are intended to ensure that the requirements or standards mentioned are met in the shortest possible time. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. If there is a measure, this will be made known to the certificate holder. The Inspectorate SZW must also be informed of this. Relevant information about the measure must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. This notification obligation must be elaborated in detail, in connection with the confidentiality of personal data and the contractual relationship between CKI and the occupational health and safety service. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. The period between withdrawal and the issue of the new certificate is at least 12 months. When imposing a measure, the CKI must indicate (and register) the period after which certification is allowed again. Organizational changes of occupational health and safety services such as takeovers, mergers, expansions or downsizing can affect the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate. If such organizational changes occur, the certificate holder will report this to the relevant CKI, in accordance with Articles 2.6, 2.12, first paragraph, and 2.13, first paragraph of the Working Conditions Regulations. Machine Translated by Google 5.6. Criteria The CKI always processes an application for the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate or for a recertification. The Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate can be issued, refused, suspended/suspended and withdrawn by the CKI. Below you will find the criteria for: •. hand off, •. to refuse, •. suspend/suspend, •. moving in of the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate by the CKI. Issue certificate: The Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate will be issued by the CKI if it appears from the initial audit by the CKI that the applicant for the certificate meets the requirements as set out in the Certification Scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services. Refuse certificate: If the applicant for an Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate or the certificate holder does not meet the requirements of the Certification Scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services, the CKI will refuse the certificate. Suspend/Suspend: A CKI will suspend/suspend the certificate if: •. the certificate holder's management system continuously and in seriously does not meet the requirements of the Certification Scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services; •. the effectiveness of the management system is insufficient. This is insufficient if improvement actions following internal and external audits are not carried out or no action is taken on the risks identified in the management reviews and proposals for improvement; •. the certificate holder does not allow interim audits; •. the certificate holder voluntarily has a request for suspension/suspension done; •. the certificate holder has seriously violated one or more of its obligations under the certification agreement, including its financial obligations; •. the certificate holder has seriously harmed the interests of the CKI; •. no adequate corrective action has been taken during the period of 3 months after the discovery of major non-conformities. Machine Translated by Google The period of suspension/suspension is a maximum of 6 months. Within the stipulated period of suspension/suspension (6 months): •. the certification agreement remains in force; •. the CKI will supervise the measures to be taken by the certificate holder measures that should lead to the lifting of the suspension/suspension; •. the certificate holder may not use the certificate. •. Violation of this provision is considered improper use. Moving in: Revocation of the certificate takes place after the CKI has established that: •. insufficient measures have been taken after the agreed (re)assessment to be able to close the non-conformity; •. adequate corrective action has not been taken during a period of suspension of the certificate; •. the certificate holder has seriously violated one or more of its obligations under the certification agreement, including its financial obligations; •. the certificate holder has seriously harmed the interests of the CKI. If no adequate corrective measures have been taken by the certificate holder within the set period of suspension/suspension, the CKI will revoke the certificate. This will invalidate the certification agreement. PART II: STANDARDS Part 2 of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to an Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate. Described is successively: •. requirements for certification (chapter 6); •. the way in which compliance with the admission requirements is assessed and reported (chapter 7). 6. FIELD-SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS The CCvD has drawn up requirements for certification. The underlying goals must always be kept in mind, namely to ensure that there are (management) systems in place that ensure that all relevant risks are known and controlled with adequate resources, so that occupational health and safety services can ultimately function adequately. This concerns, for example: •. Requirements with regard to management of the organization; •. Resource management requirements •. Requirements regarding the management of persons; Machine Translated by Google •. Requirements regarding procedures, working methods/methods. The Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate of a certified occupational health service must be based on the ISO 9001:2008 quality management system, supplemented by laws and regulations that are not explicitly covered by ISO 9001:2008. This is laid down in the present Certification Scheme. General demands The health and safety service has at least a quality management system in accordance with ISO 9001:2008. Exclusions according to ISO 9001:2008) par 1.2. are applicable. The scope to which these requirements relate concerns at least the statutory core tasks. In addition, occupational health and safety services can expand this scope, so that ISO 9001:2008 also applies to the tasks that the health and safety service has indicated itself. In addition, the additional requirements listed below must be met. Each additional requirement states which part of the ISO 9001:2008 standard of applies. Additional requirements 1. Planning (Section 5.4 of ISO 9001:2008) •. The occupational health and safety service guarantees professional independence is apparent from the statutes, among other things. •. The occupational health and safety service endorses the text of the professional statute Occupational health and safety services as drawn up by the trade association ) The BOA (later: Boaborea, and now: OVAL) has written this professional occupational health and safety services statute.) and has been accepted by the CCvD and acts accordingly. This concerns the text of the occupational health and safety services statute as included on the website of the SBCA (www.sbca.nl, button 'documents'). 2. Resource Management (Chapter 6 of ISO 9001:2008) 1. The occupational health and safety service has such a facility that an employee can be assigned another company doctor if this request is submitted in writing by an employee. 2. Regarding privacy aspects: O. The quality system of the health and safety service describes in which registration(s), in what way and on what basis and for what purpose the health and safety service records (medical) data with regard to the affiliated employees. O. These registration(s) have been registered with the Dutch Data Protection Authority (CBP). Sometimes (medical) data is recorded in a registration of which a customer of the occupational health and safety service (=the employer) is responsible. In that case, the customer is responsible for reporting it to the Dutch DPA. The health and safety service must verify whether this has happened. O. There is a privacy policy for each registration. The privacy regulations at least describe the following topics: Machine Translated by Google •. purpose of recording the data and the origin of the data; •. the recording of (medical) personal data in connection with absenteeism and reintegration based on the KNMG code 'Data traffic and cooperation in absenteeism and reintegration (2007)'; •. which employees have access to the (medical) personal data. This concerns the employees who are directly involved in the treatment. At a general level, an authorization scheme should record who has access to (medical) personal data. If there are deviations at customer level, these must be recorded in a register; •. it is stated how the authorizations are granted and managed; •. paper files with (medical) personal data are stored in lockable cabinets. There are agreements about key management; electronic (medical) personal data is secured in such a way that unauthorized persons cannot gain access to this data. The highest possible security level must be applied here. •. the way in which the employee, whose personal data has been recorded, can make use of his legal rights, such as the right of inspection, the right of correction and the right to a copy; •. the way in which the employee must be able to take cognizance of the provision of data from the registration to third parties, as well as the way in which the employee is requested prior permission insofar as required; •. no (medical) personal data unless this is necessary and the employee has given his explicit permission for this. The consent will be noted in the medical file; •. no notifications are made to the employer about the employee's visit to working conditions consultation hours or the employee's voluntary participation in periodic surveys. If, as a result of such a visit or participation, the company doctor wishes to give advice to the employer, the explicit and specific permission of the employee is required. This permission is either registered in the file and/or confirmed by means of a written authorisation; •. the privacy regulations refer to the complaints procedure of the occupational health and safety service; •. the privacy policy is an external available/public document that can be downloaded free of charge from the website or can be requested free of charge for the employer and/or the employee. 3. The health and safety service has included a document in the quality system with examples of what can and cannot be reported to the employer. 4. An internal audit is performed on compliance with the provisions of the privacy regulations. 3. Personnel (Section 6.2 of ISO 9001:2008) Machine Translated by Google •. The occupational health and safety service must employ at least the following four core experts, or have organized the four core experts in an occupational health and safety service as a partnership: O. safety expert; O. occupational and occupational health; O. occupational hygienist, and O. labor and organizational expert. •. The occupational health and safety service employs at least four core experts on the basis of an employment contract or a public law appointment for an indefinite period of time, unless there is a partnership as referred to in Article 2.6a, second paragraph, of the Working Conditions Decree. One of these core experts has an employment contract or appointment under public law with the occupational health and safety service for at least 20 hours per week. The other three core experts work at least 40 hours a year for the health and safety service. If one person fulfills the position of more than one core expert, the time requirements set per position apply. •. (Core) experts within the health and safety service are able to form an independent and independent judgment and act accordingly. •. How the professional services are implemented is included in job descriptions/job descriptions and those services provide for collaboration between the core experts in the services. •. The occupational health and safety service works with a form of peer review with the goals: to maintain expertise and to achieve process improvement of the service. A procedure must indicate how, under which conditions, under whose responsibility and with what frequency the peer review with experts takes place and what is done with the results. If the peer assessment is aimed at subject-matter knowledge, experts within that field must be present (interdisciplinary). At least one core expert from the other disciplines must also be present. When the peer review is aimed at process improvement, several experts and employees involved in the process should be present (peer peer). The following core experts adhere to the professional status of the professional association: the company doctor, the occupational hygienist and the safety expert. There is no professional status for the labor and organizational expert. This concerns the texts of the professional statutes of the professional associations for occupational physicians (NVAB), occupational hygienists (NVVA) and safety experts (NVVK), as included on the website of the SBCA (www.sbca.nl, under button 'documents'). ). Planning of the realization of the product (Section 7.1 of ISO 4. 9001:2008) •. The occupational health and safety service plans, develops and manages the processes necessary for the realization of the legally prescribed core tasks (Article 14a, paragraph 2 of the Working Conditions Act), as well as the legal requirements relevant to the customer with regard to the four core tasks. •. When formulating the order, the occupational health and safety service determines the requirements of the customer and other stakeholders as well as the four statutory requirements (core tasks). Machine Translated by Google Per core task: •. Does the health and safety service make use of available available preliminary information (internal and external); •. Does the health and safety service determine the relationship with the other core tasks; •. Advises the occupational health and safety service in accordance with the occupational hygiene strategy, in accordance with Article 3, paragraph 1, under b. of the Working Conditions Act, to the employer and the employee representation; •. Does the occupational health and safety service assess the result and effect of the advice; •. Does the occupational health and safety service evaluate the process of providing services (internally and external). Customer related processes (Section 7.2 of ISO 5. 9001:2008) •. The occupational health and safety service guarantees its independence with regard to the customer and other stakeholders. 6. Communication with the customer (Section 7.2.3 of ISO 9001:2008) •. The occupational health and safety service informs the employer and the employee representation in writing who the contact person of the occupational health and safety service is and how the information provision to the employer and the employee representation is arranged. •. The occupational health and safety service sends a copy of every advice at group or department level regarding measures taken and to be taken, aimed at the working conditions policy, to the employer and to the employee representation representatives. In the absence of this, the health and safety service points out to the employer the obligation to provide the advice to the interested employees. •. The occupational health and safety service / company doctor reports a proven occupational disease to the Netherlands Center for Occupational Diseases (NCvB), in accordance with Article 9(3) of the Working Conditions Act. When reporting occupational diseases, the occupational health and safety service / company doctor observes the registration guidelines of the NCvB on reporting occupational diseases. Suspected occupational diseases are reported to the employer and the employee representation or, in the absence thereof, to the concerned employees. •. The occupational health and safety service reports work-related factors that lead to complaints and occupational diseases to the employer and states the obligation to report to the NCvB. •. The health and safety service informs employers and employees about the possibility of an expert opinion from the UWV (formerly: second opinion) if the employee or employer disagree about the decision of the health and safety service. 7. Manufacturing and provision of services (Section 7.5 of ISO 9001:2008) 7.1 Risk inventory and evaluation (RI&E) a. The occupational health and safety service must be able to test an RI&E and be able to do it itself and can advise the customer on the priorities and the measures to be taken, as referred to in Article 5 and Article 14, paragraph 1, under a. of the Working Conditions Act and Article 2.1 of the Working Conditions Regulation (Arboregeling). b. The health and safety service fulfills this task with due observance of the state of the art and professional services. c. At least one of the four certified core experts is involved in the assessment of the RI&E. At an RI&E performed by the customer Machine Translated by Google this consists of a written assessment of the RI&E and the assessment at the workplace. The latter does not apply (on the basis of Article 14, paragraph 12 of the Working Conditions Act, Article 2.14b, paragraphs 2 and 3 of the Working Conditions Decree and Article 2.1 of the Working Conditions Regulations) to: O.companies where the employees do not work more than 40 hours a week in total, for example 3 employees work 12 hours a week each. The working time for this company is then a total of 36 hours; O. companies that employ 25 or fewer employees and who use a sector RI&E model that is included in a collective labor agreement or a public scheme drawn up by an administrative body. This model industry RI&E instrument must have been tested by a registered company doctor or a certified core expert; O. companies that employ 25 or fewer employees and that have drawn up an RI&E using an RI&E instrument that has been registered with the Labor Foundation ) Both the model RI&E instruments via the Collective Labor Agreement and the RI&E instruments that have been registered with the Labor Foundation can be found via www.rie.nl). O. Requirements for this RI&E instrument are: •. it must be drafted with the involvement of employers' and employees' associations at least at branch level; •. it has been tested by a certified core expert or a registered company doctor; •. the instrument becomes available digitally drawn up and reported jointly by employers' and employees' associations; •. the registration is valid for a maximum of three years. d. Both in the assessment of and in advising on the basis of the RI&E at least pays attention to the following aspects: •. determining the desired level of internal customer expertise; •. completeness, reliability and topicality; •. the manner in which identified shortcomings can be remedied; •. the (method of) prioritization with which the measures be taken; •. additional customer needs. e. For the purpose of advising on the RI&E use of information about the performance of work, working conditions and supporting processes at the customer; reporting and registration of accidents and occupational diseases (Article 9 Working Conditions Act); absenteeism development and data based on: •. absenteeism counseling; •. other relevant advice or research reports issued by the health and safety service or other experts; •. the (periodic) occupational health examination. 7.2 Sick leave counseling a. The occupational health and safety service must be able to support the employer in performing tasks in the field of sick leave policy and in the context of Article Machine Translated by Google 14, first paragraph, part b of the Working Conditions Act (guidance by employer and employee pursuant to the Gatekeeper Improvement Act) and Article 2.2. of the Arbo regulation. b. The health and safety service meets the requirements as laid down in the Gatekeeper Improvement Act (WVP) and the ministerial regulation on the procedure for the first and second year of illness. c. The occupational health and safety service regularly consults with the customer about: •. the development in absenteeism due to illness and any suspected occupational diseases; •. possible relationships between the absenteeism and the nature and content of the work of the sick employee, the working conditions and the employment relationships. d. The consultation is based on coherent, methodically recorded, aggregated and analyzed data from: •. the absence registration; •. individual absenteeism guidance; •. the working conditions consultation hour (if this at least still being implemented); •. occupational health research. In this analysis, the data mentioned cannot be traced back to individual employees. 7.3 Occupational health research a. The occupational health and safety service must carry out an occupational health examination be able to perform as referred to in Article 14, first paragraph, under c, Article 18 of the Working Conditions Act and Article 2.3 of the Working Conditions Regulation. b. The health and safety service sets indications and criteria (relevance, subsidiarity, proportionality) for the performance of the occupational health examination and for the relationship with the RI&E or workplace investigation. c. The occupational health and safety service advises the customer about content and frequency of the occupational health examination, based on the RI&E. In addition, the employee is not obliged to cooperate with the occupational health examination. d. The result of the occupational health examination and the follow-up steps to be taken are discussed with the individual employee and, if necessary or desired, recorded in writing. 7.4 Other advisory and support tasks The health and safety service must be able to provide adequate advice on a structured and systematic health and safety and absenteeism policy, which takes particular account of special groups of employees (in accordance with Article 5 of the Working Conditions Act). 7.5 Appointment assessments a. The occupational health and safety service must be able to carry out an appointment inspection as referred to in the Medical Examinations Act, the Medical Examinations Decree, and as referred to in Article 14(1)(c) of the Working Conditions Act and Article 2.4 of the Working Conditions Regulations. b. The occupational health and safety service provides the employer with information about the purpose and function of employment assessments with regard to 1. appointment inspections not a selection instrument; Machine Translated by Google 2. appointment checks at the end of the application procedure; 3. independent opinion of the company doctor of the working conditions service. d. The health and safety service sets indications and criteria (time, nature, content and scope limited to the purpose/relevance, subsidiarity, proportionality) for the performance of the appointment assessment with regard to job requirements, health criteria, load/load capacity. e. The health and safety service advises and provides information to the individual examiner, in such a way that the rights of the examiner are guaranteed. 7.6 Employee access Occupational health and safety services can be asked to implement the obligation under the Working Conditions Act to give employees access to the health and safety service (Article 5, paragraph 2, Working Conditions Act). The occupational health and safety service must therefore be able to conduct consultation hours. Agreements are made with employers who wish to provide this service regarding the accessibility of consultation hours for individual employees. The advice to the individual employee in any case includes any consultation with the employer about the conclusion and the action to be taken. 8. Control of production and the provision of services (Paragraph 7.5.1 of ISO 9001:2008) The health and safety service is responsible for: a. coordination of the required personnel capacity with the nature and content of the contracts with customers, in relation to the number, type, size and risk class of these organizations; b. core experts or comparable experts for identifying risks in a particular industry, based on established criteria. 9. Customer and Employee Satisfaction (Section 8.2.1 of ISO 9001:2008) a. The occupational health and safety service concretizes in writing as much as possible the intended results in objectives and performance. b. The health and safety service formulates measurable objectives with regard to the obtaining satisfaction from customers and employees. c. The occupational health and safety service establishes effective and efficient processes to collect, analyze and use information about customer and employee satisfaction to improve the performance of the organization. d. The health and safety service annually measures the satisfaction of customers and employees with regard to the service provided and analyzes the collected information data to improve the service. The occupational health and safety service evaluates the service provided to the customer and the employees, paying attention to the factors or obstacles in the occupational health service or at the customer or employee that stand in the way of a better effect. For customers with 100 employees or more, the health and safety service evaluates the services provided and the results achieved annually on the basis of a report, and makes proposals for the coming period. 10. Improvement (Section 8.5 of ISO 9001:2008) a. A documented procedure must be established for the handling of complaints from customers and employees. This in accordance with paragraphs 4.6 and 4.7 of this Certification Scheme. b. The health and safety service informs the complainant of the possibility of submitting a complaint must be submitted to another body in accordance with the provisions laid down in the Certification Scheme. Machine Translated by Google 11. Additional requirements not linked to ISO 9001:2008 A new internal health and safety service must meet all requirements of the Certification Scheme for the services provided by health and safety services for certification. Until the moment that the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate has been issued to the internal occupational health and safety service, the external occupational health and safety service remains responsible. In the case of a partnership, the employer of the occupational health and safety service must demonstrate its responsibility for the partnership. 7. ASSESSMENT METHODS In this chapter, the assessment criteria of the (potential) certificate holder are elaborated with regard to: •. the initial audit; •. the interim audit; •. the audit with regard to the recertification. 1. Elaboration of criteria for initial audit Phase 1 audit: The purpose of the Phase 1 audit is to determine whether there is sufficient basis to carry out the certification examination by means of an audit. The Phase 1 audit is performed on site at the company. The Phase 1 audit consists of the following parts: •. assessment of the management system documentation; •. assessment of whether site, process, resources, objectives, personnel and management are ready for the Phase 2 audit according to the intended scope; •. assessment of the client's ability to meet the requirements, especially with regard to recognizing key aspects, processes, goals and the implementation of the management system; •. Gather relevant information about the scope of the management system, processes and locations of the customer, including relevant policy documents, such as those related to quality; •. assessment or implementation of internal audits and management review available to be; •. preparing the schedule for the Phase 2 audit; •. assessing the deployment of people and resources for the Phase 2 audit. Phase 2 audit: After the Phase 1 audit has been fully or largely completed, the audit plan for the Phase 2 audit can be drawn up in consultation with the potential certificate holder. Points of attention in the audit planning are: •. time expenditure in accordance with the calculation; •. full scope review; Machine Translated by Google •. sample size at sites. The audit planning provides information regarding the composition of the audit team, date, time, position/interviews, site visits in relation to the standard aspects to be tested. The audit plan agreed with the potential certificate holder must be demonstrably communicated with the customer. The aim of the Phase 2 audit is to determine: •. the conformity with regard to all requirements from the present Certification Scheme; •. effective monitoring and measurement of quality performance indicators and targets; •. assessment of whether the system meets the legal requirements; •. effective process control; •. effective execution of internal audits and management review; •. effective management's customer focus; •. an effective management system tailored to this. The Phase 1 audit and the Phase 2 audit together form the initial audit. The criteria of the initial audit are based on section 9.2.3 of ISO/IEC 17021:2011. 2. Control audits The first periodic control audit takes place no later than 12 months after the last day of the Phase 2 audit. Points of attention in control audits are: •. after the certificate has been issued, there must be at least annual supervision; •. the total time to be spent may be spread over several (control) audits during the 3-year term of the certificate; •. the certification decision in the case of recertification demonstrably takes place before the expiry date of the certificate has been reached. The control audit includes at least the following assessments: •. internal audits and management review; •. the actions taken in response to non-conformities from previous audits; •. handling complaints; •. the effectiveness of the management system; •. progress of planned continuous improvement activities; •. the effectiveness of process control; •. assessing changes; •. assess the use of, or refer to the Occupational Health and Safety Service Certificate. The control audit criteria are based on section 9.3.2 of ISO/IEC 17021:2011. 3. Audit for recertification The audit for recertification includes at least the following assessments: Machine Translated by Google •. the performance of the quality management system over the past certification period; •. The effectiveness of the quality management system in the light of input and external changes; •. Explicit commitment to maintain the quality management system improve; •. Does the quality management system contribute to achieving the policy and purpose of the organization The audit criteria for recertification are based on section 9.4.2.1 of ISO/IEC 17021:2011. The CKI must establish an audit schedule such that any necessary corrective measures in response to major non-conformities identified are implemented before the expiry date of the current certificate. Recertification (including corrective actions) must have taken place before the expiry date of the certificate. Appendix 1: Audit days per occupational health and safety service In paragraph 4.2 of the Certification Scheme for the services provided by occupational health and safety services, the minimum number of "audit days" is described in the certification procedure. For clarification, the tables below show the minimum number of audit days that must be spent on certification per type of occupational health and safety service. The total number of audit days for the 3-year cycle is calculated and multiplied by ¾. The outcome has been adjusted downwards because the customer visits have been canceled. This number of days is divided over 1 initial and 2 periodic audits. Schedule for the initial audit: number of audit days Number of branches Number of visits Number of employees, occupational health and safety service branches 15–30 <15 31–100 101–250 251–500 >500 1 1 3 3.5 4.5 6.5 2–5 2 4 4.5 5.5 7.5 8.5 9.5 6–10 4 4.5 5 6 8 9 12 11–15 6 5.5 6 8 10 11 14 16–20 8 7 8.5 10.5 12 15 21–25 10 10 11 13 16 Machine Translated by Google 26–30 12 15.5 17 31–35 14 16 17.5 36–40 16 17 18 41–45 18 18 19 Schedule for the periodic audit: number of audit days Number of branches Number of visits Number of employees, occupational health and safety service branches 15–30 <15 31–100 101–250 251–500 >500 1 1 1.5 1.5 2.5 3.5 2–5 2 2.5 2.5 2.5 3.5 4.5 4.5 6–10 2 3.5 3.5 3.5 4.5 5.5 5.5 11–15 3 4 4 4 5 6 6 16–20 4 5 5 6 7 7 21–25 5 6 7 8 8 26–30 6 8.5 8.5 31–35 7 9 9 36–40 8 9.5 10 41–45 9 10 11 If an occupational health and safety service has more locations, an adjusted schedule will be drawn up in consultation with the Central Board of Experts. Appendix IIc. belonging to Article 2.14 Machine Translated by Google Field-specific document for designation and supervision of certification bodies charged with: personal certification in the field of Labor and Organization Expert, Occupational Hygienist and Higher Safety Expert Document: WDAT ARBO Under the management of: Foundation Management Certification Experts (BCD) Long Forewood 14 2514 ED The Hague Content 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1 Description document 3.2 Active parties 3.3 Risk analysis and risk of failure 4. Requirements for the designation 4.1 Personal Certification 4.2 Designation Criteria 5. Supervision 6. Measures 1 Introduction Doing work is a risky activity. Occupational hygiene, occupational and organizational science and safety science are disciplines with the aim of advising on reducing the risk of work. In order to safeguard the social interest – safety and health in connection with work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for these three professional activities. The certificate is issued under this regulation by certification bodies (CKIs). In order to be allowed to issue certificates, a CKI must be designated for this purpose by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Machine Translated by Google This is done by checking against this document for the designation and supervision of the certification bodies for certifying occupational and organizational experts, occupational hygienists and safety experts (WDAT-ARBO). This document indicates which rules and procedures the relevant CKIs must adhere to. This scheme for designation and supervision (WDAT-ARBO) establishes, on the one hand, the standards that CKIs must meet in order to be appointed by the Minister and, on the other hand, the conditions under which the designation takes place. This WDAT-ARBO has been established by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment and is managed by the Stichting Beheer Certificatie Deskundigen (BCD) which also manages the certification scheme for occupational and organizational experts, occupational hygienists and safety experts. Only the version of the scheme referred to in the regulations is valid. 2. Definitions Term or Abbreviation Meaning A&O Labor and Organizational expert. to the Certificate ApplicantThe Certification person who Body applies to issue a certificate. Note Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. AH Occupational Hygienist. awb General law administrative law . BCD management foundation Certification of experts. The BCD foundation manages the statutory certification scheme for A&O, AH and VK. Rating Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of settings based on the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment established WDA&T, on Machine Translated by Google under which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates. When determining the WDA&T by the Minister of SZW, so much is may be in line with international systems and standards. CCvd ARBO The Central Board of Occupational Health and Safety Experts is part of and will become facilitated by the BCD foundation, which enables interested parties in a particular sector or industry to offers the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of the documents of the BCD in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Certificate A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act (personal certificate). In addition, a certificate must be considered be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Machine Translated by Google Certificate Holder Person who is in possession of a valid (statutory) certificate. Certification process All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system complies and continues to comply with the standards. Certification Regulations Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification scheme A document established by SZW in accordance with NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. Certification system Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. CKI Certification and Inspection Body. Competence Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills and, where relevant, demonstrated personal attributes, as defined in the certification scheme. Check Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the rules of the Minister for assessment Machine Translated by Google (WDA&T). as Entrance Criteria forCriteria, educationsuch and work experience, which the candidate must meet in order to be admitted to the certification process. Exam The whole of test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to help the individual candidate to be able to assess in the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards satisfies. Examination board Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Examination Regulations Provisions for the conduct of exams in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. HVK Senior Security Officer. National The Accreditation Body Accreditation Body designated by the government to carry out the national accreditation. Risk analysis Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in the field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended field-specific scheme. Machine Translated by Google SZW Ministry of Social Affairs Business and Employment. Approved training A vocational training that has been determined by the BCD Foundation to deliver candidates with the required learning outcomes. Supervision Gathering the information about whether an act or thing meets the requirements set for it, then forming it of a judgment about it and, if necessary, to cause to intervene. (Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations, The Framework Vision on Supervision). Competency requirements The requirements that, within a specific field of work or a specific professional group, are posed to persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. UK safety expert. Workfield This certification scheme includes the professional areas of work & organizational science occupational hygiene and safety science. WDA&T Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. In there are the standards Machine Translated by Google laid down with which CKIs must comply in order to be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions within which designation takes place. WSCS Term used by SZW for a field-specific certification scheme issued by the Minister of SZW is accepted to be used within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT ARBO Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on certification body and charged with personal certification in the field of employment and organization experts, occupational hygienists and safety experts. Document number: WDAT ARBO: 2012, version 1. WSCS-AH Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate for Occupational Hygienists (AH). Document number: WSCS-AH: 2012, version 1. WSCS-AO Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Labor and Organizational experts (AO). Document number: WSCS- AO: 2012, version 1. Machine Translated by Google WSCS-HVK Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Higher Safety Expert (HVK). Document number: WSCS- HVK: 2012, version 1. WOB Government Information Act . In addition, the definitions from NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 are used. 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. Description document This document for the designation and supervision of the certification bodies for the certification of occupational and organizational experts, occupational hygienists and safety experts (WDAT-ARBO) has been proposed by the Stichting Beheer Certificatie van Experten (BCD Foundation) on the advice of the CCvD ARBO and has been approved by determined by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. This adopted document supersedes previous versions. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this WDA&T are active: •. The BCD Foundation; •. CCvD ARBO; •. The CKIs to be designated for this field of work; •. Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure When designating a certification body (CKI), there is a risk that: 1) a CKI is designated that, at the time of designation, does not meet the requirements set for such a CKI; a CKI is designated who, after designation, does not perform its duties properly 2) appears to fulfill; 3) the interests of certificate holders may be harmed; 4) the system of certification working conditions and the Commodities Act suffers 'image damage' or is otherwise undermined and/or the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment is confronted with liability or claims for damages; 5) there are insufficient possibilities for interim checks on the functioning of the CKI and for possibilities to take corrective action towards that CKI in the event of detected deviations; Machine Translated by Google 6) a CKI is not designated that, in view of the legal criteria, is designation should have been considered. Ad 1 This includes matters such as having sufficient and sufficiently qualified personnel, adequate accommodation and sufficient procedures and facilities for handling personal data, procedures and protocols for the outsourcing of activities and the independence of those involved in the process. of testing and certification are involved. Ad 2 This includes matters such as insufficient periodic checks by the CKI on the certificate holder (frequency, depth). Ad 3 This includes, among other things, not adequately applying the prescribed procedures for complaints and review. The method of testing of (candidate) depositary receipt holders and the independence and the way in which the test results are recorded are also points of attention. It is also important here how files of certificate holders are handled in the event that a CKI decides to terminate the activities. to 4 CKIs perform a public task and it is therefore important that they take out adequate insurance against liability. Negligence or incorrect action can undermine confidence in the certification system and lead to (image) damage for fellow CKIs and SZW. Ad 5 The requirements in the Scheme for Designation and Supervision must be such that they provide sufficient guidelines for interim checks by, for example, the national accreditation body or the Inspectorate SZW and contain sufficient verifiable provisions for SZW to be able to impose sanctions on the CKI if necessary. lay. to 6 This is to prevent a CKI not being designated, even though it does meet the criteria for designation (transparency and awareness of the criteria). 4. Requirements for the designation 4.1. Personal Certification Machine Translated by Google The assessment and designation of CKIs for personal certification takes place on the basis of NEN-EN-ISO/ IEC 17024:2012 and the requirements imposed on the CKI on the basis of designation. CKIs that have been assessed and met on the basis of these documents provide sufficient coverage for the subjects mentioned in the risk analysis. The additions described apply to Articles 8.4 and 9.6 of the standard. An elaboration of standard article 8.4 of the standard NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 leads to the following additional requirements: •. The certification scheme is proposed and managed by the BCD foundation and not by the CKI; •. The CCvD may propose ARBO to change the certification scheme must be submitted to the board of the BCD foundation; this forwards them to the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment will assess these amendments and determine whether or not the amendment proposal will be adopted (unchanged). An elaboration of standard article 9.6 of the standard NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 leads to the following additional requirement: •. The CCvD may propose ARBO to change the certification scheme must be submitted to the board of the BCD foundation; this forwards them to the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment will assess these amendments and determine whether or not the amendment proposal will be adopted (unchanged). 4.2. Designation Criteria In the context of its designation on the basis of Articles 1.5a to 1.5d Working Conditions Decree, the CKI is assessed against the following criteria: 4.2.1 The designated CKI and the employees in charge of the inspections or assessments shall carry them out with the highest degree of professional integrity. 4.2.2 There is an integrity policy, which is set out in clear rules where necessary worked out. The staff has demonstrably complied with this. 4.2.3 The designated CKI acts with integrity and not outside its powers in the market. 4.2.4 The personnel of the designated CKI are demonstrably bound by professional secrecy with regard to all that they have learned in the performance of their duties within the framework of the decision, except vis-à-vis the competent government authorities. 4.2.5 The designated CKI is an administrative body within the meaning of the General Act administrative law and must comply with administrative legislation such as the General Administrative Law Act, the Open Government Act and the Public Records Act 1995. 4.2.6 The designated CKI must have third-party liability insurance that provides adequate cover for reasonably foreseeable risks. 4.2.7 The designated CKI must have a procedure in which it is arranged that in In the event of a suspected imminent threat to safety, this is immediately reported by the employee concerned, stating that the institution will inform the interested parties as soon as possible, including the relevant government agency if applicable. Machine Translated by Google 4.2.8 Upon termination of the activities by the designated CKI, he/she must to inform the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment immediately. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines what the (formerly) appointed CKI should do with the files, and the (formerly) designated CKI must cooperate with this. This does not indemnify the (previously) appointed CKI from any liability for errors in inspections or assessments it has carried out. 4.2.9 The designated CKI must have the following procedures in writing: an opinion procedure (section 4.1.2 Awb), an objection procedure (chapters 6 and 7 Awb) and a complaints procedure (chapter 9 Awb). . 4.2.10 The designated CKI must be demonstrably represented in the national consultation of the institutions, organized by the CCvD. The CCvD represents the Netherlands in the European NoBo consultation and the CKIs participate in the consultation with the CCvD. The CKIs must be able to demonstrate that they implement the agreements made in consultation with the CCvD. 4.2.11 Notification obligation of refusing, suspending or revoking certificates to the other CKIs and NoBos respectively. 4.2.12 With regard to the sanctions/measures to be imposed, the Cki adheres to the sanctions and measures policy established. In the event of manifest unreasonableness, the CKI has the authority to deviate from this on the basis of the Awb. Deviation only takes place on the basis of arguments to be put forward by the certificate holder. The substantiation for the deviation is included in the decision on the sanction imposed. Deviations are registered by the cki. 4.2.13 All documents and registrations in communication with the government must be in Dutch unless otherwise agreed with the government. 4.2.14 Prohibition of subcontracting on the issuance of certificates and the related prior assessment and decision. 5. Supervision In connection with the obligations in the context of supervision, the following articles apply; Articles 1.5b and 1.5c Working Conditions Decree and Article 1.1a Working Conditions Regulations. For the purpose of collecting information, the CKI must: a) Report to SZW in writing before 1 March each year about the legitimacy and effectiveness of the performance in each field of activity for which the institution has been designated by the Minister of SZW (the written justification is sent to the SZW Inspectorate). This written report covers at least the following topics: 1. the issued, suspended, withdrawn or rejected certificates; 2. changes in the accreditations, regulations and procedures relating to the professional field of the institution; 3. changes in the composition of the board; 4. amendments to the articles of association or the internal regulations; 5. work outsourced to third parties; 6. structural bottlenecks in the work field of the institution that have arisen in the implementation practice; Machine Translated by Google 7. the consultation and cooperation in the field with other certification bodies; 8. complaints received by the institution and the manner of handling of them; objections lodged against the decisions of the institution and 9. cases brought and the manner in which they are handled; 10. a financial report on the activities for which the setting is recommended. 11. The number of times per calendar year that the sanctions and measures policy are deviated from. b) To cooperate in checks on behalf of SZW (in practice this means: that the checks can be carried out by the Inspectorate SZW and the national accreditation body) . c) Provide timely and correct information that SZW needs to be able to assess whether it continues to meet the designation standards (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW or the national accreditation body). d) Immediately provide information to SZW and the Management Foundation in the context of their registration task, about individual certificates/certificate holders on which a sanction has been imposed (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW). e) Provide information to the Inspectorate SZW about the way in which they has issued depositary receipts and of the way in which it periodically assesses the actions of depositary receipt holders. f) To demonstrate to SZW that it adequately checks whether certificate holders continue to meet the certification requirements (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the SZW Inspectorate, or national accreditation body). In any case, the frequency, nature and extent (duration) of the checks are shown. g) to inform SZW as soon as it intends to terminate one or more of its tasks. h) to inform SZW as soon as it submits an application for an additional accreditation or assessment based on a legal specific scheme. 6. Measures If the designated institution no longer meets the requirements in this scheme, this may have consequences for the designation. See policy measure measures policy certification Working Conditions Act and Commodities Act, Stcrt. 2010, no. 10839 of July 14, 2010. Appendix IId. belonging to Article 2.15 Field-specific certification scheme for the occupational hygienist personal certificate Document: WSCS-AH Machine Translated by Google Index 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. The field-specific characteristics 3.1 Description scheme 3.2 Active parties 3.3 Risk analysis and risk of failure 4. It certification regulations 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Validity period 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 5. The exam regulations 5.1 Objective 5.2 The exam regulations 5.3 Manage central item bank and exam versions 6. Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency and implementation of supervision 6.3 Report of findings 6.4 Complaints regarding the certificate holder 6.5 Measures 7. The subject of certification Machine Translated by Google 8. Entry criteria 9. Competency Profile 10. Test method at initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Test (examination of the portfolio) 11. Testing methodology for recertification 11.1 Key terms 11.2 Assessment method 11.3 Test (portfolio defense) 12 The certificate 13. Validity conditions Attachment 1: Complaints procedure Appendix 2: Objection procedure Attachment 3: Requirements for examination staff Appendix 4: Requirements for the exam Appendix 5: Competency-based assessment scheme Appendix 6: Competency profile occupational hygienist Appendix 7: Admission of courses Appendix 8: Transitional arrangement Appendix 9: Exam format approval and rejection criteria Appendix 10: Specialization of the occupational hygienist (explanatory) 1 Introduction In this personal certification scheme for Occupational Hygienists (AH), on the one hand, general principles and provisions are included and it is described within which Machine Translated by Google conditions the issue of certificates must take place. On the other hand, the scheme establishes the standards that persons must meet in order to receive a certificate of competence. This certification scheme has been drawn up by the relevant Central Board of Experts (CCvD ARBO) of the Management Foundation for Certification of Experts (BCD Foundation). The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. Only after adoption of this regulation by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment may the certification regulation be applied by the certification bodies. The expert to be certified is the Occupational Hygienist. The Occupational Hygienist is concerned with advising employers and employees on how to manage problems in the work environment, with the aim of protecting the employees. Preventing health damage during work is central. The Occupational Hygienist is the designated specialist in the field of stressful factors in the work environment that can have a harmful effect on the health of employees (or on the offspring of employees). The expert advises, among other things, on exposure in the workplace to toxic and/or hazardous substances, noisy machines, vibrating tools, harmful radiation, fungi and bacteria, etc. The Dutch Working Conditions Act requires certification for 'Work Hygienists who test RI&E'. A certified occupational health and safety service must also have a certified occupational hygienist. It follows from Article 2.7 paragraph 2 of the Working Conditions Decree that an occupational hygienist only has sufficient expertise and experience if he is in possession of a certificate of professional competence in occupational hygiene issued by a certifying institution. More information about the professional competence profile (competence profile) of the Occupational Hygienist can be found in appendix 6 of this scheme. This certification scheme is structured in accordance with the requirements of NEN-EN ISO/IEC 17024:2012. 2. Definitions Term or abbreviation Meaning AH Occupational Hygienist Applicant/candidate of The person who applies for a certificate at the Certification Body. Note Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Machine Translated by Google awb General Administrative Law Act . Rating Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the information issued by the Minister of SZW adopted WAD&T, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates to give. When adopting the WDA&T by the Minister of SZW is aligned as much as possible with international systems and standards. BCD Management Foundation Foundation Certification of Experts. The BCD foundation manages the statutory certification scheme for A&O, AH and VK. CCvd ARBO The Central Board of Health and Safety Experts is part of and facilitated by the BCD foundation, which enables interested parties in a particular sector or industry to offers the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of the documents of the BCD foundation in such a way that Machine Translated by Google there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Certificate A certificate in the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act (personal certificate). In addition, a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder Person who is in possession of a valid (statutory) certificate. Certification process All activities via that assesses a CKI and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards as included in this certification scheme. Certification regulations Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification scheme This document issued by SZW has been established. Certification system Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Machine Translated by Google caesura The boundary between the highest test score at which a fail and the lowest test score to which a becomes sufficient promised. CKI Certification Institution, meaning a designated certifying institution authorized to issue a certificate professional competence within the aforementioned certification scheme. Competence Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal characteristics, as defined in the certification scheme. Check Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WAD&T). WAD&T Document for designation and supervision of the certification body and for A&O, AH and VK. EC professional qualification A statement by the CKI issued regarding the level of the vocational training followed outside the Netherlands but is within the EU Machine Translated by Google followed. Attainment targets A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. as Entrance criteria, education Criteria,and such work experience, which the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. Exam The whole of test assignments (test questions and/or test assignments), intended to help the individual candidate to be able to assess the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Examination Regulations Provisions for the conduct of exams in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Nuffic Nuffic (Foundation of the Dutch Organization for International Cooperation in Higher Education) is a Dutch non-profit service provider organization and Machine Translated by Google expertise center in the field of international oriented education that is located in The Hague. Risk analysis Overview of all possible risks that could affect the result which indicate for each risk what the consequence would be if the risk were to occur, which measures can be taken to control them and who can best take these measures. SZW Ministry of Social Affairs business and Employment opportunities. Approved training A vocational training that has been determined by the BCD foundation to deliver candidates with the required learning outcomes. Supervision Gathering information about whether an action or thing meets the requirements set for it, then forming an opinion about it and intervene if necessary. (Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations, The Framework Vision on Supervision). Field of competence Indication of the field of work, the position, or a set of tasks where certain Machine Translated by Google professional competence requirements. Competency requirements The requirements that, within a specific field of work or a specific professional group, are posed to persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Workfield In this certification scheme, underneath it occupational hygiene. WDA&T Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must meet in order to be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions within which designation takes place. WSCS Term used by SZW for a field-specific certification scheme that by the minister of SZW is accepted to be used within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT ARBO Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on certification body and charged with personal certification on Machine Translated by Google the field of employment and organization experts, occupational hygienists and safety experts. Document: WDAT-ARBO. WSCS-AH Field-specific certification scheme for the occupational hygienists (AH) personal certificate. Document: WSCS-AH. WSCS-AO Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Labor and Organizational Experts (AO). Document: WSCS-AO. WSCS-HVK Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Higher Safety Expert (HVK). Document: WSCS-HVK. WOB Government Information Act . 3. The field-specific characteristics Doing work is a risky activity. In the interest of society – To ensure safety and health in and around the workplace, the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme to guarantee the professional competence of the AH profession. 3.1. Description scheme This field-specific occupational hygienist certification scheme has been proposed by the BCD foundation and by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment – including any adjustments – established. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can also make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. Comments or comments about the certification scheme can be submitted to the BCD foundation. 3.2. Active parties Machine Translated by Google The following are active within the framework of this certification scheme: •. The BCD foundation of which (Central) Colleges of Experts are part of to finish; •. Designated by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment certification bodies; •. Certificate Holders. 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Carrying out work professionally can eventually lead to health effects such as psychological and physical effects, including death. An occupational hygienist is mainly concerned with working conditions, with the aim of optimizing these in such a way that the well-being and health of the employees are not endangered, i.e.: prevention and health is his field of activity, the protection of employees and/or the environment is his goal. . Short-term absence of the consultant can therefore not affect the level of working conditions. This means that the direct risk of failure is small. Occupational hygiene is the applied science that focuses on all the burdensome factors that can arise in or due to the work situation and that can influence the health and/or well-being of the working person and/ or his descendants. 4. The certification regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of this scheme. This includes the application procedure, the examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issuance of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out supervision, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. 4.2. Certification procedure The Occupational Hygienist submits an application for the personal certificate to a CKI in accordance with the Occupational Hygienist certification scheme. The CKI then provides relevant information about the state of affairs regarding the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who was not involved in the assessment of the candidate. This officer is qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality management system and the procedures that the CKI has Machine Translated by Google based on the Document for designation and supervision of the certification bodies for AH (the WDA&T). 4.4. Validity period The period of validity for a personal certificate according to the AH certification scheme is five years. 4.5. Validity conditions Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. The conditions and the manner in which the CKI must supervise are drawn up by the BCD foundation and recorded in the Document for designation and supervision of the certification bodies for AH. 4.6. Complaints Handling of complaints from candidates and certificate holders. The complaints procedure is included in Appendix 1. 4.7. Objection procedure The objection procedure is included in Appendix 2. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with the BCD foundation, this data is sent electronically to the foundation at least as often as changes occur for the purpose of the foundation's Certificate Register, which is set up in accordance with statutory provisions. This register is made accessible via the Internet. The BCD foundation is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The BCD foundation must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other interested parties use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion, differing interpretations must be submitted to the BCD foundation, which will request advice from the CCvD ARBO before answering. 5. The Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the AH personal certification scheme. The CKI manages the Machine Translated by Google examiners pool. The CKI uses these examiners to conduct exams for AH certification. The examiner focuses on the preparation, execution and assessment of exams. The requirements for the examiners are set out in Appendix 3, while Appendix 4 contains the exam requirements. 5.1. Objective These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the purpose of the AH personal certification scheme. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the CKI and consists of a written and/or oral portfolio assessment. 5.2. The exam regulations The following matters must be included in the examination regulations of the CKI: 1) entrance requirements for taking the exam; 2) confirmation of participation and call; 3) identification of the participants; 4) admission and absence; 5) exam duration and method of examination; 6) The information provided (in advance) to the participants in an exam provided so that it is clear to those participants how the exam will be set up 7) set requirements for the examination staff (see appendix 3); 8) set requirements for the exam (see appendix 4); 9) rules of conduct for candidates while taking the exam; 10) arrangement adapted exam for persons with disabilities; 11) pass and fail standards; 12) the method of determining the exam result; 13) announcement of the result; 14) retention period of the examination documents such as answers and assessment forms; 15) right of inspection exam request by the candidate; 16) validity period of the exam result. The exam pool is an organizational part of the CKI. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. 5.3. Manage central item bank and exam versions If a central item bank is used, the item bank is managed under strict confidentiality by the CKI. The method of management of the item bank has been recorded in writing and has demonstrably been approved by the management of the CKI. The theory questions, including the pass mark, are stored in the item bank, which have been prepared in advance. 6. Supervision Machine Translated by Google The purpose of supervision is to test the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder complies and continues to meet the requirements. In view of the risk analysis and the low short-term risk of damage to the company, the certification period has been set at five years. For the same reason, one interim check of all certificate holders is normally sufficient. 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI and, where applicable, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder includes the necessary provisions for this, including provisions with regard to more extensive checks by the CKI on a randomly selected part of the certificate holders to verify the data supplied during the interim checks. 6.2. Frequency and implementation of supervision The supervision is carried out as follows: •. During the certification period, after (approximately) 2.5 years, the CKI conducts an interim checks on all certificate holders. This check is performed by the CKI and consists of an assessment of the following topics: – the extent of working in the field of at least an average of 2 half-days per week (consisting of the submission of an employer's statement by the employee or, in the case of a self- employed person, an accountant's statement, which must be completed truthfully); – the certificate holder submits the above documents in writing or scanned by email to the CKI. •. In addition, 1% of the depositary receipt holders receive a random check each year (if possible) more extensive control. In this more extensive check, the certificate holder is visited during an ICT meeting and his portfolio is assessed on progress and content (main features). This check is carried out by the CKI responsible for the implementation. The term for submitting the required documents, consisting of the employer's statement or accountant's statement and the list of participation, must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks. 6.3. Report of findings The CKI draws up a report of the findings of the supervision. The result of the supervision is communicated to the certificate holder in writing. The certificate holder can object to measures (see section 6.5) that may be imposed as a result of the supervision. The CKI handles the objection in accordance with its objection procedure (appendix 2). 6.4. Complaints concerning the certificate holder Machine Translated by Google A complaint concerning the certificate holder is submitted to the CKI. The CKI handles the complaint in accordance with its complaints procedure. 6.5. Measures If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards of this certification scheme, this may lead to measures imposed by the CKI. Possible measures are repair activities, requesting additional/missing documents, suspension, changes to the detriment of the certificate holder or the withdrawal of the certificate. Criteria Missing documents are requested if the employer's statement or auditor's statement and/or the participation lists are missing (see section 6.2). Suspension of the certificate will in any case take place if the work experience is demonstrably less than two half-days per week on average and it is possible for the certificate holder to demonstrate this within six months. The certificate will in any case be withdrawn if the work experience is demonstrably less than two half-days per week on average and/or participation in the ICT group has not been demonstrated. Further requirements, suspension or withdrawal of the certificate can take place if the candidate does not meet the requirements of the Occupational Hygienist scheme or if the CKI has a valid reason for this. A certificate can also be revoked in the event of fraud, death or at the request of the certificate holder. If there is a measure, this will be made known to the certificate holder. When imposing a measure, the CKI must indicate the period within which the measure must be implemented. The CKI then checks the implementation. Suspensions and withdrawals must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. The Inspectorate SZW must also be informed of this. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. Recertification after a withdrawal is only possible after one year from the date of withdrawal. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. 7. The subject of certification This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD ARBO of the BCD foundation. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of the Occupational Hygienist. This certification scheme has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established regulation therefore replaces previous versions. Machine Translated by Google The subject (scope) of this certification scheme concerns the competencies A to J in the competency profile of the Occupational Hygienist, as described in chapter 3 of appendix 6 to this document. To demonstrate the competences, a portfolio is drawn up by the applicant for (re)certification. 8. Entry Criteria Before the CKI carries out the certification audit of the legally required occupational hygienist personal certificate, the candidate must meet the entrance criteria described below: 1) Submitting an application for a personal certificate to a CKI; 2) Submission of a preparatory diploma; 3) Submitting an exam call for an approved vocational training course or a previously obtained diploma; 4) Submitting an employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the candidate operates as a self-employed person; 5) Submitting a completed portfolio. ad. 1 The application must meet the following requirements: •. The application must be signed by the applicant; •. The scope of the application must be clear; •. The application should be addressed to the CKI. The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirements, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 2 The applicant can submit one of the following documents for this: •. A diploma of a HBO education or higher; •. Evidence of an investigation into the applicant's work and thinking level showing HBO work and thinking level (for example prepared by an HRM agency). The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirements, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 3 The applicant must submit the following document for this: •. An exam call showing that the candidate is taking the exam of an approved vocational training course for Occupational Hygienists. Candidates who already have a vocational training diploma can make use of the transitional arrangement. Machine Translated by Google In the event that the candidate has followed a non-admitted vocational training course, the CKI offers the possibility to conduct an investigation which shows whether or not the vocational training is equivalence. If this is the case, the diploma will be regarded as equivalent to a study program approved by the CKI. The costs of this examination are borne by the candidate. If the candidate has a diploma from a vocational training program outside the EU, it is up to the candidate to create a portfolio and go through the portfolio process. After five years, the candidate can participate in the portfolio assessment, as is the case with recertification. In the event of a positive assessment, the CKI can then proceed to initial certification. The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirements, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 4 The applicant can submit one of the following documents for this: •. An employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the candidate operates as a self-employed person demonstrating that the candidate has work experience as Occupational hygienist and in any case able to perform two of the activities listed below in a broad sense: – Advising on investigations of health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organisations; – Assessing an RI&E; – Advising on research into optimizing the working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment; – Occupational health risk assessment; – Occupational hygiene risk management; •. The work experience as an occupational hygienist must not have been more than 2 years ago accrued, calculated from now on 2012; •. If the candidate operates as a self-employed person, he must: to be able to submit audit reports for the previous 2 years to the CKI. The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirements, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 5 The applicant must submit the following document for this: •. A completed portfolio, which the applicant creates at the start of the admitted vocational training; •. Candidates who already hold a vocational training diploma can make use of the transitional arrangement. The CKI checks whether all supporting documents have been submitted and sends a confirmation of receipt to the candidate. If the candidate meets the above entry criteria Machine Translated by Google If the application has been met, the application will be processed, see chapter 10, after which the examiner will check the content of the supporting documents. NB. The structure of the portfolio is not tied to a training institution or a CKI. 9. Competency Profile For the sake of readability of this certification scheme, the competency profile of the Occupational Hygienist is included as appendix 6 to this document. 10. Testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms The applicant has met the entry criteria of Chapter 8. This is followed by the substantive test, which is performed by the examiner and is described below. 1) Submitting an application for a personal certificate to a CKI; 2) Submission of a preparatory diploma; 3) Submitting a diploma of an approved vocational training course; 4) Submitting an employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the candidate operates as a self-employed person; 5) Submitting a completed portfolio. ad. 1 The examiner checks whether the scope of the application falls under the regulations of the Occupational Hygienists. If this is not the case, the application will not be processed further. The examiner will inform the CKI of this. The CKI will inform the applicant of this in writing, also with regard to the further processing of the application. ad. 2 The examiner checks whether: 1. The diploma comes from a HBO education or higher, or 2. The certificate of an investigation into the applicant's working and thinking level showing HBO working and thinking level (for example drawn up by an HRM agency) comes from an agency. If one of the above points is not in order, the applicant will be given the opportunity (via the CKI) to supplement this within six weeks. If the applicant does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 3 Machine Translated by Google The examiner checks whether: 1. The diploma actually comes from an approved vocational training course. 2. In the event that the candidate has followed a non-admitted vocational training, an examination has been requested by the applicant and carried out by a CKI, which shows whether or not the vocational training is equivalence. 3. In case the candidate has a diploma from a vocational training outside the EU the candidate has created a portfolio and has completed the portfolio trajectory. After five years, the applicant can participate in the portfolio assessment, as is the case with recertification. In the event of a positive assessment, the CKI can then proceed to initial certification. If one of the above points is not in order, the applicant will be given the opportunity to supplement this within six weeks. If the applicant does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 4 The work experience of the Occupational Hygienist shows that he is able to apply competencies independently in practice. With regard to the work experience gained, the examiner considers: •. The employer's statement or accountant's statement showing that the candidate has work experience as an Occupational Hygienist and is in any case able to perform the following activities: – Advising on investigations of health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organisations; – Advising on research into optimizing the working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment; – Occupational hygiene risk management under the supervision of a certified Occupational Hygienist. •. The work experience as an occupational hygienist is no more than 2 years ago accrued, calculated from the application date; •. If the candidate operates as a self-employed person, he must: to be able to submit audit reports for the previous 2 years to the CKI. If one of the above points is not in order, the candidate will be given the opportunity (via the CKI) to supplement this within 14 days. If the candidate does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 5 The examiner assesses the portfolio in preparation for taking the exam at the admitted vocational training course. The portfolio consists of a description of at least two of the following five core tasks: 1) Further development of and in the Occupational Hygienist profession; Machine Translated by Google 2) Advising on investigations into health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organizations; 3) Advising on research into optimizing working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment; 4) Occupational health risk assessment; 5) Occupational hygiene risk management; under the supervision of a certified Occupational Hygienist. For each core task, it is indicated which competencies are linked to it. Consisting of one general and one profession-specific competence. For this, reference is made to the competency profile for occupational hygienists, which can be found in Appendix 6 of these regulations. For each core task, it is indicated which knowledge (from, for example, books, internet, reports, work instructions) has been used as a background for the performance of this core task. It is desirable for a core task to include a description of, for example, a book, report or publication, with references where necessary, which have been used for the performance of this task. During the initial training, the four core tasks are worked out within the graduation assignment, which are discussed in an ICT group. From this, the corresponding competencies, four learning questions, four improvement and development proposals and four improvement actions are described. These points may overlap. Missing information in the portfolio is requested from the candidate via the CKI. The missing information must be provided in good time (at least two weeks before the date of the exam) so that the examiner still has sufficient time for an assessment. If the candidate does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The candidate will be informed of this in writing by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. 10.2. Test (examination of the portfolio) The test is intended to test the way in which the Occupational Hygienist works on his professional development. The test is administered orally by one examiner based on the candidate's portfolio. The candidate will be informed in advance of the duration of the exam and how the exam will be administered. The basis for the test is the core task competency matrix completed by the Occupational Hygienist. The core task-competence matrix links core tasks and competences. The Occupational Hygienist indicates which competencies he has or wants to develop for which core task. This provides important information for the assessment. It provides insight into which competence can be tested in which core task. The core task competence matrix consists of 5 core tasks and 10 competences: Core tasks General Competencies Occupation-Specific Competences Machine Translated by Google a B C d E f G huh I J Customer-oriented action Advisory skills Results-oriented Acting professionally Collaborating, connecting Entrepreneurship Research and analysis Information, training Implementation skills Safeguard and monitor Operate and integrate 1 and instruction and Further development of the field. 2 Advising on/ investigating health, working conditions and sustainable employability in labor organisations. 3 Advising on/investigating the optimization of working conditions such as rg. 4 Occupational risk assessment. 5 Occupational hygiene risk management. With the above core task competency matrix, the Occupational Hygienist composes a profile that matches his own interpretation of the profession. A distinction is made between a profile that reflects the situation at the initial certification or at the start of a new certification period (the initial matrix) and a profile that reflects the aspects in which the expert wants to develop further or has developed during the underlying certification period. (the development matrix). The initial matrix is completed at the initial certification and at the start of a new certification period. The Occupational Hygienist indicates which competencies he possesses for each core task. This must be at least one general and one profession-specific competency. In the development matrix, the expert indicates which competencies he wants to develop. This can be a new competency, or an improvement of an existing competency. During the five-year certification period, the expert illustrates his development on the basis of 4 cases. For each case he names at least 3 competences within the core task to which the case relates. The development matrix Machine Translated by Google contains at least twelve crosses, 4 of which are linked to the submitted cases. These development competencies are elaborated in the report into learning questions, an improvement proposal and an improvement action. So a total of 4 reports with 4 development points over 5 years. During the test, the Occupational Hygienist defends this portfolio. The examiner draws up a report of the assessment of the portfolio. The examiner makes a recommendation based on this report. The report and the advice are sent to the CKI. 11. Testing methodology for recertification 11.1. Key terms The certificate expires five years after (re)certification and the applicant must demonstrate that it meets the (re)certification requirements. There is also a substantive test which is performed by the examiner and is described below: 1) Submitting an application for (re)certification to a CKI; 2) Submitting an employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the occupational hygienist operates as a self-employed person; 3) Submitting a completed portfolio; 4) Refresher and refresher courses. The CKI checks whether the above-mentioned documents are present in accordance with Chapter 8, where applicable. 11.2. Assessment method ad. 1 The examiner checks whether the scope of the application falls under the regulations of the occupational hygienists. If this is not the case, the application will not be processed further. The examiner notifies the CKI of this and indicates under which regulations the application falls. The CKI will inform the applicant of this in writing, also with regard to the further processing of the application. ad. 2 The examiner checks whether: •. The employer's statement or accountant's statement showing that the occupational hygienist has work experience as an occupational hygienist and is in any case able to perform the following activities: – Advising on investigations of health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organisations; – Advising on research into optimizing the working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment; – Occupational hygiene risk management. Machine Translated by Google •. The work experience as an Occupational Hygienist is no more than 5 years ago accrued, calculated from the application date; •. If the candidate operates as a self-employed person, he must: to be able to submit audit reports for the previous 2 years to the CKI. If one of the above points is not in order, the occupational hygienist (via the CKI) will be given the opportunity to supplement this within six weeks. If the occupational hygienist does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The occupational hygienist then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 3 The examiner looks at the contents of the portfolio. After five years, the portfolio consists of: A description of the following five core tasks: 1) Further development of and in the Occupational Hygiene profession; 2) Advising on investigations into health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organizations; 3) Advising on research into optimizing working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment; 4) Occupational health risk assessment; 5) Occupational hygiene risk management. For each core task, it is indicated which competencies are linked to it. Consisting of one general and one profession-specific competence. For this, reference is made to the competency profile for occupational hygienists, which can be found in Appendix 6 of these regulations. For each core task, it is indicated which knowledge (from, for example, books, internet, reports, work instructions) has been used as a background for the performance of this core task. It is desirable that for a core task a description is given of relevant information (for example a book, report, publication, with reference where necessary), which has been used for the performance of this task. At least four cases briefly elaborated in a report, which were discussed in an ICT group. From this, the corresponding competencies, four learning questions, four improvement and development proposals and four improvement actions are described. These points may overlap. When the portfolio is complete and the applicant has met the above criteria, the occupational hygienist may participate in the test (examination of the portfolio). The Occupational Hygienist will be informed of this in writing by the CKI. If the portfolio is not in order, the occupational hygienist will be given the opportunity to supplement it within six weeks. If the occupational hygienist does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The occupational hygienist becomes aware of this Machine Translated by Google notified in writing by the CKI. The occupational hygienist then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 4 Certificate holders demonstrate that they maintain their knowledge of the profession (in-service training) by, for example, writing an article within the ICT group or fulfilling a board position within the field. 11.3. Test (portfolio defense) There is one examiner who conducts an oral exam based on the occupational hygienist's portfolio. The examiner draws up a report of the assessment of the portfolio. The examiner makes a recommendation based on this report. The report and the advice are sent to the CKI. If the process with one examiner does not function properly, two examiners are deployed during exams. For more information about the assessment procedure, reference is made to the examination regulations and the Competency Profile Occupational Hygienists section 4.2. 12. The certificate The following information is (at least) stated on the certificate: •. Name of the certified person; •. Unambiguous document/certificate number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards being tested (with identifiable version); •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid; •. A statement from the CKI that the person concerned meets the requirements as established in the certification scheme for the Occupational Hygienist. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate (see policy on measures). •. The certificate holder will immediately inform the CKI of changes regarding his/her position, employer, home and work address; •. The certificate holder may only use the certificate (and pass) as long as it is valid; •. The certificate holder may only use the certificate (and pass) if proof of his/her professional competence in the specified field; Machine Translated by Google •. The certificate holder agrees to cooperate for the execution of interim supervision (surveillance) and with spot checks in the workplace; •. The certificate holder agrees to mention his/her certification in the public register of certificate holders; •. The certificate holder will keep a record of complaints against professional competence and cooperate in the investigation of such complaints. The above must be included in the certification agreement signed by the certificate holder. Appendix 1: Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Machine Translated by Google Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. Machine Translated by Google If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. Appendix 2: Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non- granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure “objection procedure”, an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: – name and address of submitter – date – a description of the contested decision – the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Procedure Machine Translated by Google •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. Appendix 3: Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff The purpose of the examination staff (examiners) is to examine the experts during initial certification and during recertification. The examination staff consists of all examiners appointed for this purpose by the BCD foundation on the recommendation of the professional associations. The examination staff selects a representative from the group Machine Translated by Google which is present during the meetings of the Central Board of Experts Occupational Health and Safety for advice. The examination staff forms the examination office. The examination bureau is independent of the professional associations and operates under the responsibility of the BCD foundation. Examination staff must meet the following general, professional and independence requirements: •. General: – Examination staff has at least the same level of education of the candidates' training to be examined; – Exam staff have been instructed in administering (portfolio) exams; •. Subject matter: – Exam staff have at least three years of demonstrable experience in the relevant field of work; – Exam staff demonstrably follow refresher courses or are certified for the relevant professional field; •. Independence: – Exam staff has no (personal) interest in the result exam ) If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination is not discredited. These measures must be recorded.); – Exam staff have demonstrable insight into the work, the context and the industry in which an occupational hygienist works. Examiners who meet the above requirements can be appointed by the CKI appointed and used for examinations. The assessment of examination staff There is a meeting for examiners twice a year. The examiner is obliged to attend at least one meeting. In exceptional cases, the BCD Foundation can grant an extension for this. The meetings are organized by the BCD foundation and the designated CKI. During the meetings, the logbooks of the examiners are checked for completeness and discussed, after which any improvement and development proposals are drawn up. Appendix 4: Requirements for the exam Restriction of exams Employees of the CKI (including the examiners) are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of Machine Translated by Google of a public standard. Employees of the CKI have signed a declaration of confidentiality. General rules when conducting exams Requirements for the exam location are: •. The space is sufficiently quiet; •. There are sanitary facilities; •. On request, an adapted place is available for a disabled person (physical or dyslexic); •. The work lighting must be sufficient (between 200 and 800 lux); •. The room is sufficiently ventilated and heated (temp. 18 to 25 degrees C); •. The room complies with legal safety regulations. The requirements to be set for the examination materials are: •. Presence of audio/visual aids. Requirements for the portfolio exam are: •. The theoretical and practical components based on the candidate's portfolio are tested by the examiner; •. The questions that are presented are drawn up by the examiner; •. The pass (assessment criteria) is determined in advance by the examiner; •. The exam is administered by the examiner in a time frame of 50 minutes; •. Assessment of the exam is done by the examiner. The examiner keeps a log containing the way of testing and the questions that are asked. The examiner also keeps track of whether the cut-off is working; •. For subjects to be assessed, learning objectives must be drawn up and should be tested against those learning objectives with sufficient depth. The basic principle is that a portfolio exam is preferably taken in the Dutch language. Appendix 5: Competency-based assessment scheme Appendix 6: Competency profile occupational hygienist Introduction This competency profile for Occupational Hygienists has been drawn up to record the content of the Occupational Hygienists profession. The profession is described in core tasks and competences. In this way, the competency profile is an instrument for measuring craftsmanship. In addition, the profile is the starting point for the requirements imposed on the professional to be certified. The competency profile is part of the certification system that must result in the certificate for the Occupational Hygienists according to the Working Conditions Act. This competency profile is intended as a basis for the Machine Translated by Google certification of experts and not for the design of training. This is an important difference with a profile as used by training institutes. The description of the profession is based on the experience and craftsmanship of professionals and not on recently graduated experts. The process that the professional practitioner goes through is guiding in this description. A core task competency matrix is included in this document (chapter 4). This matrix shows which competencies are used in the execution of the sub-processes of a core task. The assessment criteria are drawn up mainly on the basis of this core task competency matrix. These criteria are determined by the Central Board of Experts (CCvD). Partly on the basis of the extent to which these criteria are met, the certification committee and the certifying institution(s) may or may not issue or extend a personal certificate. In addition, training institutions can use the competency profile and the assessment criteria as a starting point for optimally linking their training to the certification system of the Stichting Beheer Certificatie Deskundigen (BCD Foundation). Where the masculine reference is used in this document, the feminine form may also be read where appropriate. Classification of the competency profile This document consists of four chapters. Chapter 1 describes the profession. Chapter 2 describes the core tasks that the healthcare practitioner performs. Chapter 3 describes the general and profession- specific competences. Chapter 4 provides insight into which competencies are used in the performance of a core task. 1. General information 1.1. Image of the industry and the profession The profession 'Arbeidshygienist' is one of the four core experts recognized by law in the Netherlands in the field of working conditions. The Occupational Hygienist contributes to the maintenance of the social production factor 'labour' of people in the short and long term. The 'Work Hygienist' is engaged in advising in the broad field of health and sustainable employability in work organizations and optimizing working conditions care. The Occupational Hygienist is the pre-eminent specialist in the field of The Occupational Hygienist continuously develops his profession and skills, collaborates, connects and integrates knowledge of causes, consequences and solutions and practices his profession in an enterprising manner. The Dutch Working Conditions Act requires certification for 'occupational hygienists who test RI&E'. A certified occupational health and safety service must also have a certified occupational hygienist, hence sometimes the terminology Register Occupational Hygienist. An occupational hygienist is an expert in the field of risk assessment and risk management of the healthy working environment with regard to the chemical, physical, Machine Translated by Google biological and physical workplace factors in accordance with Article 2.7 of the Working Conditions Decree and he is in possession of a certificate of professional competence in occupational hygienists. The Occupational Hygienist has the core tasks 1 to 3 and professional competences A to J in common with the other certified non-medical occupational health and safety experts (Labour and Organization Expert, Higher Safety Expert). The Occupational Hygienist differs from other certified non- medical occupational health and safety experts (Labour and Organizational Expert, Higher Safety Expert) in core tasks 4 and 5 and in one or more specializations in researching and/or advising in the field of a healthy working environment. 2. Core tasks 2.1. Introduction The profession is described in five core tasks that together comprise the entire profession. Hereby: •. core task 1 is a general task, aimed at professional and professional development; •. are core tasks 2 and 3 specific tasks in the field of working conditions in general; •. are core tasks 4 and 5 specifically for the Occupational Hygienists. Professionals can specialize in this to a greater or lesser extent. 2.2. Description of the core tasks Core task 1 Further development of and in the profession of the Occupational Hygienists Process/sub-tasks 1. Gather new knowledge or maintain knowledge by means of knowledge, task and/or sector specialization 2. Develop new theories. 3. Methods and develop, apply and improve instruments. 4. New knowledge, methods and tools dissemination (teaching, advising, presenting, publishing. Role/Responsibility Expert, advisor Machine Translated by Google and student, researcher, pioneer. Complexity High, due to the broad nature of the field. Those involved Scientists, colleagues. Resources Scientific research, peer assessment, courses, symposia, conferences, etc. Quality Quality investment in and choice of specializations. Promoting new developments. Incident sensitivity of the AH member within the organization where he works. Result Improving the quality of the profession and its execution. Choices and dilemmas • Time or priority. • Security or innovation. Core task 2 Advising and coaching about/investigating health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organisations. Process/sub-tasks 1) Develop vision, programs and policy. 2) Research, analyze and on that basis advise and apply programs. 3) Supervise change/implementation processes and evaluate and revise programmes. 4) Management, executives, Machine Translated by Google train employees. Role/responsibility Expert, advisor, process supervisor, and trainer. Complexity Coordination of different parties for the performance of its duties. Knowledge of advice and research within the field of the AH-er. Those involved Board, management, HR, supervisors, employees and others experts. Resources Recognized risk assessment methods and control resources, project management and process control resources & techniques, effective communication methods. Quality Empathic ability. Process monitoring during the implementation of advice and investigations Advice must be issued on time/ as agreed and must be substantiated and practically usable. Result Labor organizations that pursuing a conscious and active policy aimed at health, working conditions and sustainable employability of their employees, based on adequate knowledge and control methods. Choices and dilemmas • Short-term investments or long-term returns. • Abstract or concrete. • Machine Translated by Google Organizational policy or individual interest. • Small- scale or large-scale. • Independent or linking up with a larger whole. • Silent force or demonstrative. • Leader or follower. Core task 3 Advising and coaching about/investigating the optimization of working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment. Process/sub-tasks 1. Review, update and supplement policy in the field of health and safety at work. 2. Mapping occupational risks. 3. Carry out RI&E, assess, test, advise. 4. Prevention Officer to coach. Role/Responsibility Expert, advisor, researcher, coach. and Complexity Average. Will depend on the nature of the organization and the work/work process ssen. Those involved Board, management, HR, Facilities, prevention officer, Works Council, colleagues. Resources RI&E instruments, questionnaires. Quality Advice must be issued on time/as agreed and must be substantiated and practically usable. Process monitoring when implementing Machine Translated by Google advices. Result Labor organizations with a coherent working conditions policy, and a package of measures to manage occupational risks and to realize or maintain a healthy and safe working situation. Choices and dilemmas • Must or want. • Know or do. Core task 4 Occupational health risk assessment. Process/sub-tasks 1. Identify potential health hazards. 2. Determine the relationship between exposures and potential negative health effects. 3. Design an exposure assessment strategy. 4. Apply the exposure assessment strategy. 5. Draft conclusions and recommendations. Role/Responsibility Expert, researcher, process and supervisor. Complexity Sufficient background to know, recognize and interpret potential health risks within the organization where the Occupational Hygienist works. Being able to apply risk methods and risk models. Alignment with content Machine Translated by Google experts. Those involved Board, management, HR, supervisors, employees, Works Council, colleague experts. Resources Document research, observations, measurements, conversations, simulation programs, computer models.. Quality Interpreting it correctly of the information available at that time regarding the potential health risks. Asking the asking the right questions and asking further questions under time pressure determines the quality of the content. Adequate assessment. Validity assessment method. Result Work organizations with adequate (complete, reliable and up- to-date) knowledge and insight into health risks due to workplace factors. Choices and dilemmas • Superficial or in-depth assessment. • Whether or not more specialized experts Core task 5 Occupational risk management. Process/subtasks 1. Assess control options. 2. Select an appropriate control approach. 3. Apply and coordinate the chosen control approach. 4. Make sure that the Machine Translated by Google control measures are effective. Role/Responsibility Expert, advisor, process and supervisor, researcher.. Complexity Interpreting risk management and using risk assessment methods and models. Sufficient background to know, recognize and interpret management systems and management models. Those involved Board, management, HR, supervisors, employees, Works Council, colleague experts, prevention employees. Resources Health and Safety Catalogues, Health and Safety Information Sheets, Various publications and resources, Computer models, Occupational hygiene strategy (source approach). Quality Adequate assessment. Validity assessment method. Accuracy and completeness of data. Result Work organizations with adequate (complete, reliable and current) control of workplace exposures and health risks due to workplace factors. Choices and dilemmas • Place of barrier choice in Occupational hygiene strategy (near source and/or near receiver). • Much or little risk knowledge Machine Translated by Google (prevention principle – risk assessment). Plug-in level: Individual – group or organizational approach. Material, machine, method or human level. • Level of engagement: Function/operating principle/method of application. Labor or environment/sustainability. 3. Competencies 3.1. Introduction In the profession of Occupational Hygienists, a distinction can be made between general competences – which can be found in many professions – and profession-specific competences. The general competences are described in section 3.1 and the profession-specific competences are described in section 3.2. The designations used are the same as those in the core task competency matrices in chapter 4. 3.2. General competences Competency A Customer-oriented approach The Occupational Hygienist can maintain adequate contact with the external or internal customer (officers), so that the work is carried out according to the customer's wishes. • Has knowledge of the Knowledge own organization or the organization for which he is employed and can map that organization. • Has up-to-date knowledge of the AH subject (maximum one year old) and knows it Machine Translated by Google competence profile. • Has knowledge of relevant laws and regulations in the field from working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). • Has knowledge of the force field in which the AH'er acts and knows the interests of various parties within and outside the organization. Skills to act in • Is capable of an organization sensitive way and can organization to acquire sufficient support for the policy to be implemented. • Is capable at all levels within the organization to communicate. Both orally and in writing and both internally and with external parties. • Is able to adequately understand the interests of different parties within and outside the organization, including management, employees and fellow experts. • Is able to draw up a project plan including project planning and budget. • Is able to acquire and prepare a quote. • Is able to listen to Machine Translated by Google various parties inside and outside the organization and to prepare a report. • Moves attitude along with the organization and is able to find a balance between the interests of different parties. • Handles correct manners with respect for all parties involved. • Is tenacious in the monitoring the advice issued. • Is involved in his own work and shows that he finds a safe and healthy workplace important. Competency B Consulting skills De The occupational hygienist can report adequately orally and in writing about the work, so that the client and/or his colleagues are informed effectively and can build on this. • Has knowledge of intervention techniques Knowledge including persuasion and training. • Has knowledge from communication techniques including informing, dialogizing and presenting. • Has Machine Translated by Google knowledge of project management, including project design and evaluation. Skills • Is able to convince, motivate, communicate and create support, taking into account the different interests and responsibilities of different people. parties. • Is able to give an independent judgment based on his own discipline and is impartial in his actions. • Is capable of cooperate with other disciplines, including company doctor and safety expert. • Is able to manage complex projects; projects with a longer lead time in which several parties are involved. • Is capable of intervention techniques including persuasion and training. • Is able to apply AH professional knowledge (as described in this competency profile) and translate it into an advisory process. • Imagine attitude independent and impartial. • Takes a collegial attitude and has an open attitude Machine Translated by Google to colleagues. • Takes a critical stance. • Be realistic when writing and issuing the advice, for example by taking into account the financial feasibility of the advice. • Is persistent in monitoring (the implementation of) the advice issued. Competency C Result-oriented functioning The Occupational Hygienist is able to communicate adequately with all those involved in the work process, so that this benefits the course and the outcome of the work and leads to the desired result. Knowledge • Has basic knowledge of psychology and behavioral sciences. • Has basic knowledge of labor and organizational science (business administration). • Has knowledge of project management, including project design and evaluation. Skills • Is able to formulate measurable, achievable and clear objectives. • Is able to draw up, implement a project plan Machine Translated by Google implement and evaluate. • Is able to prioritize and meet deadlines. • Take unforeseen circumstances into account when drawing up a project plan. • Is capable of relevant identify parties in a specific project or file and together with it to work. • attitude Imagine solution-oriented with sufficient attention to the intended result. • Is tenacious in the (interim) evaluation of activities with an eye to the intended result. Competency D Professional conduct The Occupational Hygienist acts in accordance with the code of conduct and is continuously informed of relevant developments in the field. The expert is able to apply (new) knowledge at higher vocational education plus/scientific level and to transform it into applicable models and instruments. In addition, he can use relevant instruments, Machine Translated by Google interpreting and assessing methodologies, models and data at HBO-plus/scientific level. • Has up-to-date knowledge of the AH profession and is Knowledge aware of recent developments in the field. • Has knowledge of the AH competency profile and the AH code of conduct. • Has knowledge of relevant laws and regulations in the field from working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). • Has knowledge of the sites and information sources of information about the AH field, including trade journals, legislation and statistics. Skills to acquire • Is capable of the necessary knowledge (personal training plan, visiting symposia, collecting information, etc.). • Is able to apply AH professional knowledge and to translate it into a specific practical situation. • Is able to take into account the interests of different parties inside and outside the organization, including management, employees and Machine Translated by Google fellow experts. • Is able to take into account the costs/benefits of measures. • Is able to take into account unforeseen circumstances. • Is able to act proactively, including issuing advice on his own initiative. • Is able to provide and communicate peer feedback receive. • attitude Be independent and impartial. • Shows integrity and reliability. • Is curious about the AH field. • Is involved in one's own work and shows a safe and healthy workplace. • Handles correct manners with respect for all interlocutors. Collaborate, Competence E and integrate connect The Occupational Hygienist works together with other experts and stakeholders in client organisations. He connects the outcomes of analysis and research with the question and with the results of other Machine Translated by Google relevant activities and comes to integrated advice • Has up-to-date Knowledge knowledge of the AH profession is aware of relevant developments in the field. • Has knowledge of the sector in which the AH'er works and knows the industry-specific processes applicable therein. • Has knowledge of communication techniques including informing, holding talks and presenting. Skills • Is able to think analytically. • Is capable of Apply AH professional knowledge and translate it into a specific practical situation. • Is able to understand different insights including safety, health and occupational hygiene insights. • Is in able to reflect. • Is able to listen to various parties inside and outside the organization and to prepare a report. • Has attitude an open attitude towards colleagues and other parties. • Is sensitive in collaborating with others. Machine Translated by Google Competency F Entrepreneurship De Occupational hygienist identifies opportunities with customers and contact persons (external or internal) and responds to them. The Occupational Hygienist acquires assignments or establishes contacts and delivers quality. He builds and maintains relationships with relevant parties and presents itself as a professional who stands next to the customer/ contact person and who thinks along. Knowledge • Has up-to-date knowledge of the AH profession is aware of relevant developments in the field. • Has knowledge to turn ideas into realizable ones plan. • Has knowledge of the sector in which the AH'er works and knows the industry-specific circumstances applicable therein and processes. Skills • Is able to identify opportunities with customers and contacts. • Is able to anticipate developments. • Is able to acquire and prepare a quote. • Is capable of self and his ideas, Machine Translated by Google adequately present advice and action plan. • Is able to create a relevant social network and to maintain. • Takes attitude initiative. • Is sensitive in the contact with clients. • Is innovative. • Shows initiative and ability convince. 3.3. Profession-specific competences Competency G Research and analysis The Occupational hygienist can conduct, assess and discuss practical and if necessary scientific level research and analysis reporting and advising. Knowledge • Has knowledge of methods relevant to the AH field and techniques for the design and conduct research. • Has up-to-date knowledge of the AH subject and is aware of relevant developments in the field. • Has knowledge of standards relevant to the AH field, including ISO and IEC standards. • Has knowledge of the sector in which the AH'er works and knows the Machine Translated by Google industry-specific processes applicable therein. • Has knowledge of processing and interpretation of statistical information. • Has knowledge of epidemiology relevant to the AH field. • Has basic knowledge of audit techniques. • Has knowledge of systems theory relevant to the AH field. Skills to think • Is capable of analytically. • Is able to draw conclusions to link to results of investigations and analysis. • Is able to make an inventory. • Is able to set up and carry out research and analysis in a structured manner. • Is capable of to report on the results of investigations and analyses. • Analytical. • Takes an unbiased attitude attitude towards research and analysis. • Is accurate. • Creative. • Is result-oriented. Competency H Information, training and instruction De Occupational hygienist can transfer knowledge and experience to all Machine Translated by Google layers of the labor force. To this end, he designs and applies methodologies. • Has Knowledge basic knowledge of psychology. • Has knowledge of relevant and suitable coaching methods/ styles and working methods. • Has knowledge of communication techniques including informing, dialogizing and presenting. • Has relevant knowledge of target group-oriented didactic methods and techniques. • Has up-to-date knowledge of the AH subject and is aware of relevant developments in the field. • Has knowledge of relevant techniques for evaluation and effect measurement. Skills • Is able to draw up a training plan and developing a training program. • Is in is a information meeting, training or instruction take care of. • Is able to choose the correct transfer form and style. • Is able to deal with groups of people. • Is capable of giving feedback. • Is capable of to communicate with Machine Translated by Google groups of people. • Is in state instruction material finished to target different audiences. • Is able to write and assess procedures and work instructions. • Is able to guide and coach new colleagues. • Is capable of a information meeting, training or instruction. • Is in is able to adequately present itself and its ideas, advice and plan of approach. • Is able to enthuse groups of people. • Imagine attitude confident and assertive. • Creative. • Persuasiveness/ stimulating. • Takes an unbiased attitude towards participants to a information meeting, training or instruction. • Stilt involved with participants to a information meeting, training or instruction. • Listening ear. • Analytical. • Is open to criticism. Machine Translated by Google Competency I Deployment Skill and The Occupational Hygienist can implement advice, carry out change processes, (new) models and methodologies implement and secure in the organization. He can also assess the effectiveness of these models and methods. Knowledge • Has knowledge of the own organization or the organization for which he is employed and can map that organization. • Has knowledge of change management at HBO-plus level. • Knowledge of instruments. • Has knowledge of techniques for effect measurement. • Has knowledge of relevant laws and regulations in the field from working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). Create skills for • Is able to support a change process or the implementation of advice. • Is in is a to manage a change process or the implementation of advice. • Is able to deal with knowledge and relevant guidelines. • Is capable of Machine Translated by Google to convince various parties of the usefulness and necessity of the change process or the implementation of advice. • Is in able to influence management and employees. • Is in is able to work together with parties involved in a change process or the implementation of advice. • Is in able to draw up, execute and evaluate a change or implementation plan. • Is able to intervene during a change process or the implementation of advice. attitude • Imagine persistent in the implementation phase. • Handles correct manners with respect for all parties involved. • Presents himself enthusiastically on. • Is reliable. Competence J Securing and monitoring De Occupational hygienist supervises the implementation and effectiveness of working methods and measures aimed at ensuring health and safety in the workplace. Machine Translated by Google Knowledge • Has knowledge of standards relevant to the AH field, including NEN, ISO and IEC standards. • Has knowledge of relevant legislation and regulations in the field of working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). • Has knowledge of his own organization or the organization for which he is employed and is able to map that organisation. • Has knowledge of quality management systems and application of critical performance indicators (KPIs). • Has basic knowledge of audit techniques. Skills • Is able to monitor the effectiveness of monitor, measure and evaluate working methods and measures. • Is in is able to guarantee and monitor activities and measures in a structured manner. • Is able to draw up, implement and evaluate a plan for assurance and monitoring. • Is able to anticipating unforeseen developments during safeguarding and monitoring. • Is able to intervene during safeguarding and monitoring. Machine Translated by Google attitude • Analytical. • Is accurate. • Is result- oriented. • Systematic. • Consistent. • Autonomous. • Diligent. • Trustworthy. • Improvement- oriented. Appendix 7: Admission of training courses The training institutes can be admitted through an assessment by a CKI designated for that purpose by the BCD foundation. An admitted course meets the requirements set out in the document 'admission of courses'. The CCvD will adjust and improve the current documents of Hobéon SKO and KIWA in 2012. Until the revised documents are published and approved by the BCD foundation, the old documents will remain in use. The documents can be found on the website of the BCD foundation. Appendix 8: Transitional arrangement As of April 1, 2012, work will be done in the new way of – the established level (see the Competency profile Occupational Hygienists) (portfolio cycle). For certification applicants who have already completed the training, this means that they can still be initially certified in the 'old' way and then enter the portfolio cycle for recertification. Certificate holders who do their recertification are recertified in the 'old' way until the year 2016 and then also enter the portfolio cycle. Certificate holders whose certificate is still valid can choose to complete their cycle and are then recertified in the 'old' way. They can also enter the portfolio cycle early. This means that they demonstrate the 'old' recertification requirements for the certification period that has already expired, after which they enter the portfolio cycle of 5 years. They receive a discount on their application for recertification related to the certification term that has not yet expired. Appendix 9: Format of the exam approval and rejection criteria report assessment Name examinee: Certification scheme: Date exam: Machine Translated by Google Place exam: Name examiner: Question 1 Document name: Article: Ask: Assessment criteria: (which (answer) words are right/wrong, questions, knowledge questions, etc.) Answer examinee: Rating: Question 2 Document name: Article: Ask: Assessment criteria: (which (answer) words are right/wrong, questions, knowledge questions, etc.) Answer examinee: Rating: Final assessment: (at least of the questions answered correctly) Machine Translated by Google Appendix 10: Specialization of the occupational hygienist (explanatory) Introduction The core expert is a profession that falls under the Occupational Hygienists, he can fill in his profession in different ways. With every certification application and recertification, the competencies based on the level as described in chapter 2 to chapter 4 of the Competency Profile Occupational Hygienists must be demonstrated. In addition, various specializations are possible, such as knowledge specialization, task specialization and sector specialization. The specializations listed below are not a mandatory part of this occupational hygienists certification scheme. The core expert is free to specialize in these various specializations. The basis of the course is described in the five core tasks in chapter 2 of the competency profile. This part examines the specializations of the core expert. T-Profiles The profession of the core expert is a skill, or an application of science and scientific argumentation. In the case of the occupational health and safety expert, it is a composite subject from different scientific fields. The core expert Occupational Hygienist is characterized by having completed and completed a head education after having completed a HBO/WO training or day training 'Labour Hygiene at HBO/WO level. In any case, the occupational hygienist has a scientific background at HBO+ level. This corresponds to (at least) a bachelor's degree in natural sciences (bachelor of science, BSc). For some courses, the minimum requirement for certification is only met after a completed academic course. This corresponds to a master's degree in natural sciences (master of science, MSc). The master's degree must comply with the state of the art. With the completion of the head training, the curriculum determines what the basic competences of the core expert are. This is the horizontal part of the so-called T-profile. As a basic attitude, an occupational hygienist is characterized by pro-activity and prevention orientation, by her/his objective, independent and independent assessment with a sense of proportions and possibilities. She/he always strives for good and actionable advice on healthy workplaces. The head training provides both basic and advanced knowledge, skills and works on an advanced attitude. This is displayed in a portfolio during the training and examined at the end of the training. The exam is competency-based. This means that the portfolio is assessed and tested for essential knowledge and skills as described in chapter 2 to chapter 4 of the Competency Profile Occupational Hygienists. After completing the master's degree, the core expert specializes in practice. A core expert can specialize in one or more directions. The specialization forms the leg of the T (specialist or super specialist) or the legs of the Pi or M (multiple Machine Translated by Google specializations) as shown below. The longer the leg, the more specialized the core expert. The initial or initial certification is mainly aimed at the generalist as a beginner. Here the basic skills are tested. The courses have an appropriate methodology for this. The content follows the requirements laid down in the working conditions legislation and detailed in the competency profile. The recertification must be more in line with the profile of the core expert. The specializations should be explained in this. For a candidate who is certified on the basis of a BSc, there is the possibility to specialize by obtaining an MSc. An example of the development of a super specialism is a PhD trajectory that is concluded with obtaining a PhD. The occupational hygienists competency profile identifies five core tasks that must in any case be performed. It is possible to work with different competences. Specializations of the Occupational Hygienist The Occupational Hygienist is mainly concerned with working conditions within an organization. The Occupational Hygienist can advise employers and employees about possible problems in the work environment, with the aim of protecting employees. The Occupational Hygienists competency profile lists the five core tasks performed by the Occupational Hygienist. Within each core task, the Occupational Hygienist has different competencies; at least one general and one profession-specific competency per core task. The crosses in the core task competency matrix (see part 4 of the Occupational Hygienists Competency Profile) constitute the first phase and possibility of personal specialization of the Occupational Hygienist. This can express, for example, that the Occupational Hygienist is mainly advising or more investigative, more or less concerned with assessment or control and, for example, also whether training, information and instructing is a main area of attention or rather safeguarding and monitoring, coupled to quality assurance. Knowledge specialization In addition, the occupational hygienist can further specialize in, for example, one or more of the following areas of expertise or aspects: Knowledge areas Aspects Research methodology Epidemiological basic knowledge Basic statistical knowledge Measurement strategy Machine Translated by Google Sampling and Analysis Skills Models for exposure and risk estimation Physical Factors Sound Vibrations Ionising radiation Non-ionizing radiation Relief climate Chemical and Toxicological biological factors basic knowledge Chemicals Biological agents Infectious Diseases Incidents with Hazardous Substances Physical load Basic anatomical/ physiological knowledge Working posture lifting and screen work Control measures Occupational hygiene strategy Ventilation/source extraction g Respiratory Protection Hearing protection Protective clothing Health Occupational diseases Biological monitoring Periodic examination Dutch legislation and regulations (Working Conditions) Laws/ Regulations European legislation/regulations Management system Management systems/Arbo health systems Audits Scientific To advise argumentation Machine Translated by Google Depending on the choice of knowledge areas and aspects, the occupational hygienist's field of work may also more or less approximate or overlap the adjacent fields of safety science, occupational and organizational science or industrial medicine. Skills specialization An individual occupational hygienist can also become more skilled and specialize in certain skills. We mainly think of monitoring/measuring, designing, judging/testing or working on a project basis. Industry/profession/process specialization Finally, the occupational hygienist can be particularly skilled in certain branches or sectors, for example the chemical industry, construction, health care, education, etc. or one or more specific professions (carpenter, dental technician, laboratory technician, musician, welder, etc.) or precisely in one or more (certain) work processes (cleaning, waste processing, chemical technology, energy transport, etc.). The specific specializations in knowledge, skills or industry/ profession/process can be expressed in the personal portfolio. Annex IIe. belonging to Article 2.16 Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Higher Safety expert Document: WSCS-HVK Index 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. The field-specific characteristics 3.1 Description scheme 3.2 Active parties 3.3 Risk analysis and risk of failure 4. It certification regulations 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision Machine Translated by Google 4.4 Validity period 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 5. The exam regulations 5.1 Objective 5.2 The exam regulations 5.3 Control panel item bank and exam versions 6. Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency and implementation of supervision 6.3 Report of findings 6.4 Complaints regarding the certificate holder 6.5 Measures 7. The subject of certification 8. Entry criteria 9. Competency Profile 10. Test method at initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Test (examination of the portfolio) 11. Test method for recertification 11.1 Key terms 11.2 Assessment method 11.3 Test (portfolio defense) 12 The certificate Machine Translated by Google 13. Validity conditions Attachment 1: Complaints procedure Appendix 2: Objection procedure Attachment 3: Requirements for exam staff Appendix 4: Requirements for the exam Appendix 5: Scheme competency-based assessment Appendix 6: Competency profile h more safety expert Appendix 7: Admission of courses Appendix 8: Transitional arrangement Appendix 9: Exam format approval and rejection criteria Appendix 10: Specialization of the higher safety expert (explanatory) 1 Introduction In this personal certification scheme for Higher Safety Experts (HVK), on the one hand, general principles and provisions are included and it is described under which conditions the issue of certificates must take place. On the other hand, the scheme establishes the standards that persons must meet in order to receive a certificate of competence. This certification scheme has been drawn up by the relevant Central Board of Experts (CCvD ARBO) of the Management Foundation for Certification of Experts (BCD Foundation). The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. Only after determining this scheme by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, the certification scheme may be applied by the certification bodies (CKIs). The expert to be certified is the Higher Safety Expert. The Higher Safety Expert contributes to a safe working environment and the sustainable employability of employees. The expert is the preferred specialist in the field of risk assessment and risk management of the safe working environment. The expert advises, among other things, in the broad field of safety and sustainability Machine Translated by Google employability in work organizations and in optimizing working conditions care. The Dutch Working Conditions Act requires certification for 'Higher Safety Experts'. A Higher Safety Expert is an expert in the field of work and organizational science in accordance with Article 2.7 of the Working Conditions Decree and he is in possession of a certificate of professional competence in work and organizational studies in accordance with Article 2.17 of the Working Conditions Regulation. More information about the professional competence profile (competence profile) of the HVK person can be found in appendix 6 of these regulations. This certification scheme is structured in accordance with the requirements of NEN-EN ISO/IEC 17024:2012. 2. Definitions Term or abbreviation Meaning HVK Senior Safety Officer. Applicant/candidate of The person who applies for a certificate to the Certification Body for the issuance of a certificate. Note Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulation by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. AH Occupational Hygienist. awb General Administrative Law Act . Rating Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the WDA&T established by the Minister of SZW, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates. When determining the WDA&T by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, the international system is used as much as possible standards. Foundation BCD Management Foundation Certification of Experts. The BCD foundation manages the statutory certification scheme for A&O, AH and VK. CCvd ARBO The Central Board of Experts ARBO is part of and facilitated by the BCD foundation, which offers interested parties in a particular sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of the foundation's documents BCD in such a way that there is a balanced and representative Machine Translated by Google representation of these parties. Certificate A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act (personal certificate). In addition, a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder Person who is in possession of a valid (statutory) certificate. Certification process All activities through which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system complies and continues to comply with the standards, as included in this certification scheme. Certification Regulations Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification scheme This document established by SZW. Certification system Set of procedures and resources required to certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. caesura The boundary between the highest test score to which a fail and the lowest test score to which a pass is awarded. CKI Certification Body, this is understood to mean a designated certification body that is authorized to issue a certificate of professional competence within the aforementioned certification scheme Competence Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills and, where relevant, as defined demonstrated in the certification personal scheme. characteristics, Check Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). EC professional qualification A statement issued by the CKI regarding the level of vocational training followed outside the Netherlands but within the EU. Attainment targets A description of the whole of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the purpose of testing examination candidates. Entry criteria that the candidate Criteria, must such meet as education in order and to bework admitted experience, to the certification process. Machine Translated by Google Exam The entirety of test assignments (test questions and/or test assignments), intended to be able to assess the individual candidate to the extent that he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are administered. Examination regulations Provisions for the conduct of exams in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Nuffic Nuffic (Foundation of the Dutch organization for international cooperation in higher education) is a Dutch non-profit service organization and center of expertise in the field of internationally oriented education, based in The Hague. Risk analysis Overview of all possible risks that the can influence the result, indicating for each risk what the consequence would be if the risk occurs, which measures can be taken to control and who can best take these measures. SZW Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. Approved training A vocational training of which the foundation BCD has been determined to deliver these candidates with the required learning outcomes. Supervision Gathering the information about the question whether an act or matter meets the requirements set for it, then forming an opinion about it and possibly intervening as a result. (Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations, The Framework Vision on Supervision). Field of competence Indication of the field of work, the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements The requirements that, within a certain field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Workfield In this certification scheme, this includes the occupational field of safety science. WDA&T Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must meet in order to be designated Machine Translated by Google be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WSCS Term used by SZW for a field-specific certification scheme that has been accepted by the Minister of SZW for use within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT ARBO Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on certification bodies charged with personal certification in the field of occupational and organizational experts, occupational hygienists and safety experts. Document: WDAT-ARBO. WSCS-AH Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Occupational Hygienists (AH). Document: WSCS-AH. WSCS-AO Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Labor and Organizational Experts (AO). Document: WSCS-AO. WSCS-HVK Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Higher Safety Expert (HVK). Document: WSCS-HVK. WOB Government Information Act . 3. The field-specific characteristics Doing work is a risky activity. In the interest of society – To ensure safety and health in and around the workplace, the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme to guarantee the professional competence of the HVK profession. 3.1. Description scheme This field-specific certification scheme Higher Safety Expert has been proposed by the BCD foundation and by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment – including any adjustments – established. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can also make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. Comments or comments about the certification scheme can be submitted to the BCD foundation. 3.2. Active parties The following are active within the framework of this certification scheme: •. The BCD foundation of which (Central) Colleges of Experts are part of to finish; Machine Translated by Google •. Designated by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment certification bodies; •. Certificate Holders. 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Performing work professionally can directly lead to health effects such as psychological and physical effects, including accidents. The expert functions in the company as an advisor. Working conditions are a matter between employer and employees and the expert is an adviser in this regard. In the absence of the consultant, the level of working conditions can be affected immediately. This means that the direct risk of failure is high. Prolonged absence of the consultant can affect the level of working conditions, which can lead to loss of production and the risk of long-term absence, (occupational) illness, disability, entry into the WIA and death. 4. The certification regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes the application procedure, the examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issuance of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out supervision, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. 4.2. Certification procedure The Higher Safety Expert submits an application for the personal certificate to a CKI in accordance with the HVK certification scheme. The CKI then provides relevant information about the state of affairs regarding the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who was not involved in the assessment of the candidate. This officer is qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality management system and the procedures that the CKI has on the basis of the Document for designation and supervision of the certification bodies for HVK (the WDA&T). 4.4. Validity period The period of validity for a personal certificate according to the HVK certification scheme is five years. 4.5. Validity conditions Machine Translated by Google Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. The conditions and the manner in which the CKI must supervise are drawn up by the BCD foundation and recorded in the Document for designation and supervision of the certification bodies for HVK. 4.6. Complaints Method of handling complaints from candidates and certificate holders The complaints procedure is included in Appendix 1. 4.7. Objection procedure The objection procedure is included in Appendix 2. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. This data is processed in accordance with the match arrival with the BCD foundation at least as often as changes occur electronically sent to the foundation for the foundation's Certificate Register, which is set up in accordance with statutory provisions. This register is made accessible via the Internet. The BCD foundation is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The BCD foundation must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other interested parties use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion, differing interpretations must be submitted to the BCD foundation, which will request advice from the CCvD ARBO before answering. 5. The Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of examinations for the purpose of the HVK personal certification scheme. The CKI manages the examiners pool. The CKI uses these examiners to conduct exams for HVK certification. The examiner focuses on the preparation, execution and assessment of exams. The requirements for the examiners are set out in Appendix 3, while Appendix 4 contains the exam requirements. 5.1. Objective Machine Translated by Google These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, implementation and assessment of exams for the HVK personal certification scheme. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the CKI and consists of a written and/or oral portfolio assessment. 5.2. The exam regulations The following matters must be included in the examination regulations of the CKI: 1. entrance requirements for taking the exam; 2. confirmation of participation and call; 3. identification of the participants; 4. admission and absence; 5. exam duration and method of examination; 6. The information provided (in advance) to the participants in an exam provided so that it is clear to those participants how the exam will be set up 7. set requirements for the examination staff (see appendix 3); 8. set requirements for the exam (see appendix 4); 9. rules of conduct for candidates while taking the exam; 10. Arrangements for an adapted exam for persons with a disability; 11. Pass and fail standards; 12. the method of determining the exam result; 13. announcement of the result; 14. retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; 15. right of inspection exam request by the candidate; 16. validity period of the exam result. The exam pool is an organizational part of the CKI. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. 5.3. Manage central item bank and exam versions If a central item bank is used, the item bank is managed under strict confidentiality by the CKI. The method of management of the item bank has been recorded in writing and has demonstrably been approved by the management of the CKI. The theory questions, including the pass mark, are stored in the item bank, which have been prepared in advance. 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to test the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder complies and continues to meet the requirements. In view of the risk analysis and the low short-term risk of damage to the company, the certification period has been set at five years. For the same reason, one interim check of all certificate holders is normally sufficient. 6.1. Cooperation with supervision Machine Translated by Google The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI and, where applicable, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The provisions necessary for this are included in the agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder including provisions with regard to more extensive checks by the CKI on a randomly selected part of the certificate holders to verify the data supplied during the interim checks. 6.2. Frequency and implementation of supervision The supervision is carried out as follows: •. In the certification period, after (approximately) 2.5 years, the CKI conducts an interim check with all certificate holders. This check is performed by the CKI and consists of an assessment of the following topics: – the extent of working in the field of at least an average of 2 half-days per week (consisting of the submission of an employer's statement by the employee or, in the case of a self- employed person, an accountant's statement, which must be completed truthfully); – demonstrable two-year participation in an ICT group (participation list); – the certificate holder submits the above documents in writing or scanned by email to the CKI. •. In addition, 1% of the depositary receipt holders receive a random check each year (if possible) more extensive control. In this more extensive check, the certificate holder is visited during an ICT meeting and his portfolio is assessed on progress and content (main points). This check is carried out by the CKI, which is responsible for the implementation. The term for submitting the required documents, consisting of the employer's statement or accountant's statement and the list of participation, must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks. 6.3. Report of findings The CKI draws up a report of the findings of the supervision. The result of the supervision is communicated to the certificate holder in writing. The certificate holder can object to measures (see section 6.5) that may be imposed as a result of the supervision. The CKI handles the objection in accordance with its objection procedure (appendix 2). 6.4. Complaints concerning the certificate holder A complaint concerning the certificate holder is submitted to the CKI. The CKI handles the complaint in accordance with its complaints procedure. 6.5. Measures Machine Translated by Google If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards of this certification scheme, this may lead to measures imposed by the CKI. Possible measures are repair activities, requesting additional/missing documents, suspension, changes to the detriment of the certificate holder or the withdrawal of the certificate. Criteria Missing documents will be requested if the employer's statement or accountant's statement and/or the participation lists are missing. Suspension of the certificate will in any case take place if the work experience is demonstrably less than two half-days per week on average and it is possible for the certificate holder to demonstrate this within six months. The certificate will in any case be withdrawn if the work experience is demonstrably less than two half- days per week on average and/or participation in the ICT group has not been demonstrated. Further requirements, suspension or withdrawal of the certificate can take place if the candidate does not meet the requirements of the Higher Safety Expert scheme or if the CKI has a valid reason for this. A certificate can also be revoked in the event of fraud, death or at the request of the certificate holder. If there is a measure, this will be made known to the certificate holder. When imposing a measure, the CKI must indicate the period within which the measure must be implemented. The CKI then checks the implementation. Suspensions and withdrawals must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. The Inspectorate SZW must also be informed of this. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. Recertification after a withdrawal is only possible after one year from the date of withdrawal. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. 7. The subject of certification This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD ARBO of the BCD foundation. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of the Higher Safety Expert. This certification scheme has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established regulation therefore replaces previous versions. The subject (scope) of this certification scheme concerns the competences A to J in the competence profile of the Higher Safety Expert, as described in chapter 3 of appendix 6 to this document. To demonstrate the competences, a portfolio is drawn up by the applicant for (re)certification. Machine Translated by Google 8. Entry Criteria Before the CKI carries out the certification audit of the legally required personal certificate Higher Safety Expert, the candidate must meet the entrance criteria described below: 1) Submitting an application for a personal certificate to a CKI; 2) Submission of a preparatory diploma; 3) Submitting an exam call for an approved vocational training course or one previously obtained diploma; 4) Submitting an employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the candidate operates as a self-employed person; 5) Submitting a completed portfolio. ad. 1 The application must meet the following requirements: •. The application must be signed by the applicant. •. The scope of the application must be clear. •. The application should be addressed to the CKI. The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirements, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 2 The applicant can submit one of the following documents for this: •. A diploma of a HBO education or higher. •. Evidence of an investigation into the applicant's work and thinking level showing HBO work and thinking level (for example prepared by an HRM agency). The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirements, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 3 The applicant must submit the following document for this: •. An exam call showing that the candidate is allowed to participate in a exam of an approved vocational training Higher Safety Specialist. Candidates who already have a vocational training diploma can make use of the transitional arrangement (appendix 8). In the event that the candidate has followed a non-admitted vocational training course, the CKI offers the possibility to conduct an investigation which shows whether or not the vocational training is equivalence. If this is the case, the diploma will be regarded as Machine Translated by Google equivalent to a course approved by the CKI. The costs of this examination are borne by the candidate. If the candidate has a diploma from a vocational training program outside the EU, it is up to the candidate to create a portfolio and go through the portfolio process. After five years, the candidate can participate in the portfolio assessment, as is the case with recertification. In the event of a positive assessment, the CKI can then proceed to initial certification. The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirement, if this is not the case If this is the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 4 The applicant can submit one of the following documents for this: •. An employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the candidate operates as a self-employed person demonstrating that the candidate has work experience as Higher Security Officer and in any case capable of two of the below listed activities in a broad sense: – Advising on/investigating health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organisations; – Advising on/investigating the optimization of working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment; – Safety risk assessment; – Safety risk management; – Testing an RI&E. •. The work experience as an occupational hygienist must not have been more than 2 years ago accrued, calculated from now on 2012; •. If the candidate operates as a self-employed person, he must: to be able to submit audit reports for the previous 2 years to the CKI. The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirements, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 5 The applicant must submit the following document for this: •. A completed portfolio, which the applicant creates at the start of the admitted vocational training; •. Candidates who already hold a vocational training diploma can make use of the transitional arrangement. The CKI checks whether all supporting documents have been submitted and sends a confirmation of receipt to the candidate. If the candidate has met the above entry criteria, the application will be processed, after which the examiner will carry out a substantive check of the supporting documents. Machine Translated by Google NB. The structure of the portfolio is not tied to a training institution or a CKI. 9. Competency Profile For the sake of readability of this certification scheme, the competency profile of the Higher Safety Expert is included as appendix 6 to this document. 10. Testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms The applicant has met the entry criteria of Chapter 8. This is followed by the substantive test, which is performed by the examiner and is described below. •. Submitting an application for a personal certificate to a CKI; •. Submission of a preparatory diploma; •. Submitting a diploma of an approved vocational training course; •. Submitting an employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the candidate operates as a self-employed person; •. Submitting a completed portfolio; ad. 1 The examiner checks whether the scope of the application falls under the regulations of the Higher Safety Expert. If this is not the case, the application will not be processed further. The examiner will inform the CKI of this. The CKI will inform the applicant of this in writing, also with regard to the further processing of the application. ad. 2 The examiner checks whether: 1) The diploma comes from a HBO education or higher, or 2) The certificate of an investigation into the applicant's working and thinking level showing HBO working and thinking level (for example drawn up by an HRM agency) comes from an agency. If one of the above points is not in order, the applicant will be given the opportunity (via the CKI) to supplement this within six weeks. If the applicant does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 3 The examiner checks whether: Machine Translated by Google 1. The diploma actually comes from an approved vocational training course. 2. In the event that the candidate has followed a non-admitted vocational training, an examination has been requested by the applicant and carried out by a CKI, which shows whether or not the vocational training is equivalence. The costs of this examination are borne by the candidate. 3. In case the candidate has a diploma from a vocational training outside the EU the candidate has created a portfolio and has completed the portfolio trajectory. After five years, the applicant can participate in the portfolio assessment, as is the case with recertification. In the event of a positive assessment, the CKI can then proceed to initial certification. If one of the above points is not in order, the applicant will be given the opportunity to supplement this within six weeks. If the applicant does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 4 The work experience of the Higher Safety Expert shows that he is capable of independently applying competencies in practice. With regard to the work experience gained, the examiner considers: •. The employer's statement or accountant's statement shows that the candidate has work experience as a Higher Safety Expert and is in any case able to perform the following activities: – Advising on/investigating health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organisations; – Advising on/investigating the optimization of working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment; – Safety risk assessment; – Safety risk management; – Assessment of an RI&E under the supervision of a certified Senior Security Expert; •. The employer's statement or auditor's statement actually comes from the employer with whom the candidate is formally employed; •. The work experience as an occupational hygienist is no more than 2 years ago accrued, calculated from the application date; •. If the candidate operates as a self-employed person, he must: to be able to submit audit reports for the previous 2 years to the CKI. If one of the above points is not in order, the candidate will be given the opportunity (via the CKI) to supplement this within six weeks. If the candidate does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 5 Machine Translated by Google The examiner looks at the contents of the portfolio. The portfolio consists of a description of at least two of the following five core tasks: 1) Further development of and in the subject Higher Safety Science; 2) Advising on/investigating health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organizations; 3) Advising on/investigating the optimization of working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment; 4) Safety risk assessment; 5) Safety expert risk management under the supervision of a certified Higher Safety Expert. For each core task, it is indicated which competencies are linked to it. Consisting of one general and one profession-specific competence. For this, reference is made to the competency profile Higher Safety Expert which can be found in appendix 6 of these regulations. For each core task, it is indicated which knowledge (from e.g. books, internet, reports, work instructions) has been used as a background for the performance of this core task. It is desirable that for a core task a description is given of the relevant information, for example a book: title, author, edition and chapter reference used for the performance of this task. During the initial training, the four core tasks are elaborated within the graduation assignment, which are discussed in an ICT group. From this, the corresponding competencies, four learning questions, four improvement and development proposals and four improvement actions are described. These points may overlap. Missing information in the portfolio is requested from the candidate via the CKI. The missing information must be provided in good time (at least two weeks before the date of the exam) so that the examiner still has sufficient time for an assessment. If the candidate does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The candidate will be informed of this in writing by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. 10.2. Test (examination of the portfolio) The test is intended to test the way in which the Senior Safety Expert works on his professional development. The test is administered orally by one examiner based on the candidate's portfolio. The candidate will be informed in advance of the duration of the exam and how the exam will be administered. The basis for the test is the core task competency matrix completed by the Higher Safety Expert. The core task-competence matrix links core tasks and competences. The Higher Safety Expert himself indicates which competencies he has or wants to develop for which core task. This provides important information for the assessment. It provides insight into which competence can be used in which core task Machine Translated by Google be tested. The core task competence matrix consists of 5 core tasks and 10 competences: Core tasks General Competencies Occupation-Specific Competences a B C d E f G huh I J Customer-oriented action Advisory skills Results-oriented Acting professionally Collaborating, connecting Entrepreneurship Research and analysis Information, training Implementation skills Safeguard and monitor Operate and integrate 1 and instruction and Further development of the field. 2 Advising on/ investigating health, working conditions and sustainable employability in labor organisations. 3 Advising on/investigating the optimization of working conditions such as rg. 4 Safety risk assessment. 5 Safety expert risk assessment. With the above core-task-competence matrix, the Higher Safety Expert composes a profile that matches his own interpretation of the profession. A distinction is made between a profile that reflects the situation at the initial certification or at the start of a new certification period (the initial matrix) and a profile that reflects the aspects in which the expert wants to develop further or has developed during the underlying certification period. (the development matrix). The initial matrix is completed at the initial certification and at the start of a new certification period. The Higher Safety Expert indicates which competencies he possesses for each core task. This should include at least one general and one profession-specific Machine Translated by Google to be competence. In the development matrix, the expert indicates which competencies he wants to develop. This can be a new competency, or an improvement of an existing competency. During the five-year certification period, the expert illustrates his development on the basis of 4 cases. For each case he names at least 3 competences within the core task to which the case relates. The development matrix contains at least twelve crosses, 4 of which are linked to the introduced cases. These development competencies are elaborated in the report into learning questions, an improvement proposal and an improvement action. So a total of 4 reports with 4 development points over 5 years. During the test, the Higher Safety Expert will defend this portfolio. The examiner draws up a report of the assessment of the portfolio. The examiner makes a recommendation based on this report. The report and the advice are sent to the CKI. 11. Testing methodology for recertification 11.1. Key terms The certificate expires five years after (re)certification and the applicant must demonstrate that it meets the (re)certification requirements. There is also a substantive test which is performed by the examiner and is described below: 1) Submitting an application for (re)certification to a CKI; 2) Submitting an employer's statement or an accountant's statement, if the Higher Safety Expert operates as a self-employed person: submitting a completed portfolio; 3) Refresher and refresher courses. The CKI checks whether the above-mentioned documents are present in accordance with Chapter 8, where applicable. 11.2. Assessment method ad. 1 The examiner checks whether the scope of the application falls under the regulations of the Higher Safety Expert. If this is not the case, the application will not be processed further. The examiner notifies the CKI of this and indicates under which regulations the application falls. The CKI will inform the applicant of this in writing, also with regard to the further processing of the application. ad. 2 The examiner checks whether: •. The employer's statement or auditor's statement showing that the The candidate has work experience as a Higher Safety Expert and is in any case able to perform the following activities: – Further development of and in the subject Higher Safety Science. Machine Translated by Google – Advising on/investigating health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organisations. – Advising on/investigating the optimization of working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment. – Safety risk assessment. – Safety risk management. – RI&E . keys •. The work experience as an Occupational Hygienist is no more than 5 years ago accrued, calculated from the application date; •. If the candidate operates as a self-employed person, he must: to be able to submit audit reports for the previous 2 years to the CKI. If one of the above points is not in order, the candidate will be given the opportunity (via the CKI) to supplement this within six weeks. If the candidate does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 3 The examiner looks at the contents of the portfolio. After five years, the portfolio consists of: A description of the following five core tasks: – Further development of and in the subject Higher Safety Science. – Advising on/investigating health, working conditions and sustainable employability in work organisations. – Advising on/investigating the optimization of working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment. – Safety risk assessment. – Safety risk management. – under the supervision of a certified Higher Safety Expert. – Keys RIE. For each core task, it is indicated which competencies are linked to it. Consisting of one general and one profession-specific competence. For this, reference is made to the Competency Profile Higher Safety Expert which can be found in appendix 6 of these regulations. For each core task, it is indicated which knowledge (from, for example, books, internet, reports, work instructions) has been used as a background for the performance of this core task. It is desirable that for a core task a description is given of the relevant information, for example a book: title, author, edition and chapter reference, which have been used for the performance of this task. At least four cases briefly elaborated in a report, which were discussed in an ICT group. From this, the corresponding competencies, four learning questions, four improvement and development proposals and four improvement actions are described. These points may overlap. Machine Translated by Google When the portfolio is complete and the applicant has met the above criteria, the Higher Safety Expert may participate in the test (assessment of the portfolio). The Higher Safety Officer will be informed of this in writing by the CKI. If the portfolio is not in order, the Higher Safety Expert will be given the opportunity to supplement it within six weeks. If the Senior Safety Officer does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The Higher Safety Officer will be informed of this in writing by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 4 Certificate holders demonstrate that they maintain their knowledge of the profession (in-service training) by, for example, writing an article within the ICT group or fulfilling a board position within the field. A cut-off point to be drawn up will be linked to this. 11.3. Test (portfolio defense) There is one examiner who conducts an oral exam based on the candidate's portfolio. The examiner draws up a report of the assessment of the portfolio. The examiner makes a recommendation based on this report. The report and the advice are sent to the CKI. If the process with one examiner does not function properly, two examiners are deployed during exams. For more information about the assessment procedure, reference is made to the examination regulations for the Competency Profile Higher Safety Expert (HVK) section 4.2. 12. The certificate The following information is (at least) stated on the certificate: •. Name of the certified person; •. Unambiguous document/certificate number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards being tested (with identifiable version); •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid; •. A statement from the CKI that the person concerned meets the requirements as established in the certification scheme for the Higher Safety Expert. Machine Translated by Google 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate (see policy on measures). •. The certificate holder will immediately inform the CKI of changes regarding his/her position, employer, home and work address; •. The certificate holder may only use the certificate (and pass) as long as it is valid; •. The certificate holder may only use the certificate (and pass) if proof of his/her professional competence in the specified field; •. The certificate holder agrees to cooperate for the execution of interim supervision (surveillance) and with spot checks in the workplace; •. The certificate holder agrees to mention his/her certification in the public register of certificate holders; •. The certificate holder will keep a record of complaints against professional competence and cooperate in the investigation of such complaints. The above must be included in the certification agreement signed by the certificate holder. Appendix 1: Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or the person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or the Machine Translated by Google person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. Machine Translated by Google The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. Appendix 2: Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non- granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure “objection procedure”, an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: – name and address of the applicant; – date; – a description of the contested decision; – the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: Machine Translated by Google •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default. •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used. •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge Machine Translated by Google •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. Appendix 3: Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff (examiners) The purpose of the examination staff (examiners) is to examine the experts during initial certification and during recertification. The examination staff consists of all examiners appointed for this purpose by the BCD foundation on the recommendation of the professional associations. The examination staff selects a representative from the group who is present during the meetings of the Central Board of Occupational Health and Safety Experts for advice. The examination staff forms the examination office. The examination bureau is independent of the professional associations and operates under the responsibility of the BCD foundation. Examination staff must meet the following general, professional and independence requirements: •. General: – Examination staff has at least the same level of education as the candidates' education to be examined – Exam staff have been instructed in administering (portfolio) exams; •. professionally; – Exam staff have at least three years of demonstrable experience in the relevant field of work; •. Exam staff demonstrably follow refresher courses or are certified for the relevant professional field. Independence; – Exam staff has no (personal) interest in the result exam ) If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination is not discredited. These measures must be recorded.); – Exam staff have demonstrable insight into the work, the context and the sector in which a Higher Safety Expert is employed. Examiners who meet the above requirements can be appointed by the CKI and used to conduct exams. The assessment of examination staff There is a meeting for examiners twice a year. The examiner is obliged to attend at least one meeting. In exceptional cases, the BCD . foundation can Machine Translated by Google grant this postponement. The meetings are organized by the BCD foundation and the designated CKI. During the meetings, the logbooks of the examiners are checked for completeness and discussed, after which any improvement and development proposals are drawn up. Appendix 4: Requirements for the exam 4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the CKI (including the examiners) are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Employees of the CKI have signed a declaration of confidentiality. 4.2. General rules when conducting exams Requirements for the exam location are: •. The space is sufficiently quiet; •. There are sanitary facilities; •. On request, an adapted place is available for a disabled person (physical or dyslexic); •. The work lighting must be sufficient (between 200 and 800 lux); •. The room is sufficiently ventilated and heated (temp. 18 to 25 degrees C); •. The space meets the legal safety regulations; The requirements to be set for the examination materials are: •. Presence of audio/visual aids. Requirements for the portfolio exam are: •. The theoretical and practical components based on the candidate's portfolio are tested by the examiner; •. The questions that are presented are drawn up by the examiner; •. The pass (assessment criteria) is determined in advance by the examiner; •. The exam is administered by the examiner in a time frame of 50 minutes; •. Assessment of the exam is done by the examiner. The examiner keeps a log containing the way of testing and the questions that are asked. The examiner also keeps track of whether the cut-off point is working; •. For subjects to be assessed, learning objectives must be drawn up and must be tested against those learning objectives with sufficient depth; The basic principle is that a portfolio exam is preferably taken in the Dutch language. Appendix 5: Competency-based assessment scheme Machine Translated by Google Appendix 6: Competency profile for higher safety science Introduction This competency profile for the Higher Safety Officer has been drawn up to record the content of the profession of Higher Safety Officer. The profession is described in core tasks and competences. In this way, the competency profile is an instrument for measuring craftsmanship. In addition, the profile is the starting point for the requirements imposed on the professional to be certified. The competency profile is part of the certification system that must result in the certificate for the Labor and Organization Expert in accordance with the Working Conditions Act. This competency profile is intended as a basis for the certification of experts and not for designing training courses. This is an important difference with a profile as used by training institutes. The description of the profession is based on the experience and craftsmanship of professionals and not on recently graduated experts. The process that the professional practitioner goes through is guiding in this description. A core task competency matrix is included in this document (chapter 4). This matrix shows which competencies are used in the execution of the sub-processes of a core task. The assessment criteria are drawn up mainly on the basis of this core task competency matrix. These criteria are determined by the Central Board of Experts (CCvD). Partly on the basis of the extent to which these criteria are met, the certification committee and the certifying institution(s) may or may not issue or extend a personal certificate. In addition, training institutions can use the competency profile and the assessment criteria as a starting point for optimally linking their training to the certification system of the Stichting Beheer Certificatie Deskundigen (BCD Foundation). Where the masculine reference is used in this document, the feminine form may also be read where appropriate. Classification of the competency profile This document consists of four chapters. Chapter 1 describes the profession. The development of this Competency Profile is also substantiated and reference is made to source material. Chapter 2 describes the core tasks that the healthcare practitioner performs. Chapter 3 describes the general and profession-specific competences. Chapter 4 provides insight into which competencies are used in the performance of a core task. 1. General information 1.1. Image of the industry and the profession The profession 'Higher Safety Officer' is one of four legally recognized core experts in the field of working conditions in the Netherlands. Together with the company doctor and the Occupational Hygienist, the Higher Safety Expert is a general advisor in the field Machine Translated by Google in the broad field of safety and sustainable employability in work organisations. He also advises on optimizing working conditions care. The Higher Safety Expert ensures a safe working environment that leads to the prevention of absenteeism due to illness, unsafe situations and accidents and possible damage to health. He is an outstanding specialist in the field of risk assessment and risk management of the safe working environment. In addition, the Higher Safety Expert contributes to a safe working environment and the sustainable employability of employees. The Dutch Working Conditions Act requires certification for 'Higher Safety Expert'. A Higher Safety Expert is an expert in the field of risk assessment and risk management of the safe working environment in accordance with Article 2.7 of the Working Conditions Decree and is in possession of a certificate of professional competence Higher Safety Expert. The Higher Safety Expert is constantly developing in his profession and skills, works together, connects and integrates knowledge of causes, consequences and solutions and practices his profession in an enterprising manner. The Higher Safety Expert has the core tasks 1 to 3 and professional competences A to J in common with the other certified non-medical occupational health and safety experts (Work and Organization Expert, Occupational Hygienist). The Higher Safety Expert differs from other certified non-medical occupational health and safety experts (Labour and organizational expert and occupational hygienist) in core tasks 4 and 5 and in a specialization in researching and/or advising in the field of a safe working environment. 2. Core tasks 2.1. Introduction The profession is described in five core tasks that together comprise the entire profession. Hereby: •. core task 1 is a general task, aimed at professional and professional development; •. are core tasks 2 and 3 specific tasks in the field of working conditions in general; •. core tasks 4 and 5 are specific to the Senior Safety Officer. Professionals can specialize in this to a greater or lesser extent. 2.2. Description of the core tasks Core task 1 Further development of and in the Higher Safety Expert (HVK) profession Process/sub-tasks 1. New knowledge gathering, or knowledge Machine Translated by Google keeping up with knowledge, task and/ or sector specialization 2. Developing new theories 3. Methods and instruments develop, apply and improve 4. Disseminate new knowledge, methods and tools (teaching, presenting, publishing) Role/Responsibility Expert, student, researcher, and pioneer. Complexity High, due to the broad nature of the field. Those involved Scientists and colleagues. Resources Scientific research, peer assessment, courses, conferences, symposia, etc. Quality Quality investment in and choice of specializations. Promoting new developments. Incident sensitivity of the HVK within the organization where he works. Result Improving the quality of the profession and its implementation. Choices and dilemmas • Time or priority • Certainty or innovation Core task 2 Advising on (and investigating) health, working conditions and sustainable employability of employees in Machine Translated by Google labor organizations Process/sub-tasks 1. Vision, Programs and develop policy 2. Investigate, analyze and advise on that basis and apply programs 3. Supervise change/implementation processes and evaluate and revise programs 4. Management, supervisors, employees training Role/ responsibility Expert, process supervisor, and trainer and advisor. Complexity Coordination of different parties for the performance of its duties. Knowledge of advice and research within the field of the HVK employee. Those involved Board, management, HR, supervisors, employees and other experts. Resources • Recognized risk assessment methods and control resources • Project management and process control resources & techniques • Effective communication methods Quality Empathic ability. Process monitoring during the implementation of advice and investigations Advice must be issued in a timely manner and must be substantiated and practically usable. Result Labor organizations that Machine Translated by Google pursuing a conscious and active policy aimed at health, working conditions and sustainable employability of their employees, based on adequate knowledge and control methods. Choices and dilemmas • Short-term investments or long-term returns • Abstract or concrete • Organizational policy or individual interest • Small-scale or large-scale • Independent or linking up with a larger whole • Silent force or demonstrative • Frontrunner or follower Core task 3 Advising on/investigating the optimization of working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment Process/sub-tasks 1. Reviewing, updating and updating policy on health and safety at work supplement. 2. Occupational risks in map. 3. Carry out RI&E, assess, test, advise. 4. Coaching prevention officer. Role/Responsibility Expert, researcher, and coach and advisor. Complexity Average. Will depend on the nature of the organization and the work/work process ssen. Those involved board, management, Machine Translated by Google HR, Facilities, prevention officer, Works Council and colleagues. Resources RI&E instruments and questionnaires. Quality Advice must be timely be released and must be substantiated and practical. Process monitoring in the implementation of advice. Result Labor organizations with a coherent working conditions policy, and a package of measures to prevent occupational risks control and maintain a healthy and safe work situation realize or maintain. Choices and dilemmas • Must or want • Know or do Core task 4 Safety risk assessment. Process/subtasks 1. Identifying security risks . 2. Research, analyze and make recommendations. 3. Initiate improvement/ change trajectories, perform and coach. Role/Responsibility Expert, researcher, process and supervisor. Complexity Sufficient background to know, recognize and interpret safety risks within the organization where the Senior Safety Expert is employed. Machine Translated by Google Being able to apply risk methods and risk models. Coordination with subject matter experts. Those involved Board, management, HR, supervisors, employees, Works Council, colleague experts. Tools Document research, observations, measurements, conversations. Quality Interpreting it correctly of the information available at that time regarding the security risks. Asking the asking the right questions and asking further questions under time pressure determines the quality of the content. Speed rating. Validity assessment method. Result Work organizations with adequate (complete, reliable and up- to-date) knowledge and insight into safety risks in the workplace. Choices and dilemmas Superficial or in-depth assessment. Whether or not to engage more specialized experts. Provide much or little information. Knowledge of versus fear of risk. Core task 5 Safety risk management Machine Translated by Google Process/sub-tasks 1. Assess safety management systems. 2. Select appropriate safety management system. 3. Apply safety management system. 4. Effect measurements, evaluation and improve. Role/Responsibility Expert, process and supervisor, researcher.. Complexity Interpreting risk management and using risk assessment methods and models. Sufficient background for safety management system men and to know, recognize and interpret safety models. Those involved Board, management, HR, supervisors, employees, Works Council, colleague experts, prevention employees. Resources Health and Safety Catalogues, Health and Safety Information Sheets, NEN standards. Several publications and resources, Occupational hygiene strategy (source approach). Quality Speed rating. Validity assessment method. Accuracy and completeness of data. Result Work organizations with adequate (complete, reliable and up- to-date) control of safety risks in the workplace. Machine Translated by Google Choices and dilemmas Safety versus environmental considerations. Instead of Barrier choice in occupational hygiene strategy (near source and/or near recipient). Much or little risk knowledge (prevention principle – risk assessment). Plug-in level: Individual – group or organizational approach. Material, machine, method or human level. Level of engagement: Function/function principle/ method of application. 3. Competencies 3.1. Introduction In the profession of Higher Safety Officer, a distinction can be made between general competences – which can be found in many professions – and profession-specific competences. The general competences are described in section 3.1 and the profession-specific competences are described in section 3.2. The designations used are the same as those in the core task competency matrices in chapter 4. 3.2. General competences Competency A Customer-oriented approach The Higher Safety expert can maintain adequate contact with the external or internal customer (officers), so that the activities according to the customer's wishes are carried out. • Has Knowledge knowledge of the own organization or the Machine Translated by Google organization for which he is employed and can map that organization. • Has up- to-date knowledge of the HVK profession (maximum one year old) and knows the competency profile. • Has knowledge of relevant laws and regulations in the field from working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). • Has knowledge of the force field in which the HVK'er acts and knows the interests of various parties within and outside the organization. Skills to act in an • Is capable of organization sensitive way and can organization to acquire sufficient support for the policy to be implemented. • Is Able to communicate at all levels within the organization. Both orally and in writing and both internally and with external parties. • Is able to adequately relate to the interests of various parties within and outside the organization, including management, employees and fellow experts. • Is capable of a project plan to Machine Translated by Google including project planning and budget. • Is able to acquire and prepare a quote. • Is able to listen to various parties inside and outside the organization and to prepare a report. attitude • Is able to find a balance between the interests of different parties. • Handles correct manners with respect for all parties involved. • Is tenacious in the monitoring the advice issued. • Is involved in one's own work and shows a safe and healthy workplace. Competence B Advisory skills The Higher Safety Expert can report adequately orally and in writing about the activities, so that the client and/or his colleagues are informed effectively and can build on this. • Has knowledge of Knowledge intervention techniques Machine Translated by Google including persuasion and training. • Has knowledge from communication techniques including informing, dialogizing and presenting. • Has knowledge of project management, including project design and evaluation. Skills • Is able to persuasion, motivation, communication and to create support, taking into account the different interests and responsibilities of different parties. • Is able to give an independent judgment based on his own discipline and is impartial in his actions. • Is able to work with other disciplines, including company doctor and safety expert. • Is able to manage complex projects; projects with a longer lead time in which several parties are involved. • Is capable of intervention techniques including persuasion and training. • Is capable of apply and apply HVK professional knowledge (as described in this competency profile) Machine Translated by Google translate into a advisory process. attitude • Imagine independent and impartial. • Takes a collegial attitude and has an open attitude towards colleagues. • Takes a critical stance. • Is realistic when writing and issuing the advice, for example by taking into account the financial feasibility of the advice. • Is persistent in monitoring (the implementation of) the advice issued. Competency C Results-oriented functioning The Higher Safety expert can communicate adequately with all those involved in the communicate the work process, so that this benefits the course and the outcome of the work and leads to the desired result. • Has basic knowledge of Knowledge psychology and behavioral sciences. • Has basic knowledge of safety and organizational science (business administration). • Has knowledge of project management, including project design and Machine Translated by Google -Evaluation. Skills • Is able to formulate measurable, achievable and clear objectives. • Is able to draw up, implement and evaluate a project plan. • Is capable of prioritize and meet deadlines. • When drawing up a project plan, take into account unforeseen circumstances. • Is able to identify relevant parties in a specific project or file and to cooperate with it. attitude • Imagine solution-oriented with sufficient attention for the intended result. • Is tenacious in the (interim) evaluation of activities with an eye to the intended result. Competency D Professional conduct The Higher Safety expert acts in accordance with the code of conduct and is continuously informed of relevant developments in the field. The expert is able on Machine Translated by Google apply (new) knowledge to higher professional education plus/scientific level and convert this into applicable models and instruments. In addition he can interpret and assess relevant instruments, methodologies, models and data at HBO-plus/ scientific level. • Has up-to- date knowledge of the Knowledge HVK profession (maximum one year old) and can name recent developments in the field. • Has knowledge of the HVK competency profile and the HVK code of conduct. • Has knowledge of relevant laws and regulations in the field from working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). • Has knowledge of the sites and information sources of information about the HVK field, including trade journals, legislation and statistics. Skills • Is capable of making a draw up and implement a personal training plan feed. • Is able to apply HVK expertise and translate it into a specific Machine Translated by Google practical situation. • Is able to take into account the interests of various parties inside and outside the organization, including management, employees and fellow experts. • Is able to take unforeseen circumstances into account. • Is able to act proactively, including issuing advice on his own initiative. • Is able to provide and communicate peer feedback receive. • attitude Be independent and impartial. • Shows integrity and reliability. • Is curious about the HVK field. • Is involved in his own work and shows that he finds a safe and healthy workplace important. • Handles correct manners with respect for all interlocutors. Competence E Collaborate, connect and Integrating The Higher Safety expert works together with other experts and stakeholders in customer organizations. He Machine Translated by Google connects the results of analysis and research with the question and with results of other relevant activities and provides integrated advice • Has up-to-date Knowledge knowledge of the HVK profession (maximum one year old) and can identify developments in the field. • Has knowledge of the sector in which the HVK employee works and knows the industry-specific processes applicable therein. • Has knowledge of communication techniques including informing, dialogizing and presenting. Skills • Is able to think analytically. • Is able to apply HVK professional knowledge adapt and translate it into a specific practical situation. • Is able to understand different insights including safety, health and occupational hygiene insights. • Is able to reflect. • Is able to listen to different parties inside and outside the organization and prepare a report. • Has an open attitude Machine Translated by Google attitude towards colleagues and other parties. • Is sensitive in the collaboration with others. Competence F Entrepreneurship The Higher Safety Officer identifies opportunities with customers and contact persons (external or internal) and responds to them. The Higher Safety Expert acquires assignments and delivers quality. He builds and maintains relationships with relevant parties and presents himself as an expert professional. • Has up-to-date knowledge of the HVK profession (maximum one year old) and can name recent developments in the field. • Has basic knowledge of marketing. • Has industry knowledge Knowledge in which the HVK employee works and knows the industry-specific processes. Skills • Is able to identify opportunities with customers and contacts. • Is able to anticipate developments. • Is able to acquire and prepare a quote. • Is capable of self Machine Translated by Google and adequately present his ideas, advice and plan of action. • Is able to provide a relevant social create and maintain a network. • Imagine attitude take initiative. • Is sensitive in the contact with clients. • Is innovative. • Shows guts. • Shows flair. 3.3. Profession-specific competences Competency G Research and analysis The Higher Safety expert can conduct, assess and discuss research and analysis practically and if necessary at a scientific level reporting and advising. Knowledge • Has prior knowledge relevant methods and techniques for the design and conduct research. • Has up-to-date knowledge of the HVK profession (maximum one year old) and can name recent developments in the field. • Has knowledge of standards relevant to the HVK field, including ISO and IEC standards. • Has Machine Translated by Google knowledge of the sector in which the HVK employee works and knows the industry-specific processes applicable therein. • Has knowledge of processing and interpretation of statistical information. • Has knowledge of epidemiology relevant to the HVK field. • Has basic knowledge of audit techniques. • Has knowledge of systems theory relevant to the HVK field. Skills to think • Is capable of analytically. • Is able to draw conclusions to connect to results of investigations and analyses. • Inventorize. • Is in able to set up and carry out research and analysis in a structured manner. • Is capable of to report on results of investigations and analysis. • attitude Analytical. • Takes an unbiased attitude towards research and analysis. • Is accurate. • Creative. • Is result-oriented. Competence H Information, training and instruction De Hogere Machine Translated by Google Safety expert can transfer knowledge and experience to all layers of the workforce. To this end, he designs and applies methodologies. • Has basic knowledge of Knowledge psychology. • Has knowledge of relevant and suitable coaching methods/ styles and working methods. • Has knowledge of communication techniques including informing, dialogizing and presenting. • Has relevant knowledge of target group- oriented didactic methods and techniques. • Has up-to-date knowledge of the HVK profession (maximum one year old) and can name recent developments in the field. • Has knowledge of relevant techniques for evaluation and effect measurement. Prepare skills • Is capable of a training plan and develop a training program. • Is in is a information meeting, training or instruction. • Is able to choose the correct transfer form and style. • Is able to deal with Machine Translated by Google groups of people. • Is able to give feedback. • Is capable of to communicate with groups of people. • Is capable of instruction material finished to vote for different target audiences. • Is able to follow procedures and work instructions write and assess. • Is in able to guide and coach new colleagues. • Is capable of a information meeting, training or instruction to evaluate. • Is able to adequately present himself and his ideas, advice and plan of approach. • Is able to enthuse groups of people. attitude • Is self- confident and assertive. • Creative. • Persuasiveness/ stimulating. • Takes an unbiased attitude towards participants to a information meeting, training or instruction. • Is involved with participants to a information meeting, training or instruction. • Machine Translated by Google Listening ear. • Analytical. • Be open to criticism. Competence I Implementation skills and The Higher Safety Expert can implement advice, carry out change processes, introduce (new) models and methodologies and secure them in the organization. He can also assess the effectiveness of these models and methods. Knowledge • Has knowledge of the own organization or the organization for which he is employed and can map that organization. • Has knowledge of change management at HBO- plus level. • Knowledge of instruments. • Has knowledge of effect measurement techniques. • Has knowledge of relevant laws and regulations in the field from working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). Skills • Is able to support to create for a change process or the implementation of advice. • Is in is a to manage a change process or the implementation of advice. Machine Translated by Google • Is able to deal with guidelines. • Is capable of to convince various parties of the usefulness and necessity of the change process or the implementation of advice. • Is in able to influence management and employees. • Is in is able to work together with parties involved in a change process or the implementation of advice. • Is in able to draw up, execute and evaluate a change or implementation plan. • Is able to intervene during a change process or the implementation of advice. attitude • Imagine persistent in the implementation phase. • Handles correct manners with respect for all parties involved. • Takes an enthusiastic attitude. • Is reliable. Competency J Securing and monitoring De Higher Safety expert monitors the implementation and effectiveness of working methods and measures that lead to Machine Translated by Google aim to ensure health and safety in the workplace. Knowledge • Has knowledge of standards relevant to the HVK field, including ISO and IEC standards. • Has knowledge of relevant legislation and regulations in the field of working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). • Has knowledge of his own organization or the organization for which he is employed and is able to map that organisation. • Has knowledge of quality management systems and application of critical performance indicators (KPIs). • Knowledge of audit techniques. • Has basic knowledge of audit techniques. Skills • Is able to monitor, measure and evaluate working methods and measures. • Is in is able to guarantee and monitor activities and measures in a structured manner. • Is in is able to draw up, implement and evaluate a plan for assurance and monitoring. • Is able to anticipating unforeseen Machine Translated by Google developments during safeguarding and monitoring. • Is able to intervene during safeguarding and monitoring. attitude • Analytical. • Is accurate. • Is result-oriented. • Systematic. • Consistent. • Autonomous. • Procedural. • Diligent. • Trustworthy. • Improvement-oriented. Appendix 7: Admission of training courses The training institutes can be admitted through an assessment by a CKI designated for that purpose by the BCD foundation. An admitted course meets the requirements set out in the document 'admission of courses'. The CCvD ARBO will adjust and improve the current documents of Hobéon SKO and KIWA in 2012. Until the revised documents are published and approved by the BCD foundation, the old documents will remain in use. The documents can be found on the website of the BCD foundation. Appendix 8: Transitional arrangement As of 1 April 2012, the new way (portfolio cycle) will be used. For certification applicants who have already completed the training, this means that they can still be initially certified in the 'old' way and then enter the portfolio cycle for recertification. Certificate holders who do their recertification are recertified in the 'old' way until the year 2016 and then also enter the portfolio cycle. Certificate holders whose certificate is still valid can choose to complete their cycle and are then recertified in the 'old' way. They can also enter the portfolio cycle early. This means that they demonstrate the 'old' recertification requirements for the certification period that has already expired, after which they enter the portfolio cycle of 5 years. They receive a discount on their application for recertification related to the certification term that has not yet expired. Appendix 9: Exam format approval and rejection criteria report assessment Name examinee: Machine Translated by Google Certification scheme: Date exam: Place exam: Name examiner: Question 1 Document name: Article: Ask: Assessment criteria: (which (answer) words are right/wrong, questions, knowledge questions, etc.) Answer examinee: Rating: Question 2 Document name: Article: Ask: Assessment criteria: (which (answer) words are right/wrong, questions, knowledge questions, etc.) Answer examinee: Machine Translated by Google Rating: Final assessment: (at least of the questions answered correctly) Appendix 10: Specialization of the higher safety expert (explanatory) Introduction The core expert is a subject that falls under the Higher Safety Expert, he can fill in his field in different ways. With every certification application and recertification, the competences on the basis of the level as described in chapters 2 to 4 of the Competency Profile Higher Safety Expert must be demonstrated. In addition, various specializations are possible, such as knowledge specialization, task specialization and sector specialization. The specializations listed below are not a compulsory part of the Higher Safety Expert Regulations. The core expert is free to specialize in these various specializations. The basis of the course is described in the five core tasks in chapter 2 of the Competency Profile Higher Safety Expert. This part examines the specializations of the core expert. T-profiles The profession of the core expert is a skill, or an application of science and scientific argumentation. In the case of the Higher Safety Officer, it is a composite subject from different scientific fields. The feature of Higher Safety Experts is that he has completed and completed a master's degree after having completed a higher professional education or university education. The master's degree must comply with the state of the art. This means that the student is in any case working in the practice of the subject. With the completion of the head training, the curriculum determines what the basic competences of the core expert are. This is the horizontal part of the so-called T-profile. The Higher Safety Expert is often originally a technician or natural scientist. At least a HBO education in technology or natural sciences, or equivalent work and thinking level are entry criteria for the programme. The head training provides both basic and advanced knowledge, skills and works on an advanced attitude. This is displayed in a portfolio during the training and examined at the end of the training. The exam is competency-based. This means that the portfolio is assessed and tested for essential knowledge and skills as described in chapters 2 to 4 of the Competency Profile for Higher Safety Experts. After completing the master's degree, the core expert specializes in practice. A core expert can specialize in one or more directions. The specialization forms the leg of the T (specialist or super specialist) or the legs of the Pi or M (multiple specializations) as shown below. The longer the leg, the more specialized the core expert. Machine Translated by Google The initial or initial certification is mainly aimed at the generalist as a beginner. Here the basic skills are tested. The courses have an appropriate methodology for this. The content follows the requirements laid down in the working conditions legislation and detailed in the competency profile. The recertification must meet the profile of the core expert more closely. The specializations should be explained in this. The competency profile identifies five core tasks that must in any case be performed. It is possible to work with different competences. Specialization of the Higher Safety Expert The Higher Safety Expert is mainly concerned with investigating and/or advising in the field of a safe working environment. The Higher Safety Expert is able to create and/or maintain a safe working environment in organisations. The competency profile lists the five core tasks that the Senior Safety Officer performs. Within each core task, the Higher Safety Expert has different competencies; at least one general and one profession-specific competency per core task. The crosses in the core task competency matrix (see part 4 of the Competency Profile Higher Safety Officer ), form the first phase and possibility of personal specialization of the Higher Safety Officer. This can express, for example, that the Higher Safety Expert is mainly advising or more investigative. Knowledge specialization In addition, the Higher Safety Expert can further specialize in one or more of the following areas or aspects of knowledge: Knowledge areas Aspects Legislation Working Conditions Act Environmental legislation Related legislation Policy Working conditions policy Safety policy Employability Policy Integrated security Social policy Occupational health and safety management Occupational health and safety systems Safety management systems Health & Safety Catalog Risk analysis ARIE Safety topics Road safety consumer safety Food Safety Machine Translated by Google patient safety Transport safety Process safety Explosion safety and ATEX Biological Safety Radiation Safety Electrical Safety Machine safety Social safety Company emergency response Security studies Hazard identification Analysis techniques human failure QRA, effect – and damage modeling Accident analysis Purchase work equipment Design and maintenance scientific Advising arguments Task specialization Within the knowledge areas of the HVK profession, the Higher Safety Expert can also specialize in certain task areas. •. Research •. Scientific argumentation •. Policy analysis and advice •. Education •. Education and training •. Project management. This task specialization is related to a further specialization in certain skills within the field of the Higher Safety Officer. Industry specialization Finally, the higher safety expert can become particularly skilled in certain branches or sectors, such as education, care, government, industry, construction, chemistry, etc. The specific specialization in knowledge, task and/or industry can be expressed by the core expert in his personal portfolio. Machine Translated by Google Annex II. belonging to Article 2.17 Field-specific certification scheme for the occupational health and safety certificate Organizational expert Document: WSCS-AO Index 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. The field-specific characteristics 3.1 Description scheme 3.2 Active parties 3.3 Risk analysis and risk of failure Risk analysis 4. It certification regulations 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Validity period 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 5. The exam regulations 5.1 Objective 5.2 The exam regulations 5.3 Control panel item bank and exam versions 6. Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency and Machine Translated by Google implementation of supervision 6.3 Report of findings 6.4 Complaints regarding the certificate holder 6.5 Measures 7. The subject of certification 8. Entry criteria 9. Competency Profile 10. Test method at initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Test (portfolio defense) 11. Testing methodology for recertification 11.1 Key terms 11.2 Assessment method 11.3 Test (portfolio defense) 12. The certificate 13. Validity conditions Attachment 1: Complaints procedure Appendix 2: Objection procedure Attachment 3: Requirements for exam staff Appendix 4: Requirements for the exam Appendix 5: Scheme competency-based assessment Appendix 6: Competency profile a&o Appendix 7: Admission of courses Appendix 8: Transitional arrangement Appendix 9: Exam format approval and rejection criteria Appendix 10: Specialization of the Machine Translated by Google a&o (explanatory) 1 Introduction On the one hand, this personal certification scheme for Labor and Organizational Experts (A&O) includes general principles and provisions and describes the conditions under which certificates must be issued. On the other hand, the scheme establishes the standards that persons must meet in order to receive a certificate of competence. This certification scheme has been drawn up by the relevant Central Board of Experts (CCvD ARBO) of the Management Foundation for Certification of Experts (BCD Foundation). The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. Only after adoption of this regulation by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, the certification regulation may be applied by the certification bodies (CKIs). The expert to be certified is the Labor and Organization Expert. The Labor and Organization Expert deals with people in a labor organization (or organization where work takes place). The expert is the designated specialist in the field of Psycho-Social Workload and the quality of work and organisation. The expert advises on matters such as work pressure, stress, health management, undesirable behavior and performance problems. The expert has a change management perspective. The Dutch Working Conditions Act requires certification for 'Labour and Organizational Experts'. An occupational and organizational expert is an expert in the field of occupational and organizational science in accordance with Article 2.7 of the Working Conditions Decree and he is in possession of a certificate of professional competence in occupational and organizational studies in accordance with Article 2.17 of the Working Conditions Regulation. More information about the professional competence profile (competence profile) of the A&O employee can be found in appendix 6 of this regulation. This certification scheme is structured in accordance with the requirements of NEN-EN ISO/IEC 17024:2012. 2. Definitions Term or Abbreviation Meaning A&O Labor and Organization expert. Applicant/candidate of The person who applies for a certificate to the Certification Body. Machine Translated by Google Note Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. AH Occupational Hygienist. awb General Administrative Law Act . Rating Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of settings based on the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment adopted DA&T, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the body is competent to issue legally required certificates. When determining the WDA&T by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is aligned as much as possible with international systems and standards. BCD Management Foundation Foundation Certification of Experts. The BCD foundation manages the statutory certification scheme for A&O, AH and VK. CCvd ARBO The Central Board of Health and Safety Experts is part of and facilitated by the BCD foundation, which enables interested parties in a particular sector or industry to offers the possibility to Machine Translated by Google participation in the preparation and maintenance of the documents of the BCD foundation in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Certificate A certificate in the meaning of article 20 Working Conditions Act (personal certificate). In addition, a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder Person who is in possession of a valid (statutory) certificate. Certification process All activities via that assesses a CKI and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards as included in this certification scheme. Certification regulations Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification scheme This document issued by SZW has been established. Certification system Set of procedures and resources needed to complete the certification process Machine Translated by Google to be carried out per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. caesura The boundary between the highest test score at which a fail and the lowest test score that is passed promised. CKI Certification Institution, meaning a designated certifying institution authorized to issue a certificate professional competence within the mentioned certification scheme Competence Demonstrated ability to share knowledge and to add skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal characteristics, as defined in the certification scheme. Check Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). EC professional qualification A statement issued by the CKI regarding the level of vocational training followed outside the Netherlands but Machine Translated by Google has been followed within the EU. Attainment targets A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria Criteria, such as education and work experience, to which the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. Exam The whole of test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to to be able to assess an individual candidate to the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams become declined. Examination regulations Provisions for the execution of exams in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Nuffic Nuffic (Foundation of the Dutch organization for international cooperation in higher education) is a Dutch non-profit service providers Machine Translated by Google organization and center of expertise on the territory of internationally oriented education that is located in The Hague. Risk analysis Overview of all possible risks that could influence the result in which each risk is indicated what the consequence would be if the risk occurs, which measures can be taken for control and who can best take these measures. SZW Ministry of Social Affairs Business and Employment. Approved training A vocational training that has been determined by the BCD foundation to deliver candidates with the requirement attainment targets. Supervision Gathering the information about the question whether an act or thing complies with the requirements, the subsequent formation of a judgment and, if necessary, intervene as a result. (Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations, The Framework Vision on Supervision). Field of competence Indication of the field of work, the position, or a set of tasks Machine Translated by Google with regard to certain professional competence requirements. Competency requirements The requirements that, within a specific field of work or a specific professional group, are posed to persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Workfield In this certification scheme, including the professional field of work and organizational science. WDA&T Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. In there are the standards to which CKIs must comply to be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WSCS Term used by SZW for a field-specific certification scheme that has been accepted by the Minister of SZW for use within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT ARBO Field specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) at certification body and charged with Machine Translated by Google personal certification in the field of employment and organization experts, occupational hygienists and safety experts. Document: WDAT-ARBO. WSCS-AH Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate for Occupational Hygienists (AH). Document: WSCS- AH. WSCS-AO Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Labor and Organizational Experts (AO). Document: WSCS-AO. WSCS-HVK Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Higher Safety Expert (HVK). Document: WSCS-HVK. WOB Public Access Act Management . 3. The field-specific characteristics Doing work is a risky activity. In the interest of society – To ensure safety and health in and around the workplace, the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for assuring the professional competence of the A&O profession. 3.1. Description scheme This field-specific certification scheme for Labor and Organizational Experts has been proposed by the BCD foundation and adopted by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment, including any adjustments. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can also make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. Comments or comments about the certification scheme can be submitted to the BCD foundation. Machine Translated by Google 3.2. Active parties The following are active within the framework of this certification scheme: •. The BCD foundation, of which (Central) Boards of Experts are part to finish. •. Designated by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment certification bodies. •. Certificate Holders. 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Risk analysis Risks in the professional field are too high a psychological and physical burden, resulting in damage to health. Incorrect psychological load resulting in damage to production or means of production or loss of production. Incorrect organization of the work, resulting in safety risks or damage to production (resources) or loss of production. Undesirable behavior resulting in pycnic overload, social exclusion and production damage, etc. Risks for the company are the risk of incorrect advice by the A&O expert or liability for damage. Risk of failure The risks for the advisor are that as a consultant you have to choose between the quality of the advice and the chance of its implementation within the employer's organization. An unpleasant or desirable advice where the client himself is part of the problem, but also the privacy data that are anonymous remain with the client. 4. The certification regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes the application procedure, the examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issuance of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out supervision, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. 4.2. Certification procedure The labor & organization expert submits an application for the personal certificate to a CKI in accordance with the A&O certification scheme. The CKI then provides relevant information about the state of affairs regarding the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision Machine Translated by Google The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who was not involved in the assessment of the candidate. This officer is qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality management system and the procedures that the CKI has on the basis of the Document for designation and supervision of the certification bodies for A&O (the WDA&T). 4.4. Validity period The period of validity for a personal certificate according to the certification scheme for the certification of A&O is five years. 4.5. Validity conditions Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. The conditions and the manner in which the CKI must supervise are drawn up by the BCD foundation and recorded in the Document for designation and supervision of the certification bodies for A&O. 4.6. Complaints Handling of complaints from candidates and certificate holders. The complaints procedure is included in Appendix 1. 4.7. Objection procedure The objection procedure is included in Appendix 2. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with the BCD foundation, this data is sent electronically to the foundation at least as often as changes occur for the purpose of the foundation's Certificate Register, which is set up in accordance with statutory provisions. This register is made accessible via the Internet. The BCD foundation is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The BCD foundation must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other interested parties use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion, differing interpretations must be submitted to the BCD foundation, which will request advice from the CCvD ARBO before answering. 5. The Exam Regulations Machine Translated by Google These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of examinations for the purpose of the personal certification scheme A&O. The CKI manages the examiner pool. The CKI uses these examiners to conduct exams for A&O certification. The examiner focuses on the preparation, execution and assessment of exams. The requirements for the examiners are set out in Appendix 3, while Appendix 4 contains the exam requirements. 5.1. Objective These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the A&O personal certification scheme. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the CKI and consists of a written and/or oral portfolio assessment. 5.2. The exam regulations The following matters must be included in the examination regulations of the CKI: 1) entrance requirements for taking the exam; 2) confirmation of participation and call; 3) identification of the participants; 4) admission and absence; 5) exam duration and method of examination; 6) The information provided (in advance) to the participants in an exam provided so that it is clear to those participants how the exam will be set up 7) set requirements for the examination staff (see appendix 3); 8) set requirements for the exam (see appendix 4); 9) rules of conduct for candidates while taking the exam; 10) arrangement adapted exam for persons with disabilities; 11) pass and fail standards; 12) the method of determining the exam result; 13) announcement of the result; 14) retention period of the examination documents such as answers and assessment forms; 15) right of inspection exam request by the candidate; 16) validity period of the exam result. The exam pool is an organizational part of the CKI. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. 5.3. Manage central item bank and exam versions If a central item bank is used, the item bank is managed under strict confidentiality by the CKI. The method of management of the item bank has been recorded in writing and has demonstrably been approved by the management of the CKI. The theory questions, including the pass mark, are stored in the item bank, which have been prepared in advance. Machine Translated by Google 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to test the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder complies and continues to meet the requirements. In view of the risk analysis and the low short-term risk of damage to the company, the certification period has been set at five years. For the same reason, one interim check of all certificate holders is normally sufficient. 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI and, where applicable, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder includes the necessary provisions for this, including provisions with regard to more extensive checks by the CKI on a randomly selected part of the certificate holders to verify the data supplied during the interim checks. 6.2. Frequency and implementation of supervision The supervision is carried out as follows: •. In the certification period, after (approximately) 2.5 years, the CKI conducts an interim check with all certificate holders. This check is performed by the CKI and consists of an assessment of the following topics: – the extent of working in the field of at least an average of 2 half-days per week (consisting of the submission of an employer's statement by the employee or, in the case of a self- employed person, an accountant's statement, which must be completed truthfully); – demonstrable two-year participation in an ICT group (participation list); – the certificate holder submits the above documents to the CKI in writing or scanned by e-mail. •. In addition, a random (if possible) more extensive check is carried out at at least 1% of the certificate holders every year. In this more extensive check, the certificate holder is visited during an ICT meeting and his portfolio is assessed on progress and content (main features). This check is carried out by the CKI responsible for the implementation. The term for submitting the required documents, consisting of the employer's statement (or accountant's statement) and the list of participants, must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks. 6.3. Report of findings The CKI draws up a report of the findings of the supervision. The result of the supervision is communicated to the certificate holder in writing. The certificate holder can object to measures (see paragraph 6.5) that may be imposed Machine Translated by Google be made as a result of supervision. The CKI handles the objection in accordance with its objection procedure (appendix 2). 6.4. Complaints concerning the certificate holder A complaint concerning the certificate holder is submitted to the CKI. The CKI handles the complaint in accordance with its complaints procedure (appendix 1). 6.5. Measures If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards of this certification scheme, this may lead to measures imposed by the CKI. Possible measures are repair activities, requesting additional/missing documents, suspension, changes to the detriment of the certificate holder or the withdrawal of the certificate. Criteria Missing documents will be requested if the employer's statement or accountant's statement and/or the participation lists are missing. Suspension of the certificate will in any case take place if the work experience is demonstrably less than two half-days per week on average and it is possible for the certificate holder to demonstrate this within six months. The certificate will in any case be withdrawn if the work experience is demonstrably less than two half- days per week on average and/or participation in the ICT group has not been demonstrated. Further requirements, suspension or withdrawal of the certificate can be made if the candidate does not meet the requirements of the Work and Organization Expert scheme or if the CKI has a valid reason for this. A certificate can also be revoked in the event of fraud, death or at the request of the certificate holder. If there is a measure, this will be made known to the certificate holder. When imposing a measure, the CKI must indicate the period within which the measure must be implemented. The CKI then checks the implementation. Suspensions and withdrawals must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. The Inspectorate SZW must also be informed of this. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. Recertification after a withdrawal is only possible after one year from the date of withdrawal. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. 7. The subject of certification Machine Translated by Google This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD ARBO of the BCD foundation. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of work & organization expert. This certification scheme has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established regulation therefore replaces previous versions. The subject (scope) of this certification scheme concerns the competences A to J in the competence profile of the Work & Organization Expert, as described in chapter 3 of appendix 6 to this document. To demonstrate the competences, a portfolio is drawn up by the applicant for (re)certification. 8. Entry Criteria Before the CKI proceeds to carry out the certification audit of the legally required personal certificate Work & Organizational Expert, the candidate must meet the entrance criteria described below: 1) Submitting an application for a personal certificate to a CKI. 2) Submitting a pre-training diploma. 3) Submitting an examination call from an admitted vocational training course or one previously obtained diploma. 4) Submitting an employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the candidate operates as a self-employed person. 5) Submitting a completed portfolio. ad. 1 The application must meet the following requirements: •. The application must be signed by the applicant. •. The scope of the application must be clear. •. The application should be addressed to the CKI. The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirements, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 2 The applicant can submit one of the following documents for this: •. A diploma of a HBO education or higher. •. Evidence of an investigation into the applicant's work and thinking level showing HBO work and thinking level (for example prepared by an HRM agency). The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirements, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 3 Machine Translated by Google To this end, the applicant must submit the following document: an exam call showing that the candidate is taking the exam for an approved vocational training course in Labor & Organizational Experts. Candidates who already have a vocational training diploma can make use of the transitional arrangement (appendix 8). In the event that the candidate has followed a non-admitted vocational training course, the CKI offers the possibility to conduct an investigation which shows whether or not the vocational training is equivalence. If this is the case, the diploma will be regarded as equivalent to a study program approved by the CKI. The costs of this examination are borne by the candidate. If the candidate has a diploma from a vocational training program outside the EU, it is up to the candidate to create a portfolio and go through the portfolio process. After five years, the candidate can participate in the portfolio assessment, as is the case with recertification. In the event of a positive assessment, the CKI can then proceed to initial certification. The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirement, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 4 The applicant can submit one of the following documents for this: •. An employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the candidate operates as a self-employed person demonstrating that the candidate has work experience as Labor & Organization expert and is in any case able to perform two of the activities listed below in a broad sense: – Advising on investigations of health, working conditions and sustainable employability of employees in work organisations. – Advising on research into optimizing the working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment. – Advising on research into the quality of work. – Advising on studies of psychosocial workload. – Testing an RI&E. •. The work experience as an Occupational Hygienist is no more than 2 years ago accrued, calculated from the application date; •. If the candidate operates as a self-employed person, he must: to be able to submit audit reports for the previous 2 years to the CKI. The CKI checks whether the application meets the above requirements, if this is not the case, the applicant will be contacted. ad. 5 The applicant must submit the following document for this: Machine Translated by Google •. A completed portfolio, which the applicant creates at the start of the admitted vocational training. •. Candidates who already have a vocational training diploma can make use of the transitional arrangement (appendix 8). The CKI checks whether all supporting documents have been submitted and sends a confirmation of receipt to the candidate. When the candidate has met the above entry criteria, the application will be processed, see chapter 10, after which the examiner will check the content of the supporting documents. NB. The structure of the portfolio is not tied to a training institution or a CKI. 9. Competency Profile For the sake of readability of this certification scheme, the competency profile of the Occupational and Organizational Expert is included as appendix 6 to this document. 10. Testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms The applicant has met the entry criteria of Chapter 8. This is followed by the substantive test, which is performed by the examiner and is described below: 1) Submitting an application for a personal certificate to a CKI; 2) Submission of a preparatory diploma; 3) Submitting a diploma of an approved vocational training course; 4) Submitting an employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the candidate operates as a self-employed person; 5) Submitting a completed portfolio. ad. 1 The examiner checks whether the scope of the application falls under the regulations of the Labor and Organization Expert. If this is not the case, the application will not be processed further. The examiner will inform the CKI of this. The CKI will inform the applicant of this in writing, also with regard to the further processing of the application. ad. 2 The examiner checks whether: 1. The diploma comes from a HBO education or higher, or 2. The certificate of an investigation into the applicant's working and thinking level showing HBO working and thinking level (for example drawn up by an HRM agency) comes from an agency. Machine Translated by Google If one of the above points is not in order, the applicant will be given the opportunity (via the CKI) to supplement this within six weeks. If the applicant does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 3 The examiner checks whether: 1) The diploma actually comes from an approved vocational training course. 2) In the event that the candidate has followed a non-admitted vocational training, an examination has been requested by the applicant and carried out by a CKI, which shows whether or not the vocational training is equivalence. The costs of this examination are borne by the candidate. 3) In case the applicant has followed vocational training outside the Netherlands but within the EU, an additional EC professional qualification for the vocational training followed has been requested. 4) In case the candidate has a diploma from a vocational training outside the EU the candidate has created a portfolio and completed the portfolio trajectory (chapter 10). After five years, the applicant can participate in the portfolio assessment, as is the case with recertification. In the event of a positive assessment, the CKI can then proceed to initial certification. If one of the above points is not in order, the applicant will be given the opportunity to supplement this within six weeks. If the applicant does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 4 The work experience of the Occupational and Organizational Specialist shows that he is able to apply competencies independently in practice. With regard to the work experience gained, the examiner considers: •. The employer's statement or accountant's statement showing that the candidate has work experience as a Labor & Organization expert and is able to perform the following activities: – Advising on investigations of health, working conditions and sustainable employability of employees in work organisations; – Advising on research into optimizing the working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment; – Advising on research into the quality of work; – Advising on studies of psychosocial workload; – Testing an RI&E under the supervision of a certified Labor & Organizational Expert. •. The work experience as a Labor and Organizational Specialist was not gained more than 2 years ago, calculated from the application date; •. If the candidate operates as a self-employed person, he must: to be able to submit audit reports for the previous 2 years to the CKI. Machine Translated by Google If one of the above points is not in order, the candidate will be given the opportunity (via the CKI) to supplement this within six weeks. If the candidate does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 5 The examiner looks at the contents of the portfolio. The portfolio consists of a description of at least two of the following five core tasks: 1) Further development of and in the profession of Occupational and Organizational Expert. 2) Advising on research into health, working conditions and sustainable employability of employees in work organisations. 3) Advising on research into optimizing working conditions care as a follow- up to the risk assessment. 4) Advising on research into the quality of work. 5) Advising on studies of psychosocial workload. under the supervision of a certified Labor & Organization expert. For each core task, it is indicated which competencies are linked to it. Consisting of one general and one profession-specific competence. For this, reference is made to the Competency Profile Occupational and Organizational Experts which can be found in Appendix 6 of these regulations. For each core task, it is indicated which knowledge (from, for example, books, internet, reports, work instructions) has been used as a background for the performance of this core task. It is desirable that for a core task a description is given of the relevant information, for example a book: title, author, edition and chapter reference, which have been used for the performance of this task. During the initial training, the four core tasks are worked out within the graduation assignment, which are discussed in an ICT group. From this, the corresponding competencies, four learning questions, four improvement and development proposals and four improvement actions are described. These points may overlap. Missing information in the portfolio is requested from the candidate via the CKI. The missing information must be provided in good time (at least two weeks before the date of the exam) so that the examiner still has sufficient time for an assessment. If the candidate does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The candidate will be informed of this in writing by the CKI. The applicant then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. 10.2. Test (portfolio defense) The test is intended to test the way in which the Occupational and Organizational Expert works on his professional development. The test is administered orally by one examiner based on the candidate's portfolio. The candidate will be informed in advance Machine Translated by Google made known what the duration of the exam will be and how the exam will be administered. The basis for the test is the core task competency matrix completed by the Labor and Organization expert. The core task-competence matrix links core tasks and competences. The Labor and Organization Expert himself indicates which competencies he has or wants to develop for which core task. This provides important information for the assessment. It provides insight into which competence can be tested in which core task. The core task competence matrix consists of 5 core tasks and 10 competences: Core tasks General competences Profession-specific competences a B C d E f G huh I J Customer-oriented action Advisory skills Results-oriented Acting professionally Collaborating, connecting Entrepreneurship Research and analysis Information, training Implementation skills Safeguard and monitor Operate and integrate 1. and instruction and Further development of and in the field 2. Advising on/ investigating health, working conditions and sustainable employability of employees in labor organizations 3. Advising on/ investigating the optimization of the working conditionszo rg 4. Advising on the quality of work 5. To advise about psychosocial workload (PSA) Machine Translated by Google With the above core-task-competence matrix, the Occupational and Organizational Expert compiles a profile that matches his own interpretation of the profession. A distinction is made between a profile that reflects the situation at the initial certification or at the start of a new certification period (the initial matrix) and a profile that reflects the aspects in which the expert wants to develop further or has developed during the underlying certification period. (the development matrix). The initial matrix is completed at the initial certification and at the start of a new certification period. The expert indicates which competencies he possesses for each core task. This must be at least one general and one profession-specific competency. In the development matrix, the expert indicates which competencies he wants to develop. This can be a new competency, or an improvement of an existing competency. During the five-year certification period, the expert illustrates his development on the basis of 4 cases. For each case he names at least 3 competences within the core task to which the case relates. The development matrix contains at least twelve crosses, 4 of which are linked to the introduced cases. These development competencies are elaborated in the report into learning questions, an improvement proposal and an improvement action. So a total of 4 reports with 4 development points over 5 years. During the test, the Occupational and Organizational Expert defends this portfolio. The examiner draws up a report of the assessment of the portfolio. The examiner makes a recommendation based on this report. The report and the advice are sent to the CKI. 11. Testing methodology for recertification 11.1. Key terms The certificate expires five years after (re)certification and the applicant must demonstrate that it meets the (re)certification requirements. There is also a substantive test which is performed by the examiner and is described below. 1) Submitting an application for (re)certification to a CKI. 2) Submitting an employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the Labor and Organizational Expert operates as a self-employed person. 3) Submitting a completed portfolio. 4) Refresher and refresher courses. The CKI checks whether the above-mentioned documents are present in accordance with Chapter 8, where applicable. 11.2. Assessment method ad. 1 The examiner checks whether the scope of the application falls under the regulations of the Labor and Organization Expert. If this is not the case, the application will not be processed further. The examiner notifies the CKI of this and indicates Machine Translated by Google which scheme the application falls under. The CKI will inform the applicant of this in writing, also with regard to the further processing of the application. ad. 2 The examiner checks whether: •. The employer's statement or an accountant's statement if the candidate operates as a self-employed person demonstrating that the candidate has work experience as Labor & Organization expert and in any case able to perform the following activities: – Advising on investigations of health, working conditions and sustainable employability of employees in work organisations; – Advising on research into optimizing the working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment; – Advising on research into the quality of work; – Advising on studies of psychosocial workload. – under the supervision of a certified Labor & Organization expert. •. The work experience as an occupational hygienist is no more than 5 years ago accrued, calculated from the application date; •. If the candidate operates as a self-employed person, he must: to be able to submit audit reports for the previous 2 years to the CKI. If one of the above points is not in order, the Labor and Organization Expert (via the CKI) will be given the opportunity to supplement this within six weeks. If the Labor and Organizational Expert does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The Labor and Organizational Expert then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 3 The examiner looks at the contents of the portfolio. After five years, the portfolio consists of a description of the following five core tasks: 1) Further development of and in the profession. 2) Advising on research into health, working conditions and sustainable employability of employees in work organisations. 3) Advising on research into optimizing working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment. 4) Advising on research into the quality of work. 5) Advising on studies of psychosocial workload. For each core task, it is indicated which competencies are linked to it. Consisting of one general and one profession-specific competence. For this, reference is made to the Competency Profile Work & Organizational Experts which can be found in Appendix 6 of these regulations. Machine Translated by Google For each core task, it is indicated which knowledge (from, for example, books, internet, reports, work instructions) has been used as a background for the performance of this core task. It is desirable that for a core task a description is given of relevant information, for example a book: title, author, edition and chapter reference, which have been used for the performance of this task. At least four cases briefly elaborated in a report, which may have been discussed in an ICT group during the admitted vocational training. From this, the corresponding competencies, four learning questions, four improvement and development proposals and four improvement actions are described. These points may overlap. When the portfolio is complete and the applicant has met the above criteria, the Labor and Organization Expert may participate in the test (examination of the portfolio). The Labor and Organization expert will be informed of this in writing by the CKI. If the portfolio is not in order, the Labor and Organization expert will be given the opportunity to supplement it within six weeks. If the Labor and Organizational Expert does not respond to this, the application will be rejected by the CKI. The Labor and Organization Expert will be informed of this in writing by the CKI. The Labor and Organizational Expert then has the option to submit a new application for certification to the CKI. ad. 4 Certificate holders demonstrate that they maintain their knowledge of the profession (in- service training) by, for example, writing an article within the ICT group or fulfilling a board position within the field. A cut-off point to be drawn up will be linked to this. 11.3. Test (portfolio defense) There is one examiner who conducts an oral exam based on the candidate's portfolio. The examiner draws up a report of the assessment of the portfolio. The examiner makes a recommendation based on this report. The report and the advice are sent to the CKI. If the process with one examiner does not function properly, two examiners are deployed during exams. For more information about the assessment procedure, reference is made to the examination regulations and the Competency Profile Labor and Organizational Experts (A&O) section 4.2. 12. The certificate The following information is (at least) stated on the certificate: Machine Translated by Google •. Name of the certified person; •. Unambiguous document/certificate number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards being tested (with identifiable version); •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid; •. A statement from the CKI that the person concerned meets the requirements as established in the certification scheme for the Occupational and Organizational Expert. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate (see policy on measures). •. The certificate holder will immediately inform the CKI of changes regarding his/her position, employer, home and work address; •. The certificate holder may only use the certificate (and pass) as long as it is valid; •. The certificate holder may only use the certificate (and pass) if proof of his/her professional competence in the specified field; •. The certificate holder agrees to cooperate for the execution of interim supervision (surveillance) and with spot checks in the workplace; •. The certificate holder agrees to mention his/her certification in the public register of certificate holders; •. The certificate holder will keep a record of complaints against professional competence and cooperate in the investigation of such complaints. The above must be included in the certification agreement signed by the certificate holder. Appendix 1: Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the way of following Machine Translated by Google the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Machine Translated by Google Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. Appendix 2: Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: Machine Translated by Google 'Under the CKI procedure “objection procedure”, an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: – name and address of submitter – date – a description of the contested decision – the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Machine Translated by Google Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. Appendix 3: Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff (examiners) The purpose of the examination staff (examiners) is to examine the experts during initial certification and during recertification. The examination staff consists of all examiners appointed for this purpose by the BCD foundation on the recommendation of the professional associations. The examination staff selects a representative from the group who is present during the meetings of the CCvD ARBO for advice. The examination staff forms the examination office. The examination bureau is independent of the professional associations and operates under the responsibility of the BCD foundation. Examination staff must meet the following general, professional and independence requirements: •. General – Examination staff have at least the same level of education as the candidates' training to be examined. – Exam staff have been instructed in administering (portfolio) exams. •. Professional – Exam staff have at least three years of demonstrable experience in the relevant field of work. – Exam staff demonstrably follow refresher courses or are certified for the relevant professional field. •. Independence – Exam staff has no (personal) interest in the result of the exam. If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination is not discredited. These measures must be recorded in writing. Machine Translated by Google – Exam staff have demonstrable insight into the work, the context and the industry in which the Labor and Organizational Expert works. Examiners who meet the above requirements can be appointed by the CKI and used to conduct exams. The assessment of examination staff There is a meeting for examiners twice a year. The examiner is obliged to attend at least one meeting. In exceptional cases, the BCD Foundation can grant an extension for this. The meetings are organized by the BCD foundation and the designated CKI. During the meetings, the logbooks of the examiners are checked for completeness and discussed, after which any improvement and development proposals are drawn up. Appendix 4: Requirements for the exam 4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the CKI (including the examiners) are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Employees of the CKI have signed a declaration of confidentiality. 4.2. General rules when conducting exams Requirements for the exam location are: •. The space is sufficiently quiet. •. There are sanitary facilities. •. On request, an adapted place is available for a disabled person (physical or dyslexic). •. The work lighting must be sufficient (between 200 and 800 lux). •. The room is sufficiently ventilated and heated (temp. 18 to 25 degrees C). •. The room complies with legal safety regulations. The requirements to be set for the examination materials are: •. Presence of audio/visual aids. Requirements for the portfolio exam are: •. The theoretical and practical components based on the candidate's portfolio are tested by the examiner. •. The questions that are presented are prepared by the examiner. •. The pass (assessment criteria) is determined in advance by the examiner. •. The exam is administered by the examiner in a time frame of 50 minutes. Machine Translated by Google •. Assessment of the exam is done by the examiner. The examiner keeps a log containing the way of testing and the questions that are asked. The examiner also keeps track of whether the cut-off is working. •. For subjects to be assessed, learning objectives must be drawn up and should be tested against those learning objectives with sufficient depth. The basic principle is that a portfolio exam is preferably taken in the Dutch language. Appendix 5: Competency-based assessment scheme Appendix 6: Competency Profile A&O This competency profile for the Occupational and Organizational Expert has been drawn up to record the content of the Occupational and Organizational Expert profession. The profession is described in core tasks and competences. In this way, the competency profile is an instrument for measuring craftsmanship. In addition, the profile is the starting point for the requirements imposed on the professional to be certified. The competency profile is part of the certification system that must result in the certificate for the Labor and Organization Expert in accordance with the working conditions legislation. This competency profile is intended as a basis for the certification of experts and not for designing training courses. This is an important difference with a profile as used by training institutes. The description of the profession is based on the experience and craftsmanship of professionals and not on recently graduated experts. The process that the professional practitioner goes through is guiding in this description. A core task competency matrix is included in this document (chapter 4). This matrix shows which competencies are used in the execution of the sub-processes of a core task. The assessment criteria are drawn up mainly on the basis of this core task competency matrix. These criteria are determined by the Central Board of Experts. Partly on the basis of the extent to which these criteria are met, the certification committee and the certifying institution(s) may or may not issue or extend a personal certificate. In addition, training institutions can use the competency profile and the assessment criteria as a starting point for optimally linking their training to the certification system of the Stichting Beheer Certificatie Deskundigen (BCD Foundation). Where the masculine reference is used in this document, the feminine form may also be read where appropriate. Classification of the competency profile This document consists of four chapters. Chapter 1 describes the profession. The development of this Competency Profile is also substantiated and reference is made to source material. Chapter 2 describes the core tasks that the healthcare practitioner performs. Machine Translated by Google Chapter 3 describes the general and profession-specific competences. Chapter 4 provides insight into which competencies are used in the performance of a core task. 1. General information 1.1. Image of the industry and the profession The profession 'Labour and Organizational Expert' is one of the four core experts recognized by law in the Netherlands in the field of working conditions. Together with the company doctor, the senior safety expert and the occupational hygienist, the occupational and organizational expert is a general advisor in the field of health and sustainable employability in work organisations. He also advises on optimizing working conditions care. The labor and organization expert deals with people and work within an organisation. From a change management perspective, the expert advises on aspects such as health management, psychosocial workload and the quality of work. The Dutch Working Conditions Act requires certification for 'Labour and Organizational Experts'. A labor and organization expert is an expert in the field of labor and organizational science in accordance with the Working Conditions Decree and is in possession of a certificate of professional competence in work and organizational science. The Occupational and Organizational Expert continuously develops his profession and skills. He works together, connects and integrates knowledge of causes, consequences and solutions and is entrepreneurial in his profession. The Occupational and Organizational Expert has some of the core tasks in common with the other certified non-medical occupational health and safety experts (occupational hygienist and higher safety expert). It distinguishes itself from them in the core tasks: •. Advising on/investigating the quality of work •. Advising on/investigating psychosocial workload (PSA) He also distinguishes himself in his specialization in researching and/or advising in the field of healthy organizations. 2. Core tasks 2.1. Introduction The profession is described in five core tasks that together comprise the entire profession. Hereby: •. core task 1 is a general task, aimed at professional and professional development; •. are core tasks 2 and 3 specific tasks in the field of working conditions in general; •. are core tasks 4 and 5 specifically for the Occupational and Organizational Expert. Machine Translated by Google Professionals can specialize in this to a greater or lesser extent. 2.2. Description of the core tasks Core task 1 Further development of and in the profession Occupational and organizational expert (A&O) Process/sub-tasks 1. Gathering new knowledge or maintaining knowledge by means of knowledge, task and/ or sector specialization 2. Developing new theories 3. Methods and instruments develop, apply and improve 4. Disseminate new knowledge, methods and tools (teaching, presenting, publishing) Role/Responsibility Expert, student, researcher, and pioneer. Complexity High, due to the broad nature of the Discipline. Those involved Scientists and colleagues. Resources Scientific research, peer assessment, courses, conferences, symposia, etc. Quality Quality investment in and choice of specializations. Promoting new developments. Incident sensitivity of the A&O person within the organization where he works. Result Improving the quality of the profession and the implementation Machine Translated by Google of them. Choices and dilemmas • Time or priority • Certainty or innovation Core task 2 Advising on (and investigating) health, working conditions and sustainable employability of employees in labor organizations Process/sub-tasks 1. Vision, Programs and develop policy 2. Investigate, analyze and advise on that basis and apply programs 3. Supervise change/implementation processes and evaluate and revise programs 4. Management, supervisors, employees training Role/ responsibility Expert, process supervisor, and trainer and advisor. Complexity Coordination of different parties for the performance of its duties. Knowledge of advice and research within the field of the A&O professional. Those involved board, management, HR, managers, employees and others experts. Resources • Recognized risk assessment methods and control resources • Project management and process control resources & techniques • Effective communication methods Quality Empathic ability. Machine Translated by Google Process monitoring in the implementation of advice and investigations Advice must be issued in a timely manner and must be substantiated and be practically useful. Result Labor organizations that pursuing a conscious and active policy aimed at health, working conditions and sustainable employability of their employees, based on adequate knowledge and control methods. Choices and dilemmas • Short-term investments or long-term returns • Abstract or concrete • Organizational policy or individual interest • Small- scale or large-scale • Independent or linking up with a larger whole • Silent force or demonstrative • Frontrunner or follower Core task 3 Advising on/investigating the optimization of working conditions care as a follow-up to the risk assessment Process/sub-tasks 1) Review, update and supplement policy in the area work.of2)health and safety at Occupational risks in map. 3) Carry out RI&E, assess, test, advise. 4) Prevention Officer Machine Translated by Google to coach. Role/Responsibility Expert, researcher, and coach and advisor. Complexity Average. Will depend on the nature of the organization and the work/work process ssen. Those involved Board, management, HR, Facilities, prevention officer, Works Council and colleagues. Resources RI&E instruments and questionnaires. Quality Advice must be timely be released and must be substantiated and practical. Process monitoring in the implementation of advice. Result Labor organizations with a coherent working conditions policy, and a package of measures to manage occupational risks and to realize or maintain a healthy and safe working situation. Choices and dilemmas • Must or want • Know or do Core task 4 Advising on/investigating the quality of work Process/sub-tasks 1) Advise 2) Investigate, analyze and make recommendations 3) Initiating, executing and guiding improvement/ change trajectories Role/Responsibility Expert, researcher, Machine Translated by Google and process facilitator and consultant. Complexity Depends on the nature of the organization and the activities/ work processes. Coordination with various parties within the organization where the A&O employee works is. Those involved Board, management, HR, supervisors, employees, Works Council and fellow experts. Tools Various research tools. Quality Empathic ability. Advice must be issued in a timely manner and must be substantiated and be practically useful. Process monitoring in the implementation of advice. Result Good and harmonized work content, working conditions, labor relations and working conditions. Labor organizations where people work with pleasure and an added value that contribute to the realization of the organizational objective and. Choices and dilemmas • Organizational interest or individual interest • Department a or department b • Line or staff Core task 5 Advising on/investigating Machine Translated by Google psychosocial load (PSA) Propose process/ 1. PSA inventory sub-tasks and measures 2. Developing policy and supervising its implementation 3. Training and informing 4. If necessary. care and coaching Role/responsibility Expert, process supervisor, trainer, coach, and advisor and confidential counselor Complexity Knowledge of advice and research within the field of the A&O employee. Those involved Board, management, HR, supervisors, employees, Works Council, fellow experts and confidential advisers. – Resources Quality Empathic ability. Process monitoring in the implementation of advice and investigations. Advice must be issued in a timely manner and must be substantiated and practical. Result Labor organizations in which work pressure is negotiable and does not lead to stress complaints. In addition, have the labor organizations have a clear vision on (undesirable) manners and behavior that is in line with them. Finally, good reception is arranged Choices and dilemmas • New Year's resolutions or issues of the day • Concept of human a or Machine Translated by Google view of man b • Internal or external agreements 3. Competencies 3.1. Introduction In the profession of Occupational and Organizational Expert, a distinction can be made between general competences – which can be found in many professions – and profession-specific competences. The general competences are described in section 3.1 and the profession-specific competences are described in section 3.2. The designations used are the same as those in the core task competency matrices in chapter 4. 3.2. General competences Competency A Customer-oriented approach The Labor and Organizational expert is able to maintain adequate contact with the external or internal customer (officers), so that the activities be carried out according to the customer's wishes. • Has Knowledge knowledge of the own organization or the organization for which he is employed and can map that organization. • Has up-to- date knowledge of the A&O profession (maximum one year old) and knows the competency profile. • Has knowledge of relevant laws and regulations in the field from working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). • Has knowledge of the Machine Translated by Google force field in which the A&O person operates and is aware of the interests of various parties within and outside the organisation. Skills to act in • Is capable of an organization sensitive way and can organization to acquire sufficient support for the policy to be implemented. • Is capable at all levels within the organization to communicate. Both orally and in writing and both internally and externally parties. • Is able to behave sufficiently shifting the interests of various parties inside and outside the organization, including management, employees and fellow experts. • Is capable of a prepare a project plan including project planning and budget. • Is able to acquire and prepare a quote. • Is able to listening to different parties inside and outside the organization and prepare a report. • Is capable of a attitude strike a balance between the interests of different parties. • Handles correct Machine Translated by Google manners with respect for all parties involved. • Is persistent in monitoring the advice issued. • Is involved in one's own work and shows a safe and healthy workplace. Competence B Advisory skills The Occupational and Organizational Expert can report adequately orally and in writing about the work, so that the client and/or his colleagues are informed effectively and can build on this. • Has knowledge of Knowledge intervention techniques including persuasion and training. • Has knowledge from communication techniques including informing, dialogizing and presenting. • Has knowledge of project management, including project design and evaluation. Skills • Is able to convince, motivate, communicate and create support, taking into account Machine Translated by Google with the different interests and responsibilities of different parties. • Is able to give an independent judgment based on his own discipline and is impartial in his actions. • Is able to work with other disciplines, including company doctor and safety expert. • Is able to manage complex projects; projects with a longer lead time in which several parties are involved. • Is capable of intervention techniques including persuasion and training. • Is capable of Applying A&O professional knowledge (as described in this competency profile) and translating it into an advisory process. • Be attitude independent and impartial. • Takes a collegial attitude and has an open attitude towards colleagues. • Takes a critical stance. • Be realistic when writing and issuing the advice, for example by taking into account the financial feasibility of the advice. • Is Machine Translated by Google persistent in monitoring (the implementation of) the advice issued. Competence C Results-oriented functioning De Labor and Organizational expert can communicate adequately with all those involved in the work process, so that this benefits the course and the outcome of the work and leads to the desired result. • Has basic Knowledge knowledge of psychology and behavioral sciences. • Has basic knowledge of work and organizational science (business administration). • Has knowledge of project management, including project design and evaluation. Skills to • Is able to measure measurable, formulate achievable and clear objectives. • Is able to draw up, implement and evaluate a project plan. • Is capable of prioritize and meet deadlines. • When drawing up a project plan, take into account with unforeseen circumstances. • Is in Machine Translated by Google state relevant identify and collaborate with parties in a specific project or file to work. • attitude Imagine solution-oriented with sufficient attention to the intended result. • Is persistent in (interim) evaluation of activities with eye for the intended result. Competency D Professional conduct The Labor and Organization Expert acts in accordance with the code of conduct and is continuously informed of relevant developments in the field. The expert is able apply (new) knowledge at higher vocational education plus/scientific level and convert it into applicable models and instruments. In addition he can interpret and assess relevant instruments, methodologies, models and data at HBO-plus/ scientific level. • Has up-to- date knowledge of the A&O profession Knowledge (maximum one year old) Machine Translated by Google and can name recent developments in the field. • Has knowledge of the A&O competency profile and the A&O code of conduct. • Has knowledge of relevant laws and regulations in the field from working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). • Has knowledge of the repositories and sources of information about the A&O field, including trade journals, legislation and statistics. Skills to draw up • Is capable of and implement a personal training plan feed. • Is able to apply A&O expertise adapt and translate it into a specific practical situation. • Is able to take into account the interests of various parties inside and outside the organization, including management, employees and fellow experts. • Is able to take unforeseen circumstances into account. • Is able to act proactively, including self-release of a Machine Translated by Google advice. • Is able to provide and communicate peer feedback receive. • attitude Be independent and impartial. • Shows integrity and reliability. • Is curious about the A&O field. • Is involved in own work and late in the act see a safe and healthy workplace. • Handles correct manners with respect for all interlocutors. Competence E Collaborate, connect and Integrating De Labor and Organizational expert collaborates with other experts and stakeholders in customer organizations. He connects the results of analysis and research with the research question and with the results of other relevant activities and provides integrated advice • Has up-to- Knowledge date knowledge of the A&O profession (maximum one year old) and can identify recent developments in the field. • Has knowledge of the Machine Translated by Google sector in which the A&O person works and knows the industry-specific processes applicable therein. • Has knowledge of communication techniques including informing, dialogizing and presenting. Skills • Is able to think analytically. • Is able to apply A&O expertise adapt and translate it into a specific practical situation. • Is capable of different combining insights, including safety, health and occupational hygiene insights. • Is able to reflect. • Is able to listening to different parties inside and outside the organization and prepare a report. • Has an open attitude attitude towards colleagues and other parties. • Is sensitive in collaborating with others. Competency F Entrepreneurship and Organizational expert identifies opportunities with customers and contacts (external or internal) and plays Machine Translated by Google into this. The Labor and Organizational expert acquires assignments and delivers quality. He builds and maintains relationships with relevant parties and presents itself as an expert professional. • Has up-to- Knowledge date knowledge of the A&O profession (maximum one year old) and can read recent identify developments in the field. • Has basic knowledge of marketing. • Has knowledge of the sector in which the A&O person works and knows the industry-specific processes. Skills • Is able to identify opportunities with customers and contacts. • Is able to anticipate developments. • Is able to acquire customers and prepare a quotation. • Is capable of self and adequately present his ideas, advice and plan of action. • Is able to provide a relevant social create and maintain a network. • Imagine attitude take initiative. • Is sensitive in the contact with clients. • Stilt Machine Translated by Google being innovative. • Shows guts. • Shows flair. 3.3. Profession-specific competences Competency G Research and analysis The Labor and Organizational expert can research and carry out, assess and report on and advise on this practical analysis and if necessary at a scientific level. Knowledge • Has prior knowledge relevant methods and . the A&O field techniques for the design and conduct research. • Has up-to-date knowledge of the A&O profession (maximum one year old) and can name recent developments in the field. • Has knowledge of standards relevant to the A&O field, including ISO and IEC standards. • Has knowledge of the sector in which the A&O person works and knows the industry-specific processes applicable therein. • Has knowledge of processing and interpretation of statistical information. • Has knowledge of epidemiology relevant to the A&O field. • Has Machine Translated by Google basic knowledge of audit techniques. • Has prior knowledge relevant systems theory in the A&O field. Skills to think • Is capable of analytically. • Is able to draw conclusions from results of investigations and analyses. • Inventorize. • Is in able to set up and carry out research and analysis in a structured manner. • Is capable of to report on results of investigations and analysis. • attitude Analytical. • Takes an unbiased attitude towards research and analysis. • Is accurate. • Creative. • Is result-oriented. Competency H Information, training and instruction De Occupational and organizational expert can transfer knowledge and experience to all layers of the working population. To this end, he designs and applies methodologies. Knowledge • Has basic knowledge of psychology. • Has knowledge of relevant and suitable Machine Translated by Google coaching methods/styles and work forms. • Has knowledge of communication techniques including informing, dialogizing and presenting. • Has relevant knowledge of target group-oriented didactic methods and techniques. • Has up-to-date knowledge of the A&O profession (maximum one year old) and can name recent developments in the field. • Has knowledge of relevant techniques for evaluation and effect measurement. Skills • Is able to draw up a training plan and develop a training programme. • Is in is a information meeting, training or instruction take care of. • Is able to choose the correct transfer form and style. • Is able to deal with groups of people. • Is able to give feedback. • Is capable of communicate with groups of people. • Is in state tailoring instructional materials to different target groups. • Is able to follow procedures and work instructions Machine Translated by Google write and assess. • Is able to guide and coach new colleagues. • Is capable of a information meeting, training or instruction to evaluate. • Is able to adequately present himself and his ideas, advice and plan of approach. • Is able to enthuse groups of people. • Imagine attitude confident and assertive. • Creative. • Persuasiveness/ stimulating. • Imagine open-minded towards participants to a information meeting, training or instruction. • Stilt involved with participants to a information meeting, training or instruction. • Listening ear. • Analytical. • Is open to criticism. Competence I Deployment Skill and The Labor and Organizational expert can implement advice, change processes Machine Translated by Google implement, implement (new) models and methodologies and secure them in the organization. He can also assess the effectiveness of these models and assess methodologies. • Has Knowledge knowledge of the own organization or the organization for which he is employed and can map that organization. • Has knowledge of change management at HBO-plus level. • Knowledge of instruments. • Has knowledge of effect measurement techniques. • Has knowledge of relevant laws and regulations in the field from working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). Create skills for a • Is able to support change process or the implementation of advice. • Is in is a to manage a change process or the implementation of advice. • Is able to go with guidelines. • Is able to convince different parties of the usefulness and necessity of the change process or the implementation of advice. • Is in allows management and employees to Machine Translated by Google to influence. • Is able to collaborate with parties involved in a change process or the implementation of advice. • Is able to draw up, execute and evaluate a change or implementation plan. • Is able to intervene during a change process or the implementation of advice. attitude • Imagine persistent in the implementation phase. • Handles correct manners with respect for all parties involved. • Takes an enthusiastic attitude. • Is reliable. Competence J Safeguarding and monitoring The Occupational and Organizational Expert monitors the implementation and effectiveness of working methods and measures aimed at ensuring health and safety in the workplace. Knowledge • Has knowledge of standards relevant to the A&O field, including ISO and IEC standards. • Has knowledge of relevant Machine Translated by Google legislation and regulations in the field of working conditions (and related legislation and regulations). • Has knowledge of the own organization or the organization for which he is employed and can map that organization. • Has knowledge of quality management systems and application of critical performance indicators (KPIs). • Knowledge of audit techniques. • Has basic knowledge of audit techniques. Skills to monitor, • Is capable of measure and evaluate working methods and measures. • Is able to secure and monitor activities and measures in a structured manner. • Is able to draw up, implement and evaluate a plan for assurance and monitoring. • Is able to anticipating unforeseen developments during safeguarding and monitoring. • Is able to intervene during safeguarding and monitoring. attitude • Analytical. • Is accurate. • Is result-oriented. • Systematic. • Consistent. • Autonomous. Machine Translated by Google • Procedural. • Diligent. • Trustworthy. • Improvement oriented. Appendix 7: Admission of training courses The training institutes can be admitted through an assessment by a CKI designated for that purpose by the BCD foundation. An admitted course meets the requirements set out in the document 'admission of courses'. The CCvD will monitor the current adjust and improve documents from Hobéon SKO and KIWA in 2012. Until the revised documents are published and approved by the BCD foundation, the old documents will remain in use. The documents can be found on the website of the BCD foundation. Appendix 8: Transitional arrangement As of 1 April 2012, the new scientific level (portfolio cycle) method will be used. For certification applicants who have already completed the training, this means that they can still be initially certified in the 'old' way and then enter the portfolio cycle for recertification. Certificate holders who do their recertification are recertified in the 'old' way until the year 2016 and then also enter the portfolio cycle. Certificate holders whose certificate is still valid can choose to complete their cycle and are then recertified in the 'old' way. They can also enter the portfolio cycle early. This means that for the certification term that has already expired, they Demonstrate 'old' recertification requirements, after which they enter the 5-year portfolio cycle. Appendix 9: Exam format approval and rejection criteria report assessment Name examinee: Certification scheme: Date exam: Place exam: Name examiner: Question 1 Machine Translated by Google Document name: Article: Ask: Assessment criteria: (which (answer) words are right/wrong, questions, knowledge questions, etc.) Answer examinee: Rating: Question 2 Document name: Article: Ask: Assessment criteria: (which (answer) words are right/wrong, questions, knowledge questions, etc.) Answer examinee: Rating: Final assessment: (at least of the questions answered correctly). Appendix 10: Occupational and organizational expert specialization (explanatory) Introduction The core expert is a subject that falls under the Labor and Organization expert, he can fill in his field in different ways. With every certification application and Machine Translated by Google For recertification, the competencies must be demonstrated on the basis of the level as described in Chapters 2 to 4 of the Occupational and Organizational Expert competency profile. In addition, various specializations are possible, such as knowledge specialization, task specialization and sector specialization. The specializations listed below are not a compulsory part of the Labor and Organization Expert Scheme. The core expert is free to specialize in these various specializations. The basis of the course is described in the five core tasks in chapter 2 of the competency profile Occupational and Organizational Expert. This part examines the specializations of the core expert. T-profiles The profession of the core expert is a skill, or an application of science and scientific argumentation. In the case of the occupational health and safety expert, it is a composite subject from different scientific fields. The Occupational and Organizational Expert is characterized by having completed and completed a master's degree after having completed a higher vocational or university education. The master's degree must comply with the state of the art. This means that the student is in any case working in the practice of the subject. With the completion of the head training, the curriculum determines what the basic competences of the core expert are. This is the horizontal part of the so-called T-profile. The Occupational and Organizational Expert is often an occupational and organizational psychologist, business administrator, personnel scientist or occupational sociologist. The head training provides both basic and advanced knowledge, skills and works on an advanced attitude. This is displayed in a portfolio during the training and examined at the end of the training. The exam is competency-based. This means that the portfolio is assessed and tested for essential knowledge and skills as described in chapters 2 to 4 of the Competency Profile Work and Organizational Experts (A&O). After completing the master's degree, the core expert specializes in practice. A core expert can specialize in one or more directions. The specialization forms the leg of the T (specialist or super specialist) or the legs of the Pi or M (multiple specializations) as shown below. The longer the leg, the more specialized the core expert. The initial or initial certification is mainly aimed at the generalist as a beginner. Here the basic skills are tested. The courses have an appropriate methodology for this. The content follows the requirements laid down in the working conditions legislation and detailed in the competency profile. The recertification must be more in line with the profile of the core expert. The specializations should be explained in this. The competency profile identifies five core tasks that must in any case be performed. It is possible to work with different competences. Specialization of the Labor and Organization Expert Machine Translated by Google The Labor and Organization Expert is mainly concerned with researching and/or advising in the field of healthy organisations. The Labor and Organization Expert can make and/or keep an organization healthy by implementing change management interventions in that organization. The competency profile lists the five core tasks performed by the Occupational and Organizational Expert. Within each core task, the Occupational and Organizational Expert has different competencies; at least one general and one profession-specific competency per core task. The crosses in the core task competency matrix (see part 4 of the Occupational and Organizational Expert Competency Profile) constitute the first phase and possibility of personal specialization of the Occupational and Organizational Expert. This can express, for example, that the Occupational and Organizational Expert is mainly advising or, on the contrary, more investigative. Knowledge specialization In addition, the Labor and Organization Expert can further specialize in one or more of the following areas or aspects of knowledge: Knowledge areas Aspects Policy • Working conditions policy • Absenteeism policy/employability policy • Social policy Occupational health and safety management • Risk analysis • Health management • Healthcare systems Psychosocial • Stress risks and the Labor tax elaboration of it • Workload • Desired/undesired behavior • Aggression and violence • Bullying • Discrimination Quality of work • Job content/job content • Labor relations • leadership • Working conditions • Organization of work • Social innovation Organizational development • Organizational science • Machine Translated by Google and change Change management • Process guidance • Implementation guidance g Scientific • To advise argumentation Task specialization Within the knowledge areas of the A&O profession, the Occupational and Organizational Expert can also specialize in certain task areas: Task areas Aspects Research • Empirical research • Qualitative research • Change research Policy analysis and advice Coaching • Individual • Team Education and Training • Knowledge transfer • Skills • Specific target groups Project management Scientific • To advise argumentation This task specialization is related to a further specialization in certain skills within the field of the Occupational and Organizational Expert. Industry specialization Finally, the Labor and Organization Expert can be particularly skilled in certain branches or sectors such as education, care, government, industry, construction and the like. The specific specialization in knowledge, task and/or industry can be expressed by the core expert in his personal portfolio. The portfolio is part of the certification file. Annex III. belonging to article 3.1 Machine Translated by Google [Cancelled] Annex IV. belonging to article 3.9, part b Insofar as applicable, the information referred to in Article 3.9, part b, concerns: a. a location map indicating the inter- and intra-field pipelines as well as the submerged boreholes; b. general drawings of location and plan of the mining work on the land referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, under a, or the construction and configuration of the mining installation, referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, under b, c and d; c. front and side views of the mining work; d. a flow chart comprising the entire mineral treatment process with a mass balance; e. drawings of pipes, instrumentation for the process systems and the supporting systems (these drawings are only sent at the request of a supervisor); f. danger zone drawings; gh cause and effect drawings associated with the alarm and containment systems; drawings of the construction and location of fire and gas detection systems; i. drawings of fire protection facilities; drawings of rescue equipment and escape routes; jkl Heating Ventilation Air Conditioning (HVAC) drawings; a diagram of all call, alarm and communication systems; m. drawings of the layout of the call and alarm system; n. a description of the electrical system using a one-line diagram showing the emergency systems; p. the location and capacity of storage depots for hazardous substances; q. the location of chemical storage depots, and r. the location of depots for explosives. Appendix V. belonging to Article 3.9, part c The information with regard to the fire-fighting plan, referred to in Article 3.9, part c, concerns: 1. a map of the mining work, as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, and, insofar as necessary, a situation sketch of each of the installations, accommodations or other rooms present on the mining work, indicating: a. the places and spaces where substances for which there is an increased fire risk are obtained, treated, processed, used, transported or stored, as well as the places and spaces where substances that can directly or indirectly cause an explosion hazard are obtained, treated, processed , used, transported or stored, with its immediate vicinity; Machine Translated by Google b. the places where gas or liquid, possibly for combustion, is discharged; c. the places where manual and automatic fire alarm systems with associated alarm signals are installed; the type of alert should be stated; d. the places where fire extinguishing installations or large extinguishing media are installed, stating the type, type (manually operated or automatic) and capacity of each of the installations and means; e. the global number and type of hand fire extinguishers per room; the places where pumps for the fire-fighting water supply are installed, the capacity of these pumps, the places where hydrants and fire hoses are present and where fire hoses can be connected to the fire- extinguishing water pipe; f. if the fire-fighting plan relates to a mining work on land as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, under a: the presence of ponds and ditches, if extinguishing water will be extracted from the surface water if necessary; 2. the organization of the fire-fighting service; 3. the manner of fire reporting and alarms; 4. the arrangement of emergency assistance in the event of fire or explosion; 5. data on respiratory protective equipment for the fighting fire-stressed persons. Annex VI. belonging to article 3.9, parts f and i The investigation, as referred to in Article 3.9, under f and i, with regard to mining work on land, as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, under a, or any permanently installed mining installation, as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, under b. regard to: A. the preliminary draft report: I. identifying and evaluating hazards and associated risks of the various design options considered; II. of the chosen design: – establishing control measures that exclude risks or reduce; – evaluating risk mitigation systems; – establishing necessary management systems, and – evaluating preliminary calculations of overpressure at as a result of explosions. b. the detailed design, start-up and use: – assessing the applicability and, if necessary, revising the preliminary draft report; – determining the type, probability, consequences, frequency and the combinations of hazards and associated risks; – demonstrating that the stored amount of hydrocarbons is minimized; Machine Translated by Google – evaluating final calculations of overpressure due from explosions; – demonstrating the effectiveness of the installed systems; – demonstrating that the risk of fire, heat radiation, explosion and release of toxic gases or vapors is minimized; – demonstrating that the safety systems are effectively protected to be; – demonstrating that the general prevention principles are in the design brought; –demonstrating that the risk of smoke or gas entering the accommodation spaces is minimised; – demonstrating that the quality of the air to be breathed in the accommodation spaces is guaranteed; – demonstrating that the evacuation, escape and rescue systems be effective; – evaluating the targeting and effectiveness of procedures and control measures during construction activities; – evaluating the existing supervisory systems with regard to of the work; – evaluating the procedures for commissioning the drilling rig or the permanent mining installation. c. the addendum usage: – assessing the applicability and, if necessary, reviewing the detailed design, start-up and use; – verifying that all recommendations from audits, inspections, or investigations into incidents, accidents and complaints have been carried out; and – verifying whether all changes, findings, conclusions and recommendations of the various audits and inspections have been recorded in writing. D. the addendum major changes: – assessing the applicability and, if necessary, revising of the addendum use; – determining the type, probability, consequences, frequency and the combinations of hazards and associated risks; – conducting a risk analysis of the proposed major amendments; – evaluating the targeting and effectiveness of procedures and control measures during construction activities; and – demonstrating the targeting and effectiveness of all management systems. E. exit and delete the addendum: – determining the type, probability, consequences, frequency and the combinations of hazards and associated risks; – conducting a risk analysis of the disposal methods and techniques; – demonstrating the targeting and effectiveness of all management systems; and Machine Translated by Google – demonstrating that the amount of hydrocarbons, toxic substances and chemicals is minimized. Annex VII. belonging to article 3.9, parts f and i The survey, as referred to in Article 3.9, under f and i, with regard to any mining installation that can be moved as a whole as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, under c and any other mobile installation with the aid of which boreholes are drilled or work is carried out in or on a existing borehole must be carried out as referred to in Article 3.6, paragraph 1, part d, with regard to: A. the detailed design, start-up and use: – determining the type, probability, consequences, frequency and the combinations of hazards and associated risks; – demonstrating that the stored amount of hydrocarbons is minimized; – demonstrating the effectiveness of the installed systems; – demonstrating that the risk of fire, heat radiation, explosion and release of toxic gases or vapors is minimized; – evaluating final calculations of overpressure due from explosions; – demonstrating that the safety systems are effectively protected to be; – demonstrating that the general prevention principles are in the design brought; –demonstrating that the risk of smoke or gas entering the accommodation spaces is minimised; – demonstrating that the quality of the air to be breathed in the accommodation spaces is guaranteed; – demonstrating that the evacuation, escape and rescue systems be effective; – evaluating the existing supervisory systems with regard to of the work; – evaluating the procedures for commissioning and removing the mining installation as a wholly portable mining installation as referred to in Article 3.6, paragraph 1, subsection c or other mobile mining installation with the aid of which boreholes are drilled or work is carried out in an existing borehole as referred to in Article 3.6, first paragraph, under d; b. the addendum usage: – assessing the applicability and, if necessary, reviewing the detailed design, start-up and use; – verifying that all recommendations from audits, inspections, or investigations into incidents, accidents and complaints have been carried out; and – verifying whether all changes, findings, conclusions and recommendations of the various audits and inspections have been recorded in writing. Machine Translated by Google c. the addendum major changes: – assessing the applicability and, if necessary, revising of the addendum use; – determining the type, probability, consequences, frequency and the combinations of hazards and associated risks; – conducting a risk analysis of the proposed major amendments; – evaluating the targeting and effectiveness of the procedure and the control measures during the construction activities; and – demonstrating the targeting and effectiveness of all management systems. Annex VIII. belonging to article 3.14 The information with regard to the emergency plan, referred to in Article 3.14, concerns: a. a description of the organizational structure of the employer and the persons responsible in the event of an emergency, as well as an overview of their duties and powers; b. a description of the organization of the persons charged with the use of and having been trained in the use of evacuation, escape and rescue means as well as the persons charged with special tasks in the evacuation and rescue of persons at a mining installation; c. the method of alerting; d. the arrangement of assistance; e. the number, type and type of evacuation, escape and rescue equipment, as well as personal rescue equipment in use on the mining installation; f. the criteria for the capacity of assistance ships and helicopters, including their response time; the number of persons experienced in the use of the equipment intended g. in parts e and f of this annex; h. a schematic overview drawing showing the evacuation, escape and rescue equipment on the mining installation; i. the type and frequency of exercises to be conducted; j. the measures to be taken to ensure the safety and health of persons entrusted with rescue work, in particular with a view to carrying out rescue work in an atmosphere in which asphyxiating or poisonous gases are present or in an atmosphere contaminated with radioactive substances hazards. Annex IX. belonging to article 4.1, under t Safety and health statement 10 Condition of the cargo area Machine Translated by Google – The entire cargo area is not safe for people and not safe from fire. – The cargo tanks are closed. Berth Not at the yard or repair shop. No fire may be present or may reasonably be expected to occur within 25 meters of the cargo area Permitted work 1. Cold work outside or above the cargo area and in K3 areas outside the cargo zone. 2. Work with fire at least 25 meters outside the cargo area, but not in K3- spaces. Safety and health statement 11 Condition of the cargo area – The entire cargo area is not safe for people and not safe from fire. – The cargo tanks are closed and sealed. Berth The ship is allowed to go to the yard or repair company. However, only to a safe berth (= a berth where no fire is present or can reasonably be expected to start within a distance of 25 meters from the cargo area). Within 25 meters of the cargo area, no fire may be present or may reasonably be expected to start. Permitted work 1. Cold work outside or above the cargo area and in K3 spaces outside the cargo area. 2. Work with fire at least 25 meters outside the cargo area, but not in K3 spaces. Safety and health statement 12/1 Condition of the cargo area – Some of the spaces within the cargo area are not safe for people and not safe from fire. – Some of the spaces within the cargo area are safe for people and not safe for fire – Part of the cargo area is designated as safe for people and safe for fire. Machine Translated by Google In the latter case, the Health and Safety Declaration 12/1 is a predecessor of the Health and Safety Declaration 12/2. This Safety and Health Declaration 12/2 can only be issued if at least 6 hours have passed since the issuance of the Safety and Health Declaration 12/1. There shall be no change in the condition of the entire cargo area during this period. Berth The ship is allowed to go to the yard or repair company. Within 25 meters of the cargo area, no fire may be present or may reasonably be expected to start. Permitted work 1. cargoCold area.work outside or above the cargo area and in K3 spaces outside the 2. Cold work in part of the cargo area. The application of The specified work depends on the condition of the cargo area and is determined on the basis of that condition. 3. Work with fire at least 25 meters outside the cargo area, but not in K3 spaces. Safety and health statement 12/2 Condition of the cargo area – Some of the spaces within the cargo area are not safe for people and not safe from fire. – Some of the spaces within the cargo area are safe for people and not safe for fire – Part of the cargo area is safe for people as well as safe for firework. The Safety and Health Declaration 12/2 can only be issued if it has been shown that the spaces in which fire is to be worked have remained safe for people and safe from fire, while the condition of the other spaces within the cargo zone may not have changed either. occurred. In addition, at least 6 hours must have passed since the accompanying Health and Safety Declaration 12/1 was issued. Berth The ship is allowed to go to the yard or repair company. Machine Translated by Google Within 25 meters of the cargo area, no fire may be present or may reasonably be expected to start. Permitted work 1. cargoCold area.work above or outside the cargo area and in K3 spaces outside the 2. Cold work in part of the cargo area. The application of The specified work depends on the condition of the cargo area and is determined on the basis of that condition. 3. Work with fire in any part of the cargo area. The applicability of specified activities depends on the condition of the cargo area and is determined on the basis of that condition. 4. Work with fire at least 25 meters outside the cargo area, but not in K3 spaces. Safety and health statement 13/1 Condition of the cargo area – The entire cargo area is safe for people and not safe for fire. However, since the Safety and Health Declaration 13/1 is the predecessor of the Safety and Health Declaration 13/2, care must be taken that the entire cargo area is safe from fire. The Health and Safety Declaration 13/2 can only be issued if at least 6 hours have passed since the issuance of the Safety and Health Declaration 13/1. There shall be no change in the condition of the entire cargo area during this period. Berth The ship is allowed to go to the yard or the repair company. Within 25 meters of the cargo area, no fire may be present or may reasonably be expected to start. Permitted work 1. Cold work outside or above the cargo area and in K3 areas outside the cargo zone. 2. Cold work throughout the cargo area. 3. Work with fire at least 25 meters outside the cargo area, but not in K3 spaces. Safety and health statement 13/2 Condition of the cargo area – The entire cargo area is safe for people and safe for fire. This established condition has remained unchanged after the issuance of the associated Health and Safety Declaration 13/1. In addition, at least 6 hours Machine Translated by Google have expired after the associated Health and Safety Declaration 13/1. Berth The ship may berth anywhere Permitted work 1. Cold work outside or above the cargo area and in K3 areas outside the cargo zone. 2. Cold work throughout the cargo area. 3. However, do not work with fire in, above and outside the entire cargo area in K3 spaces outside the cargo area. Safety and health statement 20 Condition of the cargo area – The cargo area is wholly or partly safe for people and safe from fire. Berth The ship may berth anywhere Permitted work 1. cargoCold area.work outside or above the cargo area and in K3 spaces outside the 2. Cold work in all or part of the cargo area. The applicability of specified activities depends on the condition of the cargo area and is determined on the basis of that condition. 3. Work with fire in confined spaces outside the cargo area, but not in K3 spaces outside the cargo area. 4. Work with fire above and beyond the entire cargo area. 5. Work with fire in all or part of the cargo area. The applicability of specified activities depends on the condition of the cargo area and is determined on the basis of that condition. Safety and health statement 31 Condition of the cargo area – The entire cargo area is not safe for people and not safe from fire. – The entire cargo area is safe for people and not safe for fire. Berth The ship may berth anywhere Permitted work Machine Translated by Google Cold work outside or above the cargo area and in K3 areas outside the 1. cargo area. 2. Cold work throughout the cargo area. 3. However, do not work with fire outside or above the cargo area in K3 spaces outside the cargo area. Declaration of health and safety 32 Condition of the cargo area – Part of the cargo area is not safe for people and not safe for firework. – Part of the cargo area is safe for people and not safe for fire. – The remainder of the cargo area is safe for people and safe for fire. Berth The ship may berth anywhere. Permitted work 1. Cold work outside or above the cargo area and in K3 areas outside the cargo zone. 2. Cold work throughout the cargo area. 3. Work with fire outside or above the cargo area, but not in K3 spaces outside the cargo area. 4. Work with fire in any part of the cargo area. The applicability of specified activities depends on the condition of the cargo area and is determined on the basis of that condition. Safety and health statement 33 Condition of the cargo area – The entire cargo area is safe for people and safe for fire. Berth The ship may berth anywhere. Permitted work 1. Cold work outside or above the cargo area and in K3 areas outside the cargo zone. 2. Cold work throughout the cargo area. 3. Work with fire in, above or outside the cargo area, but not in K3 spaces outside the cargo area. Safety and health declaration A/30 Machine Translated by Google Condition of the cargo area – The K3 spaces outside the cargo area are safe from fire. The condition of the spaces within the cargo area is not included in this Health and Safety Declaration. Permitted work 1. Cold work in K3 spaces outside the cargo area. 2. Work with fire in K3 spaces outside the cargo area. The Safety and Health Declaration A/30 is a so-called "Combination Safety and Health Declaration". This means that a Safety and Health Declaration A/30 may never be issued alone. This will always have to be done in combination with a Health and Safety Statement, which indicates the condition of the cargo area. Safety and health declaration A4 This Health and Safety Declaration is intended to revalidate a Health and Safety Declaration that has lost its validity Condition of the cargo area The condition of the cargo area is equal to the condition stated on the Health and Safety Declaration, which regains its validity when the Health and Safety Declaration A4 is issued. The models referred to in this appendix are available for inspection in the library of the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. Appendix X. belonging to Article 4.16 of the Working Conditions Regulation Jumpmaster certification scheme Section 1. Definitions Term or abbreviation Meaning a. Applicant for a : certificate The person who works at the certificate issuer applies for the issue of the certificate show jumping master b. calamity : A (serious) undesired event that poses a risk to Machine Translated by Google health and safety exists c. Certificate : A certificate show jumping master show jumping master as referred to in Article 4.8, second paragraph, of the Working Conditions Decree in conjunction with Article 20 of the Working conditions law . A certificate is considered a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity ) d. Certificate holder : Person in possession of a valid certificate show jumping master e. : The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment or Certificate Issuer one by the Minister institution designated by SZW as referred to in Article 1.5a of the Working Conditions Decree , that it certificate jumping master issued f. : All activities that the Certification procedure certificate issuer performed to arrive at the assessment and decision whether a person meets and continues to meet the conditions, as described in this certification scheme g. Competence : Power Demonstrated to impart knowledge and skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal Machine Translated by Google properties, as described in this certification scheme h. Expert : The person who has a has such theoretical and practical competence that he is able to work with explosive substances in a safe and adequate manner i. Entry criteria : In this certification scheme defined criteria, such as vocational training and work experience, that an applicant must meet in order to be admitted to the certification procedure j. Knowledge : Information of which the expert must be aware of and which the expert must know is important for working with explosive substances k. Explosive substance : Explosive substance as referred to in Article 4.8, first paragraph, of the Working Conditions Decree Section 2. Certification procedure The purpose of the certification procedure is to check whether the applicant has sufficient theoretical knowledge and work or practice experience to work with explosive substances. Article 2.1. Request certificate 1. The applicant submits the application to the certificate issuer. 2. The certificate issuer will process the application if documents are submitted by the applicant demonstrating that it meets the entry criteria. Machine Translated by Google 3. The applicant builds up a portfolio to demonstrate that it meets the entrance criteria, as stipulated in Article 2.2, for obtaining the certificate. This portfolio includes a description of the two jumping plans drawn up and implemented for each certificate level and, if applicable, for each application, a description of possible additional and further training activities performed by him. In any case, this portfolio includes projects and/or activities that meet the level set for the activities of the certificate holder, as described in this certification scheme. An activity/spring plan must also be accompanied by a statement from the client and/or the municipality where the activity was carried out, showing that the applicant has carried out this work. 4. If the applicant applies for a certificate for the first time and cannot yet submit jumping plans drawn up and executed by him because he has not yet performed his own activities, he must demonstrate that he has participated at least twice in activities performed by a showjumping master. This may also be work carried out in another country belonging to the European Economic Area, or in Switzerland. 5. If the fourth paragraph applies, the portfolio must contain a statement the presence of the showjumping master in whose activities the applicant has participated, and showing that he was involved in drawing up and carrying out those activities. 6. The portfolio can also include work performed prior to and during vocational training. 7. The conditions attached to a spring plan are included in Article 3.3. Article 2.2. Entry criteria 1. (Re)Certification requirements for Jumpmaster level 1: a. Basic course Safe Working with Explosives (Utrecht University of Applied Sciences or equivalent because the requirements referred to in Article 3.2, paragraph 1 have been met), also authorized to work in Industrial Cleaning; and b. Work experience (at least two self-prepared and executed jumping plans) and c. Recent Certificate of Good Conduct (VOG). The statement may the time of application must not be older than three months. 2. (Re)Certification requirements for Jumpmaster level 2: a. Basic course Working safely with explosives (Utrecht University of Applied Sciences or equivalent because the requirements referred to in Article 3.2, paragraph 2) and Application Course (Utrecht University of Applied Sciences) have been met or equivalent because the requirements referred to in Article 3.2, paragraph 2 have been met; and b. Work experience (at least two spring plans prepared and executed for the relevant application); and c. Recent Certificate of Good Conduct (VOG). The statement may the time of application must not be older than three months. The following specializations in any case fall under the application course, referred to at level 2: – Tall structures and buildings Machine Translated by Google – High buildings – Underwater – Open Slots – Warm masses Article 2.3. Assessment application certificate 1. The documents submitted by the applicant are reviewed by the certificate issuer. The assessment is aimed at determining whether the applicant meets the entry criteria. Then the decision is made whether the jumping master certificate is possible 2. be provided. 3. The decision to issue the jumping master certificate is taken by an officer of the certificate issuer who was not charged with or involved in reviewing the documents submitted by the applicant. Article 2.4. Cost assessment request 1. The costs associated with the assessment are for the account of the applicant. 2. The costs are currently: € 2,500. 3. The applicant must have paid the fees at the time of application, with proof of payment. Article 2.5. Certificate validity period The show jumping master certificate is valid for a maximum of five years from the date of issue. Article 2.6. Organization of the certificate At least the following information is stated on the show jumping master certificate to be issued to the certificate holder: a. name and date of birth of the certificate holder; b. unambiguous document or certificate number; c. name of the certificate issuer; d. scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; and e. the effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid. Article 2.7. Certificate Validity Conditions 1. During the term of the jumping master certificate, the following applies: conditions that the certificate holder must adhere to: a. the certificate holder immediately informs the certificate issuer of changes concerning his/her position, employer, home and work address; b. the certificate holder only uses the certificate as proof of his professional competence within the specified field; c. the certificate holder agrees to the recording of the data, referred to in Article 2.6, in the register referred to in Article 2.8; Machine Translated by Google d. the certificate holder keeps a record of complaints against its professional competence, and cooperates in the investigation of such complaints. 2. If the certificate holder does not or no longer complies with one or more of the above conditions, this will lead to a measure as referred to in Article 4.2. 3. The above is included in the certificate accompanying certification agreement signed by the certificate issuer and certificate holder. Article 2.8. Register for professional competence of jumping masters 1. The certificate issuer takes the data of the certificate holder, referred to in Article 2.6, in a register managed and maintained by him. 2. This register is public and accessible via the internet. Section 3. Jumping gear, jump master training and jump plan Article 3.1. Jumping categories 1. Jumping from low structures and building parts (certificate level I = basic certificate). This concerns the jumping of structures and objects, possibly in contact with ground (water), the highest point of which is no more than 6 meters above the surrounding level, and of separate construction parts that are not part of the load-bearing structure. Jumping individual construction parts from masonry, concrete or reinforced concrete. – Individual construction parts are parts that are moment of jumping do not absorb vertical loads. This is understood to mean: 1. non load-bearing walls; 2. foundations; 3. floors; 4. footpaths and driving deck elements such as beams, struts, etc., insofar as they are not jumped at the same time as constructions. – Collapse Mechanism: Total fragmentation. 2. Jumping from tall buildings (Certificate Level II Buildings and Tall Structures). This concerns the jumping of structures and objects whose highest point is more than 6 meters above the surrounding level and of separate construction parts that form part of the load-bearing construction. Jump from buildings and tall structures. – Buildings and tall structures where the part to be jumped is a substantial part of the load-bearing construction parts. – Collapse Mechanisms: 1. falling over or tipping over; 2. collapse upright; 3. collapse sideways. 3. Jumping of warm masses (certificate level II Warm masses). Machine Translated by Google This concerns the jumping of media where the explosive charge or jumping system is placed in, on or against a medium whose temperature is higher than 75°C. a. Jumping of masses where the explosive charge is in, on or against a medium is placed, the temperature of which is higher than 75 degrees Celsius; b. Jumping works where the temperature is above 75 degrees Celsius coming. 4. Jumping under water (certificate level II Under water). This concerns the jumping of media on or below the water surface of (open) waters, whereby the explosive charge or jumping system causes a shock wave that propagates through the water. a. Jumping works performed below the surface of open waters for the purpose of clearing obstacles, fragmenting rocks in rock bottoms and deepening fairways and harbors, removing rock sills and cliffs, jumping trenches for pipelines or cables, clearing obstacles at caisson foundations, salvaging shipwrecks and clearing obstacles or building parts made of masonry, concrete, reinforced concrete, steel or wood; b. Explosive works performed in open waters, where the explosive charges installed in boreholes or by divers. Jumping rocks and minerals in open quarries (certificate level II 5. open grooves). This concerns blasting works that are carried out for the extraction of rocks and minerals in open quarries. Article 3.2. Attainment targets for jumping master courses 1. The final objectives Level 1, if not the Basic course Working Safely with Explosives, referred to in Article 2.2, first paragraph, has been followed and obtained in: a. General and simple jumps: techniqueThe andstudent traininghas opportunities. an overview of the entire field 1°. jumping 2°. The student has knowledge of the relevant legislation and regulations. 3°. The student meets the basic qualifications of the relevant education. 4°. The student has knowledge of jumping technique, explosives and their properties or effects on materials and constructions, shock wave effect in the air, water and in the soil, effects or dangers for people and the environment and of safe distances. 5°. The student has knowledge of jumping chains and ignition circuits, the different types of explosives, charges, means of ignition, detonators, ignition systems, ignition devices, measuring and testing equipment, the effects on people and the environment and safe distances. 6°. The student has insight into the different jumping objects, constructions, the assessment and recognition and the selective application of failure mechanisms and fracture criteria, the type, method, placement and calculation of loads, ignition systems, methods, sequence and circuits, covering, elaboration and dangers for people and the environment, safe distances and the contents of a jump plan. Machine Translated by Google 7°. The student has proficiency in the use of explosives, the composition of charges and the construction or testing of ignition circuits or - devices. 8°. The student has insight into methods of transport, storage, disposal and destruction of explosives. 2. The final attainment levels Level 2, if not the Basic Course Working Safely with Explosives, referred to in Article 2.2, second paragraph, and the relevant Application Course, referred to in Article 2.2, second paragraph, have been followed and passed at: a. Jumping from buildings and tall structures: The jump master of buildings and tall structures is a trained, skilled person who removes (parts of) buildings and tall structures using explosive charges to be applied according to a specific jump plan. of the effect Theofstudent explosives has 1° oninbuildings relation and to buildings structures, andshock high structures. wave effectknowledge in the air, water and in the soil, effects or dangers for people and the environment and of safe distances. chains and Theignition studentcircuits has knowledge to be usedofinbuildings constructions, and high the 2°. different jump types of explosives, charges of ignition means, detonators, ignition systems, ignition devices, measuring and testing equipment, the effect on people and the environment and safe distances. 3°. The student has insight into the buildings and high constructions common structures, the assessment and recognition and the selective application of failure mechanisms and fracture criteria, the type, method, placement and calculation of loads, ignition systems, methods, sequence and circuits, covering, elaboration and hazards to people and the environment, safe distances and the contents of a jump plan. 4°. The student has the skills to draw up and execute (or have executed) a complete spring plan for a building or high structure and the total organization around it. b. Jumping under water: The underwater jump master is a trained, skilled person, who performs underwater jumping operations using explosive charges to be applied according to a specific jump plan. 1°. In relation to jumping underwater, the student has knowledge of the effect of explosives on (hydraulic) structures, shock wave effect in the air, water and in the soil, effects or dangers for people and the environment and of safe distances. 2°. The student has knowledge of how to use it when jumping under water jump chains and ignition circuits, the different types of explosives, charges of ignition means, detonators, ignition systems, ignition devices, measuring and testing equipment, the effects for people and the environment and safe distances. 3°. The student has insight into the bee jumping under water common structures, the assessment and recognition and the selective application of failure mechanisms and fracture criteria, the type, method, placement and calculation of loads, ignition systems, methods, sequence and circuits, covering, effects and hazards for people and the environment, safe distances and the contents of a spring plan. Machine Translated by Google 4°. The student is skilled in drawing up and implementing a complete jumping plan for jumping under water and the total organization around it. c. Jumping in open grooves: The open quarry jump master is a trained, skilled person, who jumps soil and/or stony materials in open quarries, using explosive charges to be placed in boreholes according to a standard jumping plan. The work consists of frequently repeating (the same) process steps. 1°. In relation to jumping in open grooves, the student has knowledge of the effect of explosives on structures, shock wave effect in the air, water and the soil, effects or dangers for people and the environment and of safe distances. 2°. The student has knowledge of jump chains and ignition circuits to be used when jumping in open grooves, the different types of explosives, charges of ignition means, igniters, ignition systems, ignition devices, measuring and testing equipment, the effects for people and the environment and safe distances. 3°. The student has insight into the extraction techniques occurring when jumping into open quarries, the assessment, recognition and the selective application of failure mechanisms and fracture criteria, the type, method, placement and calculation of loads, ignition systems, methods, sequence and circuits, covering , elaboration and dangers for people and the environment, safe distances and the content of a jump plan. 4°. The student has skill in drawing up and performing conducting a complete jump plan for jumping in open grooves and the total organization around it. Article 3.3. Spring plan requirements 1. The form of the spring plan is described in this article and applies to both a spring plan level 1 and 2: Element Check Date and version designation with status indication (final or provisional) Signed by show jumping master who requests the certificate and possibly the certified supervisor Prepared in the Dutch or English language Address details of the location where the jumping work was performed Machine Translated by Google Calculations with the correct (SI) units and verifiable against the drawings with motivation Drawings provided with scale and sufficient dimensions, at least floor plans and views of the object to be jumped Situation drawing with indication of danger zone and to be protected objects with sizes and scale 2. The content of the jump plan must be a sound and comprehensive contain a description of the jumping gear and what is associated with it. For each part it is indicated whether drawings or calculations are expected for this part. A single part is optional. The content is divided into the following chapters: 1. General data drawings check / calculations optional comment project and object Part Project within which the object to be jumped falls On which the jump plan is based in terms of drawings, assumptions and wishes of the client Object in dimensions and X material (also to assess whether it is level I or II ) Applicable laws and regulations for the execution of the jumping gear (including depending on the country) 2. Jumping technique Part drawings calculations optional check/ remark To take X safety precautions Machine Translated by Google (certain danger zone, pipes to be protected, how to counteract the shock wave, etc.) to handle X failure method or desired fragmentation How the fragmentation or failure method is achieved Possible to apply X weakening or reinforcements All charge X calculations (Q-value and type of explosive (with motivation)) X All borehole plans X and load X distribution per borehole (with motivation) All circuits and X introduction plan (with motivation) The method of covering (with motivation) How to act in special weather conditions Total overview of the amount of primary and secondary X explosives to be used and method of transport and storage 3. Persons involved in the explosives Component drawings calculations optional check/ remark Client total work Client jumping work Jumpmaster and assistants Supplier(s) explosives Advisors (vibrations, X Machine Translated by Google safety, etc) x Permit issuers (municipality, transport, etc.) 4. Attachments Part drawings calculations optional check/ remark Drawings X Calculations X Quality declaration result jumping work of the Client Risk assessment and evaluation Certificates X References X Confirmation of order X Photos object X and jumping result Section 4. Supervision and enforcement Article 4.1. Supervision The certificate holder cooperates in supervision by the supervisor, as referred to in Article 24, paragraphs 1 and 2, of the Working Conditions Act. Article 4.2. Change of conditions or withdrawal of certificate The certificate issuer can set further conditions or revoke a certificate (conditionally, temporarily or permanently) if the certificate holder does not or no longer meets the conditions as described in or pursuant to the Working Conditions Decree or in this certification scheme, or if the work performed or the way in which he carries out these activities, causes or may cause serious danger to persons. Furthermore, the certificate can be revoked at the request of the certificate holder. Article 4.3. Intention to take measure 1. If there is an intention to take a measure such as referred to in Article 4.2, this will be communicated to the certificate holder in good time. 2. When taking a measure, other than definitive withdrawal of the certificate, the certificate issuer indicates which actions a certificate holder must take and within what period he must do so. Machine Translated by Google 3. Before taking any measure, the certificate issuer shall depositary receipt holder has the opportunity to give his opinion on the matter. 4. The certificate issuer checks the implementation of the certificate holder actions. the register A withdrawal referred toofinthe Article show 2.8. jumping master certificate will be processed immediately in 5. Article 4.4. New request after certificate withdrawal If a certificate holder wishes to be certified again after the withdrawal of the show jumping master certificate, he will go through the certification procedure that applies to initial certification, if necessary with due observance of the term referred to in Article 1.5g, first paragraph, under b. , of the Working Conditions Decree. Annex XI. belonging to Article 4.17e Field-specific document for designation and supervision of certification bodies charged with: system certification in the field of Detecting Conventional Explosives Document: WDAT-OCE: 2012, version 1 Under the management of: Fireworks & Explosives Certification Foundation (SCVE) Index 1 Introduction 99 2 Definitions 99 3 Field-specific 100 features 3.1 Description document 100 3.2 Active parties 100 3.3 Risk analysis 100 4 Requirements for 101 the clue 4.1 General 101 4.2 Requirements to 102 certification staff 4.3 Information on the 102 certificate 4.4 Change of 103 Machine Translated by Google certification requirements 4.5 Initial audit and 103 certification 4.6 Supervision of the 103 certificate holder 4.7 Suspension, revocation 103 or limitation of scope 4.8 Exchange of 103 findings between CKI and government agency 4.9 Designation criteria 104 5 Supervision 104 6 Measures 105 1 Introduction Detecting conventional explosives is a high-risk professional activity. In order to safeguard the public interest – safety and health in connection with work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for detecting conventional explosives. The certificate is issued by CKIs under this scheme. In order to be allowed to issue certificates, a CKI must be designated for this purpose by the Minister of SZW. This is done by checking against this WDA&T and the requirements of the law. This document indicates which rules and procedures the relevant CKIs must adhere to. 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a certificate : The (legal) person who applies to the certification body to issue a certificate for the detecting conventional explosives. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Machine Translated by Google Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, WDA&T, on the basis of which the National Accreditation Body reports in writing whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates. When determining the WDA&T by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is aligned as much as possible with international systems and standards. CCvD OCE : The Central College of Experts, part of and facilitated by SCVE, that interested parties in the field of the detecting conventional explosives offers the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act . Machine Translated by Google Certificate Holder : (Legal) person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a (legal) person complies and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Inspection body Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Complaint : Oral, telephone or written statement showing that the requirements are not met Machine Translated by Google whether expectations have been met. SCVE : Fireworks & Explosives Certification Foundation. The manager of the certification scheme detect conventional explosives and the associated field- specific document for designation and supervision. Supervision : Gathering the information about the question whether an act or thing meets the requirements set for it, it is formed afterwards of a judgment about it and, if necessary, to cause to intervene. WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must meet in order to be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WDAT-OCE : Field-specific document for Designation and Supervision for the system certificate Detecting Conventional Explosives (OCE). Document number: WDAT-OCE: 2012, version 1. WSCS : Term used by SZW Machine Translated by Google for a field-specific certification scheme that has been accepted by the Minister of SZW for use within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WSCS-OCE : Field-specific certification scheme for the System Certificate Detecting Conventional Explosives (OCE). Document number: WSCS OCE: 2012, version 1. 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. Description document This field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDAT-OCE) relates to the detection of Conventional Explosives that were left behind in the (water) bed during the First and Second World War. This field-specific document has been adopted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. Comments or comments about the certification scheme can be submitted to the Central Board of Experts OCE. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this document for designation and supervision have been involved in the preparation. •. The Fireworks & Explosives Certification Foundation (SCVE). SCVE manages the field-specific certification scheme for the system certificate Detecting Conventional Explosives (WSCS-OCE) and this WDAT-OCE and as such is authorized to enter into agreements with CKIs for the issue of certificates on the basis of this certification scheme. A CKI must also be designated for this by SZW. •. The Central Board of Experts OCE (CCvD OCE). 3.3. Risk analysis System certification aims to provide stakeholders with confidence that a management system meets established requirements. This confidence is based on the CKI's compliance with the principles described below. If this is not met, Machine Translated by Google this leads to risks with regard to the functioning of the CKI and the confidence of stakeholders in the certification scheme Detecting Conventional Explosives can be damaged and, for example, certificates could be wrongly issued or refused. In the WSCS-OCE, as well as in this document, it is specified specifically for the system certification scheme Detecting Conventional Explosives how the aforementioned principles must be implemented by the CKI. This is to prevent the risks related to these principles from manifesting themselves. Impartiality It is important that the CKI establishes in its policies and procedures that all applicants for the system certificate are treated fairly and equally. The CKI can base this on what is stated in the certification requirements and the certification regulations for the detection of conventional explosives. The CKI may not prevent or hinder certificate applicants from accessing the certification procedure. Decisions of the CKI must be based on objective evidence of (non-)conformity in relation to the certification requirements and must not be influenced by other interests or other parties. Expertise It is important that the CKI has access to sufficient employees, including responsible management, with the necessary education, training, professional expertise and experience to be able to perform the certification tasks related to the system certification Detecting Conventional Explosives. Responsibility It is important that the CKI has policies and procedures in place with regard to the granting, maintenance, re-issuance, suspension and revocation of the system certificate. Detecting Conventional Explosives, as well as with regard to extending or limiting the scope of the certificate. The CKI is responsible for collecting sufficient objective and relevant evidence for taking a certification decision. When sufficient evidence of conformity with the certification requirements has been gathered, the CKI decides to grant the system certificate Detecting Conventional Explosives to the applicant in question. If insufficient evidence of conformity has been collected, this will lead to the rejection of the application for the Conventional Explosives Detection System Certificate by the CKI. If certification activities are outsourced to an external party by the CKI, this is based on a written agreement. This describes the duties, powers and responsibilities of both parties, as well as the arrangements regarding confidentiality and the prevention of conflicts of interest. Taking a certification decision cannot be outsourced by the CKI to third parties. Openness Machine Translated by Google In order to guarantee confidence in certification, it is important that the CKI ensures that non- confidential information about the certification process (for example, investigation into complaints) is accessible to parties with an interest in it. Confidentiality For the purpose of the certification process, it is important that the CKI has proprietary information and data of applicants and certificate holders. The CKI must treat this information confidentially to prevent unauthorized persons from gaining access to this information. that customers object to their collection and storage. Admissibility for complaints Parties with an interest in certification expect complaints to be investigated and, if justified, followed up by appropriate measures. Effective complaint handling is important for protecting the CKI, its customers and other certification stakeholders against errors, omissions or unreasonable behaviour. The confidence placed by stakeholders in certification partly depends on this. 4. Requirements for the designation 4.1. General The assessment and designation of CKIs for this designation and supervision scheme takes place on the basis of ISO/IEC 17021 and IAF-MD1 up to and including IAF-MD5, as well as the requirements imposed on the CKI on the basis of the present designation scheme and supervision. Where this document does not deviate from the accreditation standard ISO/IEC 17021 resp. If this standard is not further specified, the requirements of this accreditation standard apply in full. 4.2. Requirements for certification personnel When performing assessments and issuing, suspending and revoking certificates according to WSCS-OCE, the following functions are distinguished: auditor and decision maker. The requirements of paragraphs 7.2.1 to 7.2.12 of ISO 17021 apply in full to these functions and the policy and actions of the CKI in relation to these functions. The requirements specifically imposed on these personnel in the context of OCE system certification are set out below: displayed. 4.2.1. Qualifications lead auditor The lead auditors deployed by the CKI to perform assessments in the context of the WSCS-OCE must meet the following requirements: be in possession of a completed HBO/WO education, or a 1) comparable work and thinking level; Machine Translated by Google 2) be in possession of a lead assessor certificate obtained through training of at least 40 hours (at least ISO 9001, quality management systems level); 3) knowledge of the WSCS-OCE and the current WDAT-OCE and possibly other documents established by the CCvD OCE; 4) at least four years of relevant work experience; 5) have a certificate Basic knowledge OCE. The root certificate can are obtained according to the WSCS-OCE (in-company examination or examination via an independent examination organisation). Independent examinations take place via www.examering-oce.nl. The attainment targets for the Basic Certificate OCE can be found in Appendix 2 of the WSCS-OCE; 6) qualified as a lead auditor for . within the certification body quality management systems and safety management systems (at least VCA level). 4.2.2. Qualification requirements decision maker The decision-maker deployed by the CKI for the certification audit must meet the following requirements: 1) be in possession of a completed HBO/WO education, or a comparable work and thinking level; 2) be in possession of a lead assessor certificate obtained through training of at least 40 hours; 3) no involvement in the direct execution of the certification audit of the relevant applicant; 4) knowledge of the WSCS-OCE and the current WDAT-OCE; 5) at least two years of relevant work experience; 6) have the authority of one's own organization to take decisions in the context of the certification process. 4.2.3. Subject matter expert (Technical expert) The professional expert deployed by the CKI for the certification audit must meet the following requirements: thinking level; be in possession of an HBO/WO education in the technical sector, or an 1) equivalent work and 2) knowledge of the WSCS-OCE and the current WDAT-OCE and possibly other documents established by the CCvD OCE; 3) have a basic knowledge OCE certificate. The root certificate can in accordance with the WSCS-OCE are obtained according to internal company examination or examination via an independent examination organization. Independent examinations take place via www.examering-oce.nl. The final objectives for the Basic Certificate OCE can be found in Appendix 2 of the WSCS-OCE (at least at VCA level); 4) at least two years of relevant work experience; 4.3. Information on the certificate Machine Translated by Google The data on the OCE system certificate must be in accordance with the requirements of sections 8.2.1 to 8.2.3 of ISO 17021. The data that must be specifically stated on the certificate in the context of OCE system certification are: •. period of validity of the certificate (3 years); •. the number of the Chamber of Commerce under which the CKI is located registered in the Trade Register; •. the reference of the designation order of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment; •. the SCVE logo, in accordance with the specifications to be provided by SCVE. 4.4. Change of certification requirements The CKI concludes an agreement with SCVE. The CKI undertakes on the basis of this agreement to use the documents established by the CCvD OCE, in any case consisting of the WSCS-OCE and WDAT-OCE. The CKI applies these documents in full. The CKI cannot determine which elements of the certification scheme and any other documents determined by the CCvD OCE will be changed. Change proposals are submitted by the CKI to the CCvD. The CCvD then decides whether an amendment to the certification scheme is desirable and, if so, which transitional arrangement should apply to it, after which the Minister of SZW will assess whether or not the amendment proposal and the transitional arrangement will be adopted unchanged. The CKI must immediately notify the certificate holders if the requirements for certification according to the WSCS-OCE are going to change. 4.5. Initial audit and certification The method to be followed by the CKI in the initial certification audit must be in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs 9.2.1 to 9.2.5.2 of ISO 17021. In addition to this, the relevant provisions and procedures from the WSCS-OCE are taken into account when deciding on certification applications. The validity period of certificates cannot be extended automatically. 4.6. Supervision of the certificate holder The method to be followed by the CKI in the supervision of holders of the OCE system certificate must be in accordance with the requirements of sections 9.3.1.1 and 9.3.1.2 of ISO 17021. In addition to this, the provisions and procedures from the WSCS-OCE observed by the CKI. 4.7. Suspension, Revocation or Limitation of Scope The procedures to be followed by the CKI with regard to the suspension or revocation of an OCE system certificate or limitation of the scope (scope) of an OCE system certificate shall be in accordance with the requirements of Sections 9.6.1 to 9.6.7 of ISO 17021. In addition to this, in the event of suspension or withdrawal of a Machine Translated by Google system certificate OCE or limitation of the scope (scope) of an OCE system certificate, the provisions and procedures from the WSCS-OCE taken into account by the CKI. 4.8. Exchange of findings between CKI and government agency If the CKI is informed in writing by the Inspectorate SZW, or by another government agency, about a sanction imposed by this agency (shutdown, official report or heavy fine) on a certificate holder or applicant, the CKI to act as follows: a. The CKI first establishes whether the facts on the basis of which the Inspectorate SZW sanction also includes one or more deviations from the WSCS-OCE. b. If the facts on the basis of which the Inspectorate SZW has imposed a sanction If imposed do contain one or more deviations from the WSCS-OCE, measures are imposed in accordance with paragraph 5.4 of the WSCS-OCE. c. If the facts on the basis of which the Inspectorate SZW has imposed a sanction do not entail any deviations from the WSCS-OCE, the CKI will determine whether there is reason to carry out additional assessments of the certificate holder/applicant. d. The certificate holder/applicant and the Inspectorate SZW are informed in writing by the CKI of the decision-making and actions of the CKI in response to the sanction imposed by the Inspectorate SZW and the notification thereof to the CKI. e. The CKI and the Inspectorate SZW can determine the method of information exchange further arrangements, provided that the provisions of this paragraph are taken into account. If, when carrying out assessments, the CKI encounters situations in which the safety or health of employees or third parties has been or will be endangered by the organisation, the Inspectorate SZW will be informed of this. It also states which measures are being taken by the CKI. The CKI informs the organization that the Inspectorate SZW has been informed. 4.9. Designation Criteria In the context of its designation on the basis of Articles 1.5a to 1.5d Working Conditions Decree, the CKI is assessed against the following criteria: 4.9.1 The designated CKI and the employees charged with the inspections or assessments shall carry them out with the highest degree of professional integrity. 4.9.2 There is an integrity policy, which is set out in clear rules where necessary worked out. The staff has demonstrably complied with this. 4.9.3 The designated CKI acts with integrity and not outside its powers in the market. 4.9.4 The personnel of the designated CKI is demonstrably bound by professional secrecy with regard to all that has come to their knowledge in the performance of their duties within the framework of the decision, except vis-à-vis the competent government authorities. 4.9.5 The designated CKI is an administrative body within the meaning of the General Act administrative law and must comply with administrative legislation such as the General Administrative Law Act, the Open Government Act and the Public Records Act 1995. Machine Translated by Google 4.9.6 The designated CKI must have third-party liability insurance that provides adequate cover for reasonably foreseeable risks. 4.9.7 The designated CKI must have a procedure in which it is arranged that in In the event of a suspected imminent threat to safety, this is immediately reported by the employee concerned, stating that the institution will inform the interested parties as soon as possible, including the relevant government agency if applicable. 4.9.8 Upon termination of the activities by the designated CKI, he/she must to inform the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment immediately. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines what the (formerly) appointed CKI should do with the files, and the (formerly) designated CKI must cooperate with this. This does not indemnify the (previously) appointed CKI from any liability for errors in inspections or assessments it has carried out. 4.9.9 The designated CKI must have the following procedures in writing: an opinion procedure (section 4.1.2 Awb), an objection procedure (chapters 6 and 7 Awb) and a complaints procedure (chapter 9 Awb). . 4.9.10 The designated CKI must be demonstrably represented in the national consultation of the institutions, organized by the CCvD. The CCvD represents the Netherlands in the European NoBo consultation and the CKIs participate in the consultation with the CCvD. The CKIs must be able to demonstrate that they implement the agreements made in consultation with the CCvD. 4.9.11 Notification obligation of refusing, suspending or revoking certificates to the other CKIs and NoBos respectively. 4.9.12 With regard to the sanctions/measures to be imposed, the Cki adheres to the sanctions and measures policy established. In the event of manifest unreasonableness, the CKI has the authority to deviate from this on the basis of the Awb. Deviation only takes place on the basis of arguments to be put forward by the certificate holder. The substantiation for the deviation is included in the decision on the sanction imposed. Deviations are registered by the cki. 4.9.13 All documents and registrations in communication with the government must be in Dutch unless otherwise agreed with the government. 4.9.14 Prohibition of sub-outsourcing of the issuance of certificates and the related prior assessment and decision. 5. Supervision In connection with the obligations in the context of supervision, the following articles apply; Articles 1.5b and 1.5c Working Conditions Decree and Article 1.1a Working Conditions Regulations. For the purpose of collecting information, the CKI must: a) Report to SZW in writing before 1 March each year about the legitimacy and effectiveness of the performance in each field of activity for which the institution has been designated by the Minister of SZW (the written justification is sent to the SZW Inspectorate). This written report covers at least the following topics: 1. the issued, suspended, withdrawn or rejected certificates; Machine Translated by Google 2. changes in the accreditations, regulations and procedures relating to the professional field of the institution; 3. changes in the composition of the board; 4. amendments to the articles of association or the internal regulations; 5. work outsourced to third parties; 6. structural bottlenecks in the work field of the institution that have arisen in the implementation practice; 7. the consultation and cooperation in the field with other certification bodies; 8. complaints received by the institution and the manner of handling of them; objections lodged against the decisions of the institution and 9. cases brought and the manner in which they are handled; 10. a financial report on the activities for which the setting is recommended. 11. The number of times per calendar year that the sanctions and measures policy are deviated from. b) To cooperate in checks on behalf of SZW (in practice this means: that the checks can be carried out by the Inspectorate SZW and the national accreditation body) . c) Provide timely and correct information that SZW needs to be able to assess whether it continues to meet the designation standards (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW or the national accreditation body). d) Immediately provide information to SZW and to the administrator of the schedule in the context of their registration task, about individual certificates/certificate holders on whom a sanction has been imposed (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW). e) Provide information to the Inspectorate SZW about the way in which they has issued depositary receipts and the way in which it periodically assesses the actions of depositary receipt holders. f) To demonstrate to SZW that it adequately checks whether certificate holders continue to meet the certification requirements (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the SZW Inspectorate, or national accreditation body). In any case, the frequency, nature and extent (duration) of the checks are shown. to inform SZW as soon as it intends to fulfill one or more of its tasks g) terminate. h) to inform SZW as soon as it submits an application for an additional accreditation or assessment based on a legal specific scheme. 6. Measures If the designated institution no longer meets the requirements in this scheme, this may have consequences for the designation. See policy measure measures policy certification Working Conditions Act and Commodities Act, Scrt. 2010, no. 10839 of July 14, 2010. Machine Translated by Google Annex XII. belonging to Article 4.17f Field-specific certification scheme for the system certificate Detection Conventional explosives Document: WSCS-OCE Index 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. Description scheme 3.2. Active parties 3.3. Risk analysis and infringement criteria 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective 4.2. Certification procedure 4.3. Certification decision 4.4. Validity period of the certificate 4.5. Information on the certificate 4.6. Complaints 4.7. Objection procedure 4.8. OCE Certificate Register 4.9. Norm Interpretation 5. Supervision 5.1. Data provision and access project location 5.2. Frequency and method of supervision 5.3. Report of findings 5.4. Measures 6. To demand 6.1. General demands 6.2. Requirements management personnel Machine Translated by Google 6.3. Requirements management resources 6.4. Requirements management system 6.5. Process requirements preliminary investigation 6.6. Process requirements detection 6.7. Supervision of research activities in OCE suspicious area Attachment 1: Communication with EODD Appendix 2: Attainment targets OCE experts Attachment 3: Determine suspect area and demarcation in preliminary investigation Appendix 4: Requirements for material Appendix 5: Requirements for protective measures Appendix 6: Requirements provision for temporary safeguarding situation model certificate Appendix 7: 1 Introduction The field-specific certification scheme WSCS-OCE relates to the detection of Conventional Explosives that were left behind in the (water) bed during the First and Second World War. This field-specific certification scheme has been drawn up by the Fireworks & Explosives Certification Foundation (SCVE). This certification scheme will be established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This Certification Scheme for the Conventional Explosives Detection System Certificate (WSCS-OCE) replaces the Assessment Guideline for the Conventional Explosives Detection Process Certificate (BRL-OCE). The objective of this certification scheme is threefold: •. ensure that high-risk activities are sufficiently safe for the own personnel and third parties present on the project are carried out; •. ensure that risky activities are carried out in such a way and with that expertise is carried out that local residents are safe and that public order and public safety are guaranteed; •. ensure that the preliminary investigation and/or the investigation according to the awarded contract is carried out and delivered (to be recorded in the delivery report). Machine Translated by Google The scope of the Certification Scheme for the Detection of Conventional Explosives system certificate is divided into two sub-areas, namely: •. Sub-area A: Investigation (including preliminary investigation); •. Sub-area B: Civil engineering support. Paragraph 2 does not apply to subarea A:6.6.11. The following paragraphs do not apply to subarea B: 6.1.2, 6.3.3, 6.5, 6.6.2.1, 6.6.3, 6.6.4, 6.6.7, 6.6.8, 6.6.9, 6.6.10, 6.6 .12 and 6.7. Organizations are free to become proficient and set up for one or both sub-areas and then to apply for one or both certificates. The certificate states for which sub-area(s) the certificate has been issued. This certification scheme is made up of two parts, namely Part I with general provisions and Part II with standards. The standards that the certification body(s) must meet in order to be designated by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment for certifying companies in accordance with this certification scheme are included in the Field-specific document for designation and supervision belonging to the WSCS-OCE. . 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a certificate : The (legal) person who applies to the certification body to issue a certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate : Organization under the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment that advises the minister on the recognition of CKIs. Also supervisor and supervisory body in the context of this certification scheme. To approach : Doing it cyclically detecting, locating Machine Translated by Google and excavated layer by layer, in order to be able to determine the presence of a suspected CE safely and effectively. Rating : Assessment by the national accreditation body on the basis of the WDA&T established by the Minister of SZW, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the body is competent to issue legally required certificates. When adopting the WDA&T by the Minister of SZW is aligned as much as possible with international systems and standards. CCvD OCE : The Central Board of Experts OCE, part of and/ facilitated by the SCVE, that interested parties in the field of the detection of conventional explosives offers the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field- specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of Machine Translated by Google these parties. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act . In addition, a certificate must be considered as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : (Legal) person in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a (legal) person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Inspection body Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, Machine Translated by Google inspection bodies and test institutes. civil engineering : Includes the entire support organization and implementation of civil engineering activities that the enable CE detection and are carried out under the ultimate responsibility of an organization certified for area A. Combination : Temporary partnership of an organization certified in accordance with sub-area A and an organization certified in accordance with sub-area B, who jointly carry out a project. The responsibilities and liabilities of both parties are laid down in a cooperation/ combination agreement and are further elaborated in the project plan. Conventional : Any explosive that does Explosives (CE) not qualify as improvised, nuclear, biological or chemical. During the investigation process, CE is equated with and treated as such: • CE that no longer contains explosive substances; • remnants of CE that are recognizable as such by laymen; • objects used by Machine Translated by Google laymen can be classified as CE; • weapons or parts thereof. There are 16 main types of conventional explosives: 1. small caliber ammunition (KKM) 2. artillery ammunition 3. hand grenades 4. rifle grenades 5. ammunition for grenade launchers 6. missiles 7. drop-off ammunition 8. sub-munitions 9. underwater ammunition 10. land mines 11. traps 12. explosive substances 13. fireworks 14. destruction tools 15. detonators 16. accessories for ammunition. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKI against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Expert : Person who is demonstrable has the knowledge and experience to comply with the applicable requirements in the WSCS-OCE. To detect : Determining the presence of (possible) CE by carrying out a measurement and interpretation of the measurement data. Becomes Machine Translated by Google distinction is made between real-time detection and non- real-time detection. Real-time detection: Detect where the measurement data is directly interpreted and the significant objects are located directly. Non-real-time detection: Detect where the measurement data is saved and interpreted at a later time. Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. EODD : Explosive Ordnance Disposal Service Fact Material : Verified data that conclusively demonstrates certain events or facts. Identify : Determining whether or not a CE and then determining the number, species, subspecies and state of reinforcement (armed or unarmed CE) of Machine Translated by Google any detonator(s) installed, caliber and nationality. Interpretation: Assessing the measurement data of detection with as final goal is to identify significant objects. A significant object produces such a disturbance (expressed in a unit associated with the detection method) that, given the search, this is an indication of the possible presence of a CE. Excavated layer by layer: By excavating layer by layer, the object is exposed, so that it can be observed. Localize : Determining the location of detected objects (x, y and z coordinate). ammunition separation : Separating CE from (water) bottom material by means of a separation installation, after which identification can take place. Research area : Area within which by the organization conducts a preliminary investigation or criminal investigation. Client : Natural or legal person with whom a formal agreement is entered into for the purpose of activities in the under this Machine Translated by Google regulation. delivery : Transfer of the completed work of the contractor (the organization) to the client. Detection : The whole of the organization and execution of work preparation, detecting, locating and layer-by- layer excavation, identifying the suspected CE, temporary securing of the situation, transfer to the EODD and Delivery report. investigation company : Organization that carries out activities within the framework of this Regulation for the purpose of detecting CE. Detection Area : The area within the suspect area within which the organization to carry out investigations. Organization : The natural or legal entity that is certified for the WSCS- OCE, or is in procedure for this. Transfer to the EODD : The transfer in person of the Senior OCE expert of the CE found by the organization (sub-area A) to EODD by means of the transfer protocol. The transfer takes place Machine Translated by Google at the location where the explosive was found or in the facility for temporarily securing the situation and in the physical presence of both parties. Project : (Combination of) activities within a defined time frame for the purpose of detecting and, if necessary, having CE removed as referred to in this certification scheme. Project-related RI&E : The inventory and evaluation of the risks associated with the detection of CE. Project plan : Documented plan detailing the interrelationships between parties involved, as well as the (planned) progress, agreements, supervision, documentation and procedures have been recorded in order to be able to carry out the project in an adequate and safe manner. RI&E : The inventory and evaluation of the risks associated with the work environment. There can be a distinction are made between occupational health and safety risks, covered by the RI&E obligation from the Working Conditions Act , activity-related risks (TRA) and Machine Translated by Google project-related RI&E. Risk analysis : Analysis showing certification scheme motivation for choices to be made in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. SCVE : Fireworks & Explosives Certification Foundation (SCVE) which manages the statutory certification scheme WSCS-OCE. Task Risk Analysis (TRA): Overview of activity-related risks and therefrom resulting preventive or risk-reducing measures. Temporary securing: of the All activities na situation approach and identification required to control the development risks of the CE in relation to the environment up to the time of transfer of the CE to the EODD. When temporarily securing the situation, no disassembly operations are performed on the CE itself conducted. Supervision : Gathering the information about the question whether an act or matter meets the requirements set for it, the subsequent formation of an opinion about it and the possibly to Machine Translated by Google cause to intervene. (Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations, The framework-setting vision on supervision). Field of competence: field of work, Indication of the the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a certain field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Suspicious area : The part of it area of research in which the presence of CE is suspected on the basis of preliminary investigations. Preliminary investigation : Research that aims has to rate whether there are indications that CE is present within the research area, and if so, to demarcate the suspect area in horizontal and vertical dimensions. It preliminary investigation consists of both an inventory and assessing (analyzing) source material. End result is a report and an associated CE soil load map. VTVS : Provision for the Machine Translated by Google temporarily secure the situation. WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must meet in order to be appointed by the Minister of SZW. It also contains the conditions within which designation takes place. WDAT-OCE : Field-specific document for Designation and Supervision for the Detecting Conventional Explosives (OCE) system certificate. Document number: WDAT-OCE: 2012, version 1. WSCS : Term used by SZW for a field-specific certification scheme that has been accepted by the Minister of SZW for use within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WSCS-OCE : Field-specific certification scheme for the System Certificate Detecting Conventional Explosives (OCE). Document number: WSCS-OCE. 3. Field-specific characteristics Machine Translated by Google In order to safeguard the public interest – safety and health in and around work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for assuring the quality/safety of detecting conventional explosives. 3.1. Description scheme The field-specific certification scheme WSCS-OCE relates to the detection of Conventional Explosives that were left behind in the (water) bed during the First and Second World War. The professional field-specific document has been adopted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. After consultation with the professional field, the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can make changes to the established schedule. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. Comments or comments about the certification scheme can be submitted to the OCE Board of Experts. 3.2. Active parties The following types of parties are mainly active within the framework of this certification scheme: •. SCVE; •. Central Board of Experts Detecting Conventional Explosives (CCvD OCE); •. Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment (Working Conditions Policy); •. Department of Defense; •. Explosive Ordnance Disposal Service (EODD); •. Ministry of the Interior and Kingdom Relations; •. Municipalities (maintenance of public order and safety); •. Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate (supervision and enforcement of working conditions); •. Certification body(s) for this certification scheme; •. certificate holders; •. Clients. 3.3. Risk analysis and detriment criteria The main risk in the field of detecting conventional explosives is the unexpected encounter of CE when carrying out work in the (water) bed and/or the inexpert and careless handling of the CE found. As a result, there is a danger of CE coming into effect undesirably and that can have major consequences. The most important of these are air pressure, shock wave and fragmentation, which pose a major risk to the health and safety of employees and other persons involved in the detection of CE. The aforementioned risk arises if prior to (construction) projects no/insufficient research is carried out into the possible presence of CE and/or the detection of CE takes place in a careless and/or incompetent manner. In the latter case, the risk of unexpectedly finding CE also arises Machine Translated by Google as soon as the regular (construction) work is started after an investigation project. In this regard, reference is also made to the objectives of this certification scheme as mentioned in Chapter 1. In order to limit the risks of the undesired development of CE as much as possible, the preliminary investigation and detection of CE, including the civil technical support, must take place in an expert, careful and structured manner. For this purpose, part II of this certification scheme sets requirements for: •. the organization (the company/certificate holder); •. the staff and resources; •. the process (approach and method of detecting CE). The main risk of unexpectedly encountering CE when carrying out work in the (water) bed and/or incompetent and careless handling of the CE found is elaborated in table 3.1 in impairment criteria. The elaboration of this is shown in field-specific requirements for each infringement criterion, with a reference to the relevant standard paragraphs in this certification scheme. Table 3.1: risk analysis, detriment criteria and elaboration in field-specific requirements Violation Criteria PROCESS ORGANIZATION PERSONNEL & RESOURCES Standard elaboration § s elaboration of standards s elaboration of standards Unexpected encounter Requirements for 6.5 Requirements for 6.2, appendix 2 6.3, Requirements for the 6.1, 6.4 of CE during preliminary investigation expertise of work. appendices 3 to 5 6.3.3 in (water)bed personnel and the organization, including: • laws and regulations; • RI&E/TRA; • demonstrability thereof insurances; • (examination). To demand system manual; • posed to material duties, and resources. To demand responsibilities posed to the and powers; • control from management responsibility; detection and • communication; measuring equipment • monitoring & measurement; (validation & • workplace inspections; • calibration). internal audits; • Machine Translated by Google complaints and shortcomings; • accident and incident management. Careless and/or Performance of certain 6.6.1 incompetent actions by personnel involved in the level of expertise. detecting (detecting and start approaching) Requirements of CEfor Unprepared the 6.6.2 with detecting CE work preparation: involvedproject plan, communication authorities and project-related risk inventory and evaluation. Careless execution Requirements for the 6.6.3 of detection investigation implementation of and/or use incorrect detection investigation and the detection equipment interpretation of measurement data. Approaching Requirements for the 6.6.3, 6.6.4, 6.6.5, incorrectly and/or carelessly: detecting, locating 6.6.6 of detected CE, excavating layer by layer and ammunition separation. Incorrect identification Requirements for the 6.6.7 Requirements for the 6.1, 6.4 Requirements for 6.2, appendix identification 2 6.3, of of CE: CE identified appendices 4 to 6 6.3.3 expertise of yes/no CE, and if so: organization, including: • laws and regulations; personnel and the (sub)type, • RI&E/TRA; • demonstrability thereof reinforcement condition, insurances; • (examination). Requirements igniters, caliber and system manual; • based on material nationality. tasks, and resources. To demand responsibilities posed to the and powers; • control from Machine Translated by Google management responsibility; detection and • communication; measuring equipment • monitoring & measurement; (validation & • workplace inspections; • calibration). internal audits; • complaints and shortcomings; • accident and incident management. Undesirable to requirements for the implementation of CE 6.6.8, 6.6.9 temporarily securing after encountering the situation, including taking of them of protective measures and requirements imposed on the facility for temporarily securing the situation and the transportation of CE. Careless and/or Requirements imposed on the 6.6.10 incorrect transfer of transfer from CE to CE to EODD the EODD and the drain from scrap, including communication with EODD. Risks related Requirements to the 6.6.11 with the performance of civil engineering civil technical support, activities in the inclusive investigation area material requirements. After completion of the Requirements set for the 6.6.12, 6.6.13 delivery found, including the official of report the investigation of CE project, the project is still delivery, and project evaluation. 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective This part of the scheme describes the procedures relevant to the correct application of the specific scheme. This should include, among other things: Machine Translated by Google •. initial audits; •. issue of certificates; •. interim audits; •. renewal/renewal of certificates; •. suspend or revoke certificate. 4.2. Certification procedure In accordance with the certification procedure, the organization submits an application to a CKI for the Detection of Conventional Explosives system certificate. This section applies to applications for initial certification (organization does not yet have a certificate) and to applications for recertification (recertification prior to the expiry of the certificate's validity). The frequency of supervision and the method of interim assessment by the certification body is described in chapter 5. 4.2.1. General The CKI must handle the application for a certificate in accordance with the regulations applicable within this CKI. The CKI is obliged to inform the organization about these regulations. 4.2.2. Assessment of the management system and project locations For the certification audit, the applicant for the certificate makes the system documentation available to the certification body, including a matrix in which a relationship is established between its own management system and the corresponding standard elements from the WSCS-OCE. The certification investigation is carried out in accordance with the certification regulations of the CKI and consists of two phases, namely a preliminary investigation and an implementation investigation. The certifying body conducts an investigation into: •. the system documentation, whereby it is assessed whether the documentation fulfills all elements of this certification scheme; •. the implementation of the management system, whereby it is assessed whether the procedures and instructions in accordance with the system documentation are carried out both in writing and in practice. This assessment takes place at the company location (specialized department), at branch offices (departments) covered by the certificate, and at project locations; •. the extent to which the management of the organization has acquired due care in accordance with this certification scheme. 4.2.3. System Certificate Renewal A certificate can be issued if the requirements of this certification scheme are met. Machine Translated by Google The certificate is issued to the legal entity that enters into contracts under this scheme, in accordance with the general regulations of the CKI. The certificate is issued when the assessment of the applicant's management system has been positively completed. The decision of certification will be made public in accordance with paragraph 4.8. To be eligible for certification, the following criteria must be met: •. the management system functions for at least 3 months; •. the assessment has been carried out by the management of the organization; •. internal audit procedures are fully operational and working demonstrable •. there are no significant imperfections (category A and B, see section 5.4.3); •. there is a justified confidence that the management system is aimed at managing risks, complying with legislation and regulations and the requirements and wishes of stakeholders. •. The investigation projects in the context of the (initial) assessment have been deemed sufficient by the CKI. The assessment of files of preliminary investigations carried out in the context of the initial assessment by the CKI in accordance with section 5.2 takes place after the document assessment has been completed with a positive result. The execution of investigative projects in the context of the initial assessment by the CKI in accordance with paragraph 5.2 takes place after the document assessment by the CKI has been completed with a positive result. The applicant reports these projects to the CKI in accordance with paragraph 5.1 and the projects will only be carried out after the CKI has given its approval. If one of the two projects is not assessed positively, the same procedure is followed for the execution and assessment of a third project. 4.2.4. Refusal, suspension and revocation of the system certificate A certificate is refused, suspended or revoked if: •. it has become apparent that not or not fully complied with by or pursuant to the law with with regard to the requirements for the certificate; •. not all WSCS-OCE standard elements are met; •. corrective measures as a result of written deviations are insufficient or are not submitted to the CKI on time; •. the safety or health of employees or third parties due to work regulated by the certificate is or may be endangered. See also section 5.4. 4.2.5. System Certificate Renewal Machine Translated by Google After the certification period of three years, a complete assessment of the certification requirements/standard elements (see part II) must be carried out. The results of previous assessments are also used for this purpose. Recertification must take place prior to the expiry of the validity period of the certificate. See also chapter 5 of this certification scheme. 4.2.6. Certificate issuance after withdrawal If an organization wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. After withdrawal, a new request for certification may only be submitted after a period of at least 12 months has elapsed (see WDAT-OCE). The CKI takes care of registration of this period. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken in accordance with the requirements of the certification scheme by an officer of the certification body who is qualified and appointed in accordance with the quality system of the CKI and who has not been involved in the assessment of the system according to the procedure under 4.2. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate The maximum validity period of the system certificate is 3 years. 4.5. Information on the certificate The system certificate must contain at least the following information: •. Details of the certified company: – Full company name; – Number of the registration in the Trade Register of the Chamber of commerce; – Business location; – Scope of the certificate (A and/or B). •. Data from the CKI: – Name; – Business location; – Logo – Feature of the designation by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. •. Other data certificate: – Validity period; – The statement from the certification body that the system in question meets the requirements of the field-specific certification scheme; – Signature authorized person CKI; – SCVE logo and logo. 4.6. Complaints Machine Translated by Google 4.6.1. Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by person(s) not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. 4.6.2. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. 4.6.3. Complaints procedure 4.6.3.1. Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. The CKI must have a form for registering complaints. 4.6.3.2. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the Machine Translated by Google complaint handler in writing of the complaint. The complaint handler informs the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint 4.6.3.3. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the petitioner; creates a file for the purpose of monitoring progress and includes the handling of the complaint by the company/person at the next assessment. 4.6.3.4. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. Proper archiving takes place of complaints received and handled. 4.7. Objection procedure 4.7.1. Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. 4.7.2. Method Machine Translated by Google 4.7.2.1. General •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure “objection procedure”, an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: – name and address of submitter – date – a description of the contested decision – the grounds for the objection . The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those mentioned in the previous section, if no use is made of the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism Furthermore, the objection will be declared inadmissible if it is submitted unreasonably late if a time limit does not apply. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against focused 4.7.2.2. Procedure Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing shall be conducted by a person or persons who are not Machine Translated by Google is/have been involved in the preparation of the decision, and has no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. 4.7.2.3. Decision on notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks from the day after the day on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. •. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. 4.7.2.4. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. OCE Certificate Register The CKI registers the current data of certificate holders. In accordance with the agreement with the SCVE, the data is sent electronically to SCVE for the benefit of the SCVE Certificate Register. Denial, suspension or revocation of certificates must be immediately communicated by the CKI to SCVE and the other CKIs. This register is made accessible via the internet, within the legal frameworks. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD OCE must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of the requirements in the field-specific certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. Should it happen that organizations, applicants for services and CKIs use different definitions and about this Machine Translated by Google If there are differences of opinion, differing interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD OCE. The CCvD OCE takes a decision on the interpretation question submitted to it within a maximum period of 8 weeks. 5. Supervision The CKI is obliged to continuously test the organization against the requirements in this field- specific certification scheme. This chapter describes the way in which this supervision should be organized by the CKI. 5.1. Data provision and access to project location The organization is obliged to cooperate with assessments at both the office and project locations by or on behalf of the certification body. The organization is also obliged to provide the information necessary for these assessments. The organization is obliged to notify the certification body of changes in its circumstances that may be important for the certificate. In the event of a change in legal entity, the organization must notify the CKI. In such cases, the certificate and the agreement will expire. The certificate holder must inform the CKI in writing of projects to be carried out as referred to in paragraph 6.6 of this certification scheme. This notification is made by e-mail and no later than 72 hours before the start of the work within the OCE work area. Changes in the planning of these activities must also be reported as soon as possible. If an automation system is available for reporting projects to the CKI and this has been approved by the CCvD OCE, the notification is made via this system. A copy of the confirmation that the report has been received by the CKI is included in the project file by the organization. Projects as referred to in section 6.5 need not be reported. Notifications regarding emergency work (including unexpected finds of ammunition) should be sent to the CKI as soon as possible. The documentation of these activities will be verified at the next (periodic) audit. 5.2. Frequency and method of supervision 5.2.1. Periodic Review The investigation for the granting and renewal of the system certificate takes place in accordance with section 4.2. After the granting/renewal of the system certificate, the certification body carries out an assessment program that is structured as follows. Machine Translated by Google •. An annual review of the effectiveness and proper application of the management system at the business location of the organization. All parts of this certification scheme must be verified within the certification period. •. Assessing projects in progress. •. The assessment of any organizational changes and the consequences for the certificate. The tables below apply to the minimum frequency and time spent on initial assessment, reassessment and periodic assessments. Table 5.2.1: time spent on initial assessment and reassessment (in hours) Sub-area Company audit Project audit(s) Preliminary investigation Total a 12 8 4 24 B 8 8 0 16 A+B 12 8 4 24 Table 5.2.2: time spent on periodic assessment (in hours) Sub-area Company audit Project audit(s) Preliminary investigation Total a 8 4 4 16 B 8 4 0 12 A+B 12 4 4 20 1. The certification period is understood to mean: a period of 3 years for which a certificate is issued in accordance with this certification scheme, calculated from the date of issue of the certificate. A certification year is understood to mean: a consecutive period of 12 months, whereby the first certification year is calculated from the date of issue of the certificate. 2. The initial assessment is understood to mean the situation that the organization does not have a WSCS-OCE certificate at the time the assessment takes place. 3. The time spent on the reassessment is at least equal to the time commitment for the initial assessment. It is at the discretion of the certification body whether additional time is required for the purpose of the reassessment for verification of findings from the previous certification period and whether changes in the organization are made. 4. If no projects are available during the reassessment, no renewal of the certificate will take place and an initial assessment will have to be carried out as soon as there are projects. 5. If no project assessment is possible during the periodic assessment, be carried out, it must be carried out as soon as possible, but at the latest in the following: certification year, must still be performed. The CKI will record such a measure in writing in the file. This measure can only be used once in a certification period Machine Translated by Google are applied. If this cannot be met, the CKI must revoke the certificate. Sections 4.2.6 and 5.4.5 do not apply to this. 6. The time expenditure mentioned in the tables includes reporting. 7. The time spent on assessing a project location is at least 4 hours (including reporting). The number of project audits is therefore determined as follows: time spent on project audit(s) /4. 8. The time spent on the assessment of a file of a preliminary investigation is at least 2 hours (including reporting). The number of file assessments is therefore determined as follows: time commitment/2. 9. For multi-site organizations operating within the scope of In this certification scheme, half a day per location must be added to the number of man- days. 10. When a combined audit with NEN-EN-ISO 9001 is performed by the same audit team, a reduction of the time spent on the company audit with a maximum of 30% can be given, with sufficient substantiation. 11. The time spent does not include the assessment of the internal examination of OCE experts as referred to in section 6.2.1. If the organization carries out examinations itself, separate agreements are made about this between the certificate holder and the CKI. 5.2.2. Interim sample (unannounced project reviews) During the term of the certificate, periodic assessments of project locations are carried out by the CKI, according to the table below. These project assessments are unannounced. The certificate holder will be notified of any deficiencies found. Table 5.2.3 time spent on unannounced project assessments per certification year (in hours) Sub-area Project audit(s) unannounced a 4 B 4 A+B 8 The time spent on assessing a project location is at least 4 hours (including reporting). The number of unannounced project audits is therefore determined as follows: time spent on project audit(s) unannounced / 4. If the number of unannounced project assessments has not been carried out in a certification year because the certificate holder has too few projects in progress or has notified the CKI, the missing number must still be carried out in the following certification year. The CKI will record such a measure in writing Machine Translated by Google fixed. This measure can only be applied once in a certification period. If this cannot be met, the CKI must revoke the certificate. Sections 4.2.6 and 5.4 do not apply to this. 5.3. Results of reviews The results of assessments are reported to the organization in the interim. If necessary, the organization is obliged by the certification body to implement corrective measures. For this, reference is made to paragraph 5.4 of this certification scheme. If the interim assessment results are not acceptable or if the shortcomings are insufficiently corrected, the certifying institution may suspend or, in extreme cases, withdraw the certificate. Chapter 4 of this certification scheme applies to this, which also describes the procedure for complaints and a review request. 5.4. Measures 5.4.1. General If it appears that a certificate holder does not or no longer meets the requirements or standards in this certification scheme, the CKI will write out deviations. See section 5.4.3 of this certification scheme. If no/insufficient corrective measures are taken as a result of this, the CKI will take measures. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. Deviations and measures imposed by the CKI are registered in a central registration system. This information is treated confidentially by the CKI. 5.4.2. Exchange of information with the Inspectorate SZW If, when carrying out assessments, the CKI finds situations relating to the performance of work as referred to in this certification scheme in which, in the opinion of the CKI, significantly unsafe situations are created and/or relevant laws and regulations are violated, the SZW Inspectorate will be notified of this. notified. It also states which measures are being taken by the CKI. The CKI informs the organization that the Inspectorate SZW has been informed. 5.4.3. Certification criteria and follow-up deviations Any deficiencies are judged on the basis of importance. The matrix below indicates how the assessment takes place. The valuation is broken down as follows: Category A deviation • one or more elements of the standard are not Machine Translated by Google documented, when required; • one or more elements of the standard have not been implemented; • with more elements of the standard there is a comparable shortcoming in documentation and/ or implementation ('trend'); • there is no justifiable confidence in the comply with legislation and regulations and/ or set requirements; • in the opinion of the CKI significantly unsafe situations are created; • a periodic or reassessment investigation shows that category B deviations are structurally not or insufficient be corrected. Category B Deviation • in one of the elements of the standard there is a shortcoming in documentation and/or implementation. Category C Note • for one of the elements of the standard it can reasonably be expected that, without management adjustments, a imperfection will to arise. The follow-up of deviations by the organization should take place as follows: Machine Translated by Google •. The organization must submit a concrete proposal to remove category A deviations within five working days. This proposal is an action plan with concrete and structural measures with a realistic planning. After acceptance of the proposed measures, the implementation will always be verified as soon as possible, but at the latest within a period of 3 months, if necessary during an extra audit. •. For category B deviations, the organization must send concrete corrective measures within 3 months. Measures for B-deviation(s) must be demonstrably implemented (sending evidence) and the effectiveness is tested during the next audit. •. The implementation of proposed corrective actions for C nonconformities (comments) will be reviewed during the next periodic audit. 5.4.4. Suspension of the System Certificate A suspension procedure can be started if: •. the certification criteria as described in this are not met certification scheme; •. situations are detected during an unannounced visit whereby: – in the opinion of the CKI, significant unsafe situations become created; – relevant laws and regulations are being violated. The suspension procedure means that the company in question is requested to submit a concrete action plan within five working days to eliminate the shortcoming. This plan should contain concrete actions, including the date on which the actions will be completed. This date should be as ambitious as possible. If the shortcoming is not remedied within the aforementioned period, the certificate will be suspended for a maximum period of 6 weeks. During this period, the organization will still be given the opportunity to remedy the shortcoming. If this does not take place or insufficiently during this period, the certificate will be withdrawn in accordance with paragraph 5.4 During the suspension, the certificate holder is not authorized to perform the activities as referred to in this certification scheme. 5.4.5. Revoke the System Certificate The system certificate will be revoked if the result of the suspension procedure does not lead to a positive decision regarding the continuation of the certification process. The decision to withdraw will be communicated to the organization stating reasons. If a certificate is withdrawn, the certificate holder is no longer authorized to perform the work as referred to in this certification scheme. After withdrawal, a new request for certification may only be submitted after a period of at least 12 months has elapsed (see WDAT-OCE). The CKI takes care of registration of this period. Machine Translated by Google 6. Requirements This chapter contains the field-specific standards/requirements that the system to be certified must meet in order to be eligible for certification. The requirements in this chapter can be divided into: general requirements, requirements for personnel and resources, requirements for the management system and process requirements. 6.1. General demands The organization must meet the following general requirements. 6.1.1. Laws and regulations The organization shall establish and maintain a written procedure to identify and access legal, regulatory and other requirements it has endorsed that apply to various aspects of its operations. Furthermore, the organization must communicate the importance of these requirements within the organization and ensure compliance with them. 6.1.2. Waiver of Weapons and Ammunition Act The organization that is certified in accordance with sub-area A must have an exemption pursuant to Article 4 of the Weapons and Ammunition Act. The requirements included in this exemption must be demonstrably met. 6.1.3. RI&E and Task Risk Analysis The organization must have a risk inventory & evaluation (RI&E), which complies with the current health and safety regulations. In addition, the organization must have specific task risk analyzes (TRAs) for risky actions and activities during the process. For the preparation and maintenance of these TRAs, the organization must have a procedure for the identification and evaluation of the quality and safety aspects before and during the activities, as well as the associated effects on employees and the environment. If one deviates from this, one must at least be able to demonstrate equivalence. These are aspects, including outside influences, that can be controlled and which can be assumed to be influenced by the organization. The necessary measures, linked to the inventory, must be described in a project plan (see section 6.6.2.1). 6.1.4. Insurances The organization must have at least the following insurance policies (the government does not insure work carried out by its services, so this paragraph does not apply to the EODD): Machine Translated by Google •. an insurance policy that includes adequate cover for the detection of conventional explosives; •. an accident insurance for own and hired personnel, government personnel and personnel of third parties who move within the OCE work area. The management of the organization should annually assess the insurance status. The results of this assessment are recorded. The responsibilities and liabilities of the various parties must be recorded for each project. Before the start of the project, it must be determined in consultation with the client whether the package of insurance(s) taken out, possibly in combination with the client's insurance policies, provides sufficient coverage for the project. The results of this assessment are included in the project file. 6.2. Requirements management personnel The organization must have a system with which the deployment of adequate personnel can be geared to the different types and techniques of detection and approach. All the people to be deployed must at least meet the requirements in this certification scheme. 6.2.1. Staff training and qualification The organization must ensure that personnel (own and third parties) who perform work in the context of this certification scheme: •. is competent; •. is medically and psychologically fit; •. can communicate without language barriers; •. is provided with the appropriate resources. The organization that is certified in accordance with area A must have at least one Senior OCE expert in permanent employment (employment contract) for at least 32 hours per week. The organization must guarantee that expert personnel (own and third parties) who perform work within the framework of this certification scheme (see section 6.6.1), comply with the attainment targets as included in Appendix 2. Demonstrating that expert personnel meets the attainment targets can be done in the following ways. 1. By demonstrating to the certification body that a internal company examination structure in accordance with the examination conditions below and by demonstrating that expert personnel have passed an examination according to this structure; 2. By submitting a certificate issued by an examination organisation who has an agreement with the certification body of the organization, in the context of which this certification body has established that this examination organization meets the conditions below for examination. Machine Translated by Google Conditions for examination: •. The attainment targets in appendix 2 are for the purpose of examination at a elaborated in a balanced manner in test terms; •. Examinations take place by or under the responsibility of an independent examination board consisting of at least four persons, of which at least two persons have expertise in the field of detecting CE and the two other committee members are experts in civil engineering support and in the field of training and examination respectively; •. Practical exams are taken by at least two people who demonstrably meet the attainment targets for Senior OCE experts in Appendix 2 of this certification scheme and who have not been directly involved in the training of the exam candidate; •. Exam regulations are established for the administration of exams, which in any case includes provisions regarding the registration procedures for exams, the management of exam questions and assignments, the method of examination, the requirements for the exam location, the method of correction and assessment of exams and a dispute settlement; •. The theory exam is composed in such a way that the applicable final objectives are tested in a balanced way and it is ensured that overlap between exams is prevented as much as possible; •. For the purpose of conducting practical exams, per subject an examination protocol has been established, which in any case includes the resources required for examinations, the layout of the examination location and an assessment system; •. The functioning of the examination structure is evaluated annually, in which at least the number of examinations taken in the previous year, the examination results and submitted complaints and disputes are discussed. A certificate is valid for three years. After that period, another exam must be taken in accordance with the above conditions, whereby all applicable final objectives are checked. The organization must: •. have an overview of the employees involved (own and third parties) with name and position and the corresponding qualifications; •. keep appropriate records of qualifications. 6.2.2. Working conditions care In accordance with the Working Conditions Act, the organization periodically gives employees the opportunity to undergo a Preventive Medical Examination. In accordance with the Medical Examinations Act, an inventory must be made of which functions/ tasks entail specific risks and which examinations/examinations must be offered for this purpose. An overview of these functions must be drawn up on the basis of this inventory. The requirements to be set, the purpose of the inspection or the Machine Translated by Google examination, the health questions to be asked and the medical examination to be performed are laid down in writing in accordance with the Decree on Appointment Examinations, after written advice about this from a certified company doctor or occupational health and safety service. 6.2.3. Personal protective equipment If the risks of work cannot be removed or can not be reduced to an acceptable level, the organization must provide the employees (permanently and temporarily) with the necessary personal protective equipment (PPE). In accordance with working conditions legislation, the organization must identify which PPE is necessary for the performance of work on the basis of the results of risk inventories and task risk analyses. A system must be set up for the provision, maintenance and replacement of PPE. The project plan must contain provisions with regard to the application of PPE. The PPE must be geared to the occurring activities and the identified risks. 6.3. Requirements management resources The organization must have a system with which the deployment of adequate equipment and resources can be geared to the different types and techniques of detection and approach. All equipment and resources to be deployed must at least meet the requirements of this certification scheme. 6.3.1. Controlling equipment and resources The organization must make an inventory of the equipment and resources available within the organisation, including maintenance and inspection periods, and keep an up-to-date overview of this. The inspection body must be recorded for all equipment and resources, including demonstrable expertise. Equipment and resources must meet the requirements of this certification scheme (including appendices), as well as the own documented requirements. The organization must have a system of identification and management of all resources to be deployed on a project. A registration must be kept of all equipment used during a project at the project location, which can be used to demonstrate that the safety requirements as described in the appendices associated with this certification scheme are met. The organization must demonstrate by means of registrations of inspection and maintenance that equipment and resources comply with the appendices of this certification scheme. It must be ensured within the control system that no unapproved or rejected equipment is used for work. 6.3.2. Hiring equipment, resources and people Machine Translated by Google When hiring equipment and resources, the organization determines in advance that •. they meet the requirements of the requirements of this scheme, including the appendices; •. the persons deployed in projects meet the qualification and training requirements. The results of this assessment are recorded. Third parties involved in the project are notified in advance of the relevant project information. Hiring for the purpose of investigation takes place by and under the responsibility of an organization that is (partly) certified in accordance with sub-area A. Hiring for civil-technical support takes place by and under the responsibility of an organization that is (partly) certified in accordance with sub-area b. 6.3.3. Control of detection and measurement equipment Detection equipment must be initially validated (type test). The purpose of this is to determine whether the detection device is suitable for detecting CE, and if so, in which situations and circumstances this device can be used. For the purpose of the initial validation, a validation protocol is established by the organization, in which at least the following matters are discussed: •. types of objects (material)/disruptions detected; •. suitability for types of CE and site-specific conditions; •. measuring range (depth); •. applicability in different soil types; •. sensitivity to disturbances; •. accuracy. The results of the validation are reported, which also includes a comparison with the specifications of the user manual and/or the results of previous validations of comparable equipment. The organization must prepare and keep up-to-date an overview of all detection devices used within the organization. A work instruction must be drawn up for each detector. Detection equipment must be operated by a person who is demonstrably expert in working with the relevant detection equipment. The organization must draw up a procedure for guaranteeing and registering this expertise. The maintenance and calibration of measuring and detection equipment must take place on the basis of a calibration and maintenance system. When maintaining and calibrating measuring and detection equipment, the guidelines of the manufacturer/supplier and the results of the initial validation should be taken into account. Measuring and detection equipment must be protected against improper adjustment or other influences that could negatively affect the results. Registrations of validation, Machine Translated by Google calibration, inspections and maintenance must be kept for at least a period of 5 years, unless a legal regulation prescribes a longer period. 6.4. Requirements management system 6.4.1. General demands In accordance with the requirements of this certification scheme, the organization must set up, document, implement and maintain its own management system. 6.4.2. System Manual The organization must have a documented management system, the system manual of which must contain at least the following aspects: the subject matter and scope (scope) including any a) exclusions; b) description of the non-excluded and by this certification scheme established documented procedures, or a reference to them; c) a description of the interactions within the management system as well as with other systems, insofar as it concerns a non-integrated management system; a matrix in which the relationship between standard elements from this certification scheme d) and the system documents is recorded. The organization is free to adapt the appearance (eg electronic, hardcopy) of the system to the business organization. Exclusions from standard paragraphs are only possible on the basis of the subareas as explained in chapter 1. 6.4.3. Document control The organization must have a documented procedure that regulates the control of documents required by this scheme. This should at least be include: approval for issuance; a) review and regular updating; b) identification, readability and recognisability; c) revision management; d) control and distribution of external documents; e) preventing accidental use and disposal of expired f) documents; g) determination of retention periods. The project documents referred to in this certification scheme are kept for a minimum of 5 years, unless a legal regulation requires a longer retention period. 6.4.4. Controlling registrations Machine Translated by Google Records must be established and maintained to provide evidence of compliance and effective operation of the management system. The organization must identify and control all records necessary for this purpose, as well as the records prescribed in this schedule, by means of a documented procedure, including a statement of the retention period and the manner of destruction. Registrations must be legible, recognizable and retrievable. 6.4.5. Responsibilities and authorities The organization must record its operational organizational structure in an organizational chart. This diagram should show the operational relationships between the listed functions. The management of the organization must ensure that the responsibilities and authorities are defined, recorded and made known in the organization. The organization shall appoint a member of management who, regardless of other responsibilities, shall have the responsibility and authority to: •. to ensure that processes necessary for the functioning of the management system are established, implemented and maintained; •. to report to the management on the functioning of the management system and the possible need for improvement; •. to promote that employees are aware of both the client's requirements and the requirements of legislation and regulations; •. cooperate with external parties insofar as this relates to the functioning of the management system. 6.4.6. Management responsibility Top management must demonstrate its involvement in the development, implementation and operation of the organization's policies by: •. to communicate the importance of meeting both the requirements of clients and with legislation and regulations within the organization; •. to organize the documented and signed company policy in such a way that this scheme is implemented; •. to evaluate the policy at least once every three years and – if necessary – to update; •. to assess the suitability of the management system at least annually, effectiveness and connection with the organization as well as the requirements from this certification scheme; •. on the basis of the evaluation, make improvements and adjust the policy if necessary; •. to provide the necessary resources. 6.4.7. Internal communications Machine Translated by Google The organization must record the internal communication processes in its management system insofar as these relate to the activities within the scope of this certification scheme. Must be identified: •. goal/topic; •. attendees; •. frequency; •. method of reporting. 6.4.8. External communication The organization must record the manner in which communication with interested parties is organised. To this end, the organization must identify per project which interested parties this concerns and how they are informed, this includes at least: EODD; a) client; b) municipality(s) in which the investigation is carried out and if c) necessarily the neighboring municipalities; d) the certification body; e) relevant emergency services; f) hired companies. 6.4.9. Monitoring and measurement The organization must determine, plan and implement the necessary monitoring, measurement and analysis processes to: •. demonstrate that the service provision and process control comply with the requirements of this scheme: •. to ensure that the management system complies with the applicable requirements from this certification scheme; •. demonstrate compliance with laws and regulations 6.4.10. Workplace Inspections The organization must provide for periodic workplace inspections within its management system to identify in good time whether workplace conditions and the behavior or actions of employees and third parties lead to unsafe situations that result in deviations, incidents or accidents. To this end, at least the following must be recorded in the management system: •. an inspection by the immediate supervisor at least once a month per project; •. semi-annual inspection by management; •. method and registration of inspections; •. follow-up of inspection results; •. analysis of deficiencies; •. feedback to employees. Machine Translated by Google 6.4.11. Internal audits The organization shall perform internal audits at scheduled intervals to determine whether the management system: •. meets the requirements of this certification scheme; •. meets the requirements of applicable laws and regulations; •. effectively implemented and maintained. The organization must demonstrate by means of a documented audit plan that all elements of this scheme are tested at least once a year. This should reflect the weighted importance of processes, identified risk areas and results of previous audits. The visit to at least one project site should also be included during the internal audit cycle, focusing on system aspects that were not included during the workplace inspections. With regard to the competence and assessment of auditors, the organization must set up a procedure that is in line with the requirements of the NEN-EN-ISO 19011:2011 Guidelines for performing quality and/or environmental management system audits. The choice of auditors and the performance of audits must guarantee the objectivity and impartiality of the audit process. The auditors are not allowed to audit their own work and must be suitably qualified. There should be a documented procedure stating how: •. the audit program is controlled and administered and who is responsible for it; •. objectives of the management are translated into the audit program; •. an audit team is put together; •. audits are planned, performed and reported; •. audit results are monitored and analysed. 6.4.12. Management of complaints and shortcomings The organization must have and maintain a written procedure with regard to the handling of complaints and shortcomings in relation to the work delivered and the management system. The following must be arranged by means of the procedure: •. who are the responsible officers for the treatment; •. that complaints/shortcomings are registered and archived; •. that the reporter is informed about the outcome of the handling; •. that there is feedback regarding the complaint/shortcoming within the organization takes place. In addition, the organization must indicate in the project plan which officials can be contacted in case problems are identified during or after the execution of the work. These officers should be authorized to make corrective Machine Translated by Google to take measures to remedy the problems. This should be recorded in the job description. 6.4.13. Accident and Incident Management The organization must have and maintain a written procedure for reporting, registering, investigating and managing (near) accidents and incidents with and without absenteeism, fire and damage to people, equipment and the environment. This procedure should at least contain: •. manner of notification and reporting; •. research method; •. processing times; •. designation of the person responsible for the investigation; •. determine improvement measures and feedback from TRA; •. monitoring implementation and effectiveness; •. publication and communication. 6.4.14. Emergency preparedness The organization shall establish and document procedures and controls to control the likelihood of and response to potential incidents and emergencies in order to prevent or limit the spread. This procedure should include at least the following tasks: •. communication internally and with the environment and stakeholders; •. preventive and corrective measures; •. required resources; •. competency requirements. The organization must periodically (at least annually) evaluate and adjust its emergency plans based on its own evaluations. The emergency plan must be part of the project plan. 6.5. Process requirements preliminary investigation This section applies to conducting preliminary investigations. The purpose of the preliminary investigation is to assess whether there are indications that CE is present within the research area, and if so, to demarcate the suspect area. The preliminary investigation consists of both an inventory and assessment (analysis) of source material. The end result is a report and an associated CE soil load map. At the start of the investigation, the organization must check whether investigations have been conducted into the presence of CE in the past, and if so, report how this information was involved in the investigation. 6.5.1. Inventory of source material Machine Translated by Google The source research is based on an inventory of: •. event/information indicating that the study area, or part thereof, is suspected of the presence of CE (indications); •. event/information that indicates the suspect area, or part thereof, can be regarded as unsuspected (contraindication). The organization should at least consult the mandatory sources listed in the table below. Supplementary sources are in any case consulted if the situation is described in the explanation of the supplementary sources. The report provides reasons as to why an additional source was or was not consulted. Any gaps in knowledge should be specified in the reporting. [Illustration 249967.png] Table: overview of mandatory and additional sources The inventory of source material must be documented in an unambiguous manner, in such a way that the sources used can be traced back by a third party. The organization must have a written procedure in which the methodology of the investigation is recorded, in which traceability and completeness of facts are guaranteed and in which the archiving of data that can be used for a next step in the process of detecting CE is arranged. Explanation of mandatory sources Literature At the start of the source research, a list of acts of war that are relevant to the possible presence of CE in the research area (indications) is drawn up on the basis of literature research. This list also contains a reference to the dates on which the acts of war took place. Municipal and provincial archives When consulting the municipal and provincial archives, at least the documents from the air defense service, the documents about the CE found/cleared and the war damage reports should be consulted. If these documents are not present, this must be stated in the report. If there are indications for the presence of CE, the municipal and provincial archives should also be searched for data on relevant post-war developments (contraindications), unless other sources have already provided sufficient information. If this information is not available, this must be stated in the report. Explosive Ordnance Disposal Service Machine Translated by Google When consulting the archive of the Defense Explosive Ordnance Disposal Service, the database with reports of CE found and the collection of minefield maps should be consulted first. If indications for the presence of CE are found in the database with reports of CE detected, the MORA/UO collection should be consulted. If indications for the presence of CE are found in the minefield map collection, the minefield clearance reports collection should be consulted. Aerial photo collection Wageningen University and Topographical Service The organization must make an inventory of available aerial photographs concerning the date on which the acts of war took place. The usable aerial photos are selected from this. When selecting aerial photos, the following must be taken into account: date of recording in relation to acts of war, quality of the photo image and the scale. The organization interprets the selected aerial photos at least for damage to the landscape as a result of acts of war and the presence of military works. The interpretation of aerial photos should be done by an expert with experience in the interpretation of aerial photos from the 1940-1945 period. The organization must report the available aerial photos and also motivate the selection. If there are indications for the presence of CE, the organization should collect the aerial photos and/or satellite images covering the research area from the post-war period. The organization compares the aerial photos/satellite images with aerial photos from the period 1940-1945, with the aim of making an inventory of post-war developments in the research area in which soil was stirred or moved. The organization must justify the selection of aerial photos/satellite images in the report. Explanation of additional sources Netherlands Institute for War Documentation The organization consults the literature collection of the Netherlands Institute for War Documentation if insufficient information is available to form an overall picture of acts of war in the research area. Netherlands Institute of Military History The collection 'German defense works in the Netherlands and reports of the Bureau Inlichtingen in London (1940–1945)' with collection number 575 of the Netherlands Institute for Military History should at least be consulted if consultation of the obligatory sources shows that there are indications that German military works in the research area were present during World War II. The collection 'combat records and reports May 1940' with collection number 409 of the Netherlands Institute of Military History should at least be consulted if Machine Translated by Google consultation of the mandatory sources shows that there are indications that ground fighting took place in the period May 1940. The National Archives London/Bundesarchiv-Militararchiv/The National Archives Washington DC Additional source research must be conducted if consultation of the mandatory sources shows that there are indications that acts of war have taken place, whereby CE may have ended up in the research area, but there is insufficient information available in the Dutch archives and on the consulted aerial photos about : •. the nature of the act of war; •. the number and type of CE deployed during the act of war; •. the impact locations of CE. Additional research includes one or more of the following foreign archives: •. The National Archives in London; •. Bundesarchiv-Militararchiv in Freiburg; •. The National Archives in Washington DC. The organization must justify the choice of the archive(s) to be consulted in the report on the basis of the source material already collected. Aerial Photo Collection The Aerial Reconnaissance Archives If the mandatory aerial photo archives do not yield sufficient results, the aerial photo collection The Aerial Reconnaissance Archives is additionally consulted. The provisions under mandatory sources apply to the inventory and selection of aerial photographs. Witness statements It is determined in consultation with the client whether witnesses will be heard. This is reported. If witnesses are heard, a written witness statement must be drawn up and signed by the witness and/ or by a representative of the client who is present at the hearing of the witness. The witness statement is included as an appendix to the report. 6.5.2. Assessing and evaluating source material The indications and contraindications from the source research are assessed and based on this, reasons are determined: •. whether there is a CE suspect area, and if so; •. the (sub)species, quantity and appearance of the suspected CE; •. horizontal and vertical demarcation of the suspect area. Machine Translated by Google The following principles are used when assessing and evaluating the source material: 1. If there is a suspected presence of CE, the conclusion SUSPICIOUS is reported. If there is no suspected presence of CE, the conclusion UNSUSPECTED is reported. 2. The conclusion is established on the basis of two or more independent verifiable sources. If only one source is found, this will be clearly indicated in the report. The report states how the reliability of the sources has been estimated. 3. Indications/Contraindications must have a location reference, as it is essential to determine whether the information is relevant to the presence of CE in the study area. The following principles apply to the location reference: •. indications/contraindications must be translated to a location in the current topography; •. where there is ambiguity/unreliability in the location reference, this is documented; •. when using indications/contraindications from written sources, the location reference from the source file must be adopted in the report without any changes. 4. When establishing the conclusion, the following assumptions are made: used. •. Annex 3 is used as a guideline when assessing whether certain acts of war are an indication of the presence of CE in the research area. Deviation from this is only allowed with reasons. •. If there are no indications to indicate the presence of CE in the field of research, the conclusion is UNSUSPECTED. •. If there are indications that certain main types of CE were used/involved in acts of war in the research area, then (part of) the research area is SUSPICIOUS for the presence of these main types of CE, unless the contrary can be proven on the basis of contraindications . 5. The suspect area is demarcated horizontally and vertically, specified per (sub) type of CE, quantity and appearance of presumed CE. The following principles are used in this regard. •. Appendix 3 is used as an appendix for the horizontal demarcation of the suspect area. Deviation from this is only allowed with reasons. •. Principles of vertical demarcation: a) When determining the vertical boundary, specific consideration should be given to: soil resistance, expected penetration rate and - angle, weight, shape and diameter CE; (b) for the calculation of the penetration depth, a calculation method is used which takes into account at least the following parameters: the drop height, the release speed, the weight of the bomb, the diameter of the bomb and the resistance of the bottom; c) in the case of earthmoving/earthmoving in the period 1945 to the present, it is determined on the basis of this whether, and if so to what depth minus ground level (related to NAP), the presence of CE can be excluded; Machine Translated by Google the vertical delineation is expressed such that it is d) traceable to depth relative to NAP. •. Principles of horizontal demarcation: a) in the horizontal demarcation of the suspect area, the tolerance is justified, based on the available source material; b) the suspect area is displayed in RD coordinates. •. Appearance is understood to mean the way in which CE ended up in the (water) bed in the past, whereby a distinction can be made between: dropped, faded/thrown/laid/ thrown away, stored/dumped/buried (including redeposit), as remnants from wells or explosion and as part of (aircraft) wrecks and/or sunken vessels. 6.5.3. Exclusions/Research Limitations In consultation with the client, it can be decided to exclude the vertical demarcation of the suspect area and/or the inventory of the quantity of suspected CE from the preliminary investigation. This choice may be related to the nature of the research and/or the size of the research area and is motivated in the report. The vertical demarcation is in any case required for carrying out a risk analysis for the future use of the suspected area and this is then part of this. The vertical demarcation is also required if it is the intention, after detection, to be able to make a statement in the delivery report about the presence of CE without restriction in the vertical plane. In consultation with the client, it can also be decided to (first) focus the preliminary examination exclusively on indications that point to the suspected presence of CE and not to investigate possible contraindications for the period 1945 – present. In that case, no research will (initially) be conducted into, for example, post-war developments in the research area, which could lead to relevant contraindications. This research limitation is described in the report, stating the reason. 6.5.4. Reporting and CE Soil Load Map The result of the preliminary investigation includes a report and an associated digital CE soil load map. In addition to the matters referred to in the previous subsection, the report includes at least: •. reason for the preliminary investigation; •. description and objective of the assignment; •. boundaries of the research area; •. description of the execution of the research (including the persons involved); •. account of source material (including source reference); •. results of the assessment of the source material; •. description of gaps in knowledge. Machine Translated by Google The source references in the report contain at least a collection, archive and/or inventory number. If aerial photos have been consulted, the sortie number and aerial photo number must also be stated. The suspected and non-suspect area (horizontal) within the research area is shown on the CE soil load map. The map must be projected in the National Triangle System. The map contains at least a title, author, north arrow, scale, date of format/version/attribute, and legend. The cartographic representation of analogous reproductions of the map(s) shall ensure that the coordinates of drawn geometric objects can be accurately read. The report and the CE soil load map must be approved by a person authorized by the management. 6.6. Process requirements detection This section applies to detecting CE. The organization must plan, prepare and implement the processes necessary for realizing the investigation in accordance with the requirements as set out in this section. The organization must draw up work instructions for the control of processes that ensure that these are carried out in a manner that corresponds to the requirements set for this (normative or determined by the client). Investigation should be done by expert persons. Within the investigative area, investigation includes all of: 1. work preparation; 2. to detect; 3. localize; 4. excavated layer by layer; 5. identify; 6. temporarily securing the situation; 7. the transfer to the EODD; 8. Delivery report. The actions mentioned under points 2 to 4 can be performed cyclically. This is referred to as approaching. Instead of approaching, you can choose to use ammunition separation. In that case, paragraph 6.6.6 applies. 6.6.1. Personnel expertise investigation Requirements regarding personnel expertise are included in paragraph 6.2.1 and appendix 2. A distinction is made between the following expertise levels: Assistant OCE expert, OCE expert and Senior OCE expert, for which attainment targets are set in Appendix 2. At the same time, attainment targets have been established for OCE Basic Knowledge (other officials in the OCE work area). Machine Translated by Google When carrying out the work as described in this paragraph, the following rules apply: 1. While layering, identifying the suspected CE and the To temporarily secure the situation, a Senior OCE expert is always present on the project. 2. Detecting, locating and layering excavating, identifying the suspected CE and the temporary safeguarding of the situation takes place by at least one OCE expert and an Assistant OCE expert. 3. The transfer of CE to the EODD is made by a Senior OCE expert. Notwithstanding the second part, the following exceptions apply: a. Non-real-time detection takes place by at least one Assistant OCE expert. If there is a risk of spontaneously finding CE during these activities, a (Senior) OCE expert is present at the project location. The question of whether a (Senior) OCE expert must also be present at the project location during non-real-time detection is assessed during work preparation and reported in the project plan. b. If the suspected CE is below the water level and the approach is carried out by means of diving work as referred to in Article 6.13, first paragraph, part a, of the Working Conditions Decree, the following rules apply: 1°. the detection takes place by at least one Assistant OCE expert, who is also authorized to perform diving work. The reserve diver is also at least an Assistant OCE expert. The diver(s) are assisted directly above the water level by an OCE expert, who is in verbal communication with the Assistant OCE expert(s) who performs the diving work; 2°. locating, excavating layer by layer, identifying and/or temporarily safeguarding the situation of CE takes place by at least one OCE expert, who is also authorized to perform diving work. The reserve diver is also at least an OCE expert. The diver(s) are assisted directly above the water level by a Senior OCE expert, who is in verbal communication with the OCE expert(s) performing the diving work. 6.6.2. Work preparation The organization must identify and plan the processes necessary for the safe, competent and proper execution of the project. For this purpose, a written procedure must be provided for work preparation, in which at least attention is paid to: •. responsibilities (including adoption and approval of project plan); •. collaboration, identification and communication with different disciplines; •. schedule; •. documentation and records. The work preparation should at least result in a project plan. The organization must have a procedure for how to act in the event of a spontaneous encounter with CE. Machine Translated by Google 6.6.2.1. Project plan A project plan is drawn up for the purpose of the investigation. The project plan includes at least the following components: 1. a description and objective of the assignment; 2. a description of the project organization with tasks, responsibilities and authorities; 3. a description of the method of internal and external communication; 4. the planning of the activities and the deployment of personnel; 5. a working drawing showing at least the location of the work /research area, projected on a subsurface of the environment (based on the Large-Scale Base Map of the Netherlands: GBKN) showing the location in relation to the Rijksdriehoeknet (by means of RD coordinates); 6. a description of the method of detection and the detection methods and equipment to be used, including the configuration; 7. a description of the method of localization, layer-by-layer excavation and identification and the equipment and aids to be used; 8. a description of the method of temporary securing of CE; communication with the EODD in accordance with Annex 1; 9. 10. a project-related risk evaluation and a description of the safety measures to be taken in the various process phases; 11. a HSE plan (safety, health and environment plan); 12. a protocol for the involvement of emergency services; 13. a description of liabilities and insurance; 14. a description of the project checks (what, who and how check for which time), including the method of registration and the feedback thereof. A project plan for a detection investigation only includes at least the parts mentioned under points 1 to 6. The project plan and description of the working methods must ensure that all identified risks are adequately avoided or controlled. The project plan must describe which persons have contributed to the work preparation. The Senior OCE expert and an authorized member of the management of the organization must have demonstrably agreed with the content of the project plan. 6.6.2.2. Communication project plan municipality and client The project plan has been demonstrably approved by the municipality or municipalities in which the investigation area is located, based on its authority for public order and public safety. Approval by the municipality takes place by or on behalf of the person responsible for public order and public safety. If the implementation of the project also affects Machine Translated by Google may affect public order and public safety in (a) surrounding municipality(s), these municipality(s) will also be asked to approve the project plan. Approval of the project plan by the municipality is not required if the project concerns only a detection investigation consisting of non-real-time detection. In that case, it is sufficient to notify the municipality of the implementation of the project. When adjusting the following parts of the project plan, the municipality is again requested to approve the project plan: project-related risk evaluation, the description of the safety measures to be taken and the HSE plan. The client signs the project plan before the start of the work. The approval of the project plan by the municipality(ies), the registration that the client has signed the project plan and the confirmation of receipt of the notification to the CKI (section 5.1) are included in the project file. 6.6.2.3. Project-related risk inventory and evaluation The project-related risk evaluation consists of an adequate risk inventory and - evaluation for the detection. At a minimum, this will result in the necessary actions aimed at: •. the (personal) protective measures to be taken for persons at the project location and the surrounding area; •. temporarily safeguarding the situation of CE; •. the access control and monitoring of the project site; •. the traffic measures and accessibility of the project location. The organization must have a written procedure for carrying out the project-related risk evaluation, explicitly including the traceability and completeness of the evaluation. The responsibilities of the Senior OCE expert should also be described. The results are included in the project file. 6.6.3. Detection Investigation Detecting involves determining the presence of (possible) CE by performing a measurement using detection equipment and assessing the measurement data. Various methods and techniques can be used to carry out the detection investigation. A distinction is made between real-time and non-real-time detection. 6.6.3.1. Selection of detection methods Prior to the detection work, the organization must select the detection equipment to be used. The selection of detection methods is based on the results of the validation (section 6.3.3) and the results of the preliminary investigation. Machine Translated by Google The choice of detectors, including the configuration, is justified in the project plan. Only detection devices that comply with paragraph 6.3.3. 6.6.3.2. Execute Detection At the start of the detection work, the project data as included in the project plan must be verified. The verification is recorded on the fieldwork records. In the event of deviating circumstances that affect the quality of the detection, feedback must be given to the work preparation. The operation of detection equipment must comply with section 6.3.3. 6.6.3.3. Fieldwork registrations The results of the detection investigation must be registered, stating in any case: •. date of detection; •. project data (at least client, municipality(s) and location); •. the name of the person who performed the detection; •. detection equipment used, configuration and device settings; •. weather conditions (at least temperature and precipitation); •. searched area; •. relevant visual observations; •. deviations from project plan; •. verification data provided. The fieldwork records are completed by or under the responsibility of the OCE expert. 6.6.3.4. Real-time detection With real-time detection, the measurement data is immediately interpreted and the significant objects are located immediately. In any case, the following data is recorded of the CE found: •. coordinates with respect to the National Triangle Network (RD coordinates); •. indicative depth (z). 6.6.3.5. Non-real-time detection In the case of non-real-time detection, the measurement data is saved and interpreted at a later time. The non-real-time detection results in an object list with at least: •. coordinates of results/disruptions found in relation to the National Triangle Network (RD coordinates); •. indicative depth (z); •. measured values. Machine Translated by Google For the purpose of drawing up an object list, after the measurement has been carried out, the measurement data is assessed by or under the responsibility of the Senior OCE expert. This must be made demonstrable in the detection report. This report clearly indicates and argues how the measurement data have been modelled, partly in relation to the results of the preliminary investigation. In the report of the detection, recommendations are made for the further approach to approach. 6.6.4. Localize The location of the detected objects is determined by means of locating. Locating consists of: •. determine the location of the object based on the measured values (RD coordinates); •. determining excavation depth by (re)determining z-coordinate. The final localization data is recorded on the object list. By means of locating, an excavation depth is determined which is then excavated. 6.6.5. Excavated layer by layer By excavating layer by layer, the object is exposed, so that it can be observed. The project plan indicates how layer-by-layer excavation takes place and what resources are used. The equipment used for layer-by-layer excavation meets the requirements in Appendix 4. The project plan is supplemented for this purpose, if necessary, on the basis of the results of the detection investigation. All parties involved will be informed about the changes. The organization must have the necessary work instructions for activities that are carried out in the context of layer-by-layer excavation. For the requirements for civil technical support, reference is made to section 6.6.11. 6.6.6. ammunition separation The organization must document and validate the operating principle and separation range (which CE) of used ammunition separation installation(s). A risk inventory & evaluation must also be carried out and documented, on the basis of which the safety measures and personal protective equipment to be taken are determined and implemented. Material used for ammunition separation meets the requirements in Appendix 4. When ammunition separation is used, the project plan provides reasons why ammunition separation is used and whether it is suitable for the result to be achieved, given the expected CE and the ammunition separation installation used. In any case, the results of the preliminary investigation and/or detection investigation are included in this motivation. When applying ammunition separation, the identification of CE and the temporary safeguarding of the situation and the transfer of CE and scrap takes place in accordance with the applicable paragraphs. Machine Translated by Google 6.6.7. Identify The identification follows the discovery of the object and is intended to determine whether there is a CE, and if so, to determine the type, sub-type and reinforcement condition (armed or unarmed CE) of any detonators installed. The following is recorded from the identification: •. Is there a CE, and if so: – final depth of the detected CE; – type and subspecies of the CE; – type of detonators, if any; – state of armor, caliber and nationality; – person who made the identification. The registered data form part of the project file and are archived as such. 6.6.8. Temporary securing situation The temporary safeguarding of the situation includes all activities after the approach and identification that are necessary to control the impact risks of the CE in relation to the environment up to the time of transfer of the explosive to EODD. When temporarily securing the situation, no disassembly operations are performed on the CE itself. The method of temporary securing and the protective measures taken are registered. 6.6.9. VTVS and transport CE The facility for temporarily securing the situation of CE must comply with Appendix 6. Transport of CE within the project location takes place under the supervision of the Senior OCE expert. Transport of CE on public roads falls outside the scope of this certification scheme. 6.6.10. Transfer to EODD and disposal of scrap The clearance of CE found during investigation activities is carried out by the EODD. Before the start of a detection project, with the exception of a project that only includes a detection investigation, the EODD is informed in accordance with Annex 1. The transfer of CE to the EODD takes place in the presence of a Senior OCE expert according to the protocol in Annex 1. Prescribed registrations in the protocol must be included in the project file. Before scrap is removed, a final check is carried out by the Senior OCE expert. This final check is registered. 6.6.11. Civil Engineering Support Machine Translated by Google Civil-technical support comprises the entirety of the organization and execution of civil- technical activities that enable the investigation. If civil engineering equipment is used for the investigation, the project will be carried out by an organization that has, or a combination of two organizations that jointly have, a certificate in accordance with sub-area A and B. Insofar as there is a question of layer-by-layer excavation and/or ammunition separation, equipment that meets the requirements in Appendix 4 is used. If a project is carried out in a consortium, the responsibilities and liabilities between the organizations are laid down in a cooperation agreement. /combination agreement. With due observance of the provisions in this certification scheme, this will be further elaborated in the project plan by the organization certified in accordance with sub-area A. The organization that is certified in accordance with sub-area B conforms to the project plan in writing. When the project is carried out, the ultimate responsibility for the investigation lies with the organization that is certified in accordance with sub-area A. This does not alter the fact that each organization within that combination is responsible for the quality of its own activities. The civil engineering activities that fall under the scope of this certification scheme and that are part or related to the activities from the project plan (see paragraph 6.6.11) are further identified, planned and certified by the organization in accordance with sub-area A and with the others involved in the project. concerned parties. This ensures that the activities are carried out in a controlled and safe manner. some things includes: 1. established procedures for the identification and management of interaction with other involved disciplines/parties and activities; 2. recording tasks, powers and responsibilities in relation to any other parties; 3. demonstrable control of civil engineering activities. If the organization provides its services to third parties, it actively contributes to the safety management of the civil engineering activities. Any advice is registered in the project file. 6.6.12. delivery After completion of the project, the site must be delivered in accordance with the agreement. The delivery method is stated in the project plan. If nothing is stated therein, the site must be returned to its original state. In that case, this original state must be described and included in the project file. If, after the opinion of the Senior OCE expert, the location complies with the established agreement, the organization will request the recording of the work from the client. Machine Translated by Google A delivery report is drawn up by or on behalf of the contractor and contains at least the following information: •. the work/research area projected on a subsurface of the environment (GBKN) showing its location in relation to the Rijksdriehoeknet (by means of RD coordinates); •. a description of the assignment; •. a description of the investigative methods used; •. the research results; •. the data related to the transfer and (if applicable) the nature of the deleted objects. The organization will send a copy of the official report of delivery to the municipality or municipalities in which the investigation area is located, as the competent authority for public order and public safety. 6.6.13. Evaluation The organization must prepare an evaluation for process control purposes at the end of each project. This evaluation may concern a joint document from the various parties, which should be included in the separate project files. At a minimum, attention should be paid to: •. evaluation of the procedure; •. compare problem analysis, detection and actually encountered CE; •. effectiveness of the control measures; •. deviations/shortcomings/findings; •. improvement opportunities. The evaluations serve as important input for the annual assessment by the management as referred to in section 6.4.6. 6.7. Supervision of research activities in OCE suspicious area This paragraph applies to the supervision of research activities in OCE suspicious area by an organization that is certified in accordance with area A (hereinafter referred to as organisation). In concrete terms, this concerns the supervision of research bureaus that carry out environmental, archaeological and/or geophysical fieldwork in OCE suspicious area and in this context place drillings, monitoring wells and/or CPTs (hereinafter jointly referred to as drilling). The purpose of the supervision is to carry out the research work safely, meaning that it is ensured that no drillings/probings are placed in places where a CE may be located. The organization must have a procedure in place to ensure that the requirements in this section are met when supervising research activities. Machine Translated by Google •. Pre-detection takes place at locations where the intention is to place a bore, in order to determine that there are no disturbances at and near this location that indicate the possible presence of CE. •. The size of the measurement field that is detected depends on the results of any preliminary investigation carried out, the location-specific circumstances and the nature of the investigation work being carried out. This is recorded in the project plan. •. If a disturbance is measured during the detection that indicates the possible presence of a CE, the measurement field is not released for carrying out the research work. If no disturbances are measured that indicate the possible presence of a CE, the measurement field is released for the investigation activities. The (non-)release of measuring fields for carrying out the research activities can take place orally, provided this is noted in the logbook. The release is strictly limited to carrying out the relevant research activities. •. The results of the performed detection are recorded, in which per measurement field includes at least the following: coordinates of the measurement field, measurement data, results of the interpretation (released/not released). After the supervision, this data will be made available to the client. •. The supervision of research activities is actually performed by an OCE expert. •. For the purpose of supervising the research activities, drafted an abridged project plan, which includes at least the following: – description of the area in which the investigation work are going to take place; – description of the research activities and the influence thereof on possible CE; – if applicable, a summary of the results of the preliminary research on types of possible CE; – a summary of the results of the preliminary investigation regarding types of possible CE or, where no preliminary investigation has been carried out, an evaluation by a Senior OCE expert on which CE may be found; – determination of the size of the measuring field at the location of research activities, in any case on the basis of the possible type of CE present, the location-specific circumstances and the nature of the research activities; – (detection) equipment to be applied in accordance with paragraph 6.6.3.1 and the personnel to be deployed and the safety measures to be taken. •. The Senior OCE expert and an authorized member of the management of the organization must have demonstrably agreed with the content of the project plan. In addition, the municipality in which the investigation activities take place must be informed. •. For the purpose of supervising research activities, an agreement is concluded between the organization and the person carrying out the research activities (client). With reference to this paragraph of this certification scheme, it is herein stated at least that the client must follow the instructions regarding CE Machine Translated by Google monitors the safety of the OCE expert who carries out the supervision work, including that the OCE expert is authorized not to release certain measuring fields for the research work. It also stipulates that the release of measurement fields is strictly limited to carrying out the relevant research activities. Appendix 1: Communication with EODD The investigative company must inform the EODD prior to the investigative project and when CE is found in accordance with this appendix. •. Before the start of the investigation project, with the exception of exclusively a detection investigation, a project is registered with the EODD. This registration contains at least the following information: – brief description of the investigation (method); – the duration of the investigation; – the location of the detection; – the expected explosives; – the planned destruction site (if known). •. The notification must show that the competent authority agrees to carry out the investigation. •. Found CE are reported in writing to EODD. The frequency and the time of notification depends on the type, number and condition of the explosives found, at the discretion of the Senior OCE expert. •. The frequency and time of the periodic clearances partly depend on the type and number of the explosives found and the available clearance capacity of EODD, at the discretion of EODD. •. When CE is found that, in the opinion of the Senior OCE expert of the investigative company on site, poses a direct danger to public order and safety, a report is immediately made to the municipality as the competent authority for public order and public safety, to the police. and to the EODD. This notification is given an increased priority within the EODD and will – in anticipation of a periodic clearance – be cleared within a time frame in accordance with the given priority. •. The municipality as the competent authority for public order and public safety and (the Senior OCE expert of) the organisation, possibly in consultation with the EODD, ensure that a suitable extermination site is available within the relevant municipality(es). The location of the extermination site is included in the project plan. •. With regard to the location of the destruction site, account should be taken of: in accordance with the guidelines of the EODD. •. The local government, in collaboration with the senior OCE expert of the investigation company, ensures the presence of the police during the clearance of found explosives. •. The explosives found are transferred to the EODD clearance team on behalf of the municipality by means of a written protocol by the senior OCE expert of the investigation company, with a minimum statement of type, subspecies and general condition. Machine Translated by Google •. On behalf of the municipality, the investigative company notifies the EODD in writing of the date of termination of the investigative work. Appendix 2: Oce experts attainment targets This certification scheme includes levels of expertise with regard to persons who carry out work related to the detection of conventional explosives. A distinction is made between the following expertise levels: Assistant OCE expert, OCE expert and Senior OCE expert. Persons who work within the OCE work area must meet the attainment targets for OCE Basic Knowledge. The attainment targets for these expertise levels are included in this appendix. The way in which compliance with the applicable final objectives must be demonstrated is described in section 6.2.1 of this certification scheme. The structure of this appendix is as follows: Appendix 2A: learning outcomes Assistant OCE expert Appendix 2B: OCE expert attainment targets Appendix 2C: Senior OCE expert attainment targets Appendix 2D: final objectives Basic knowledge OCE Appendix 2A: Attainment targets assistant oce expert Characteristic Description AS.00.01 Have the advantage Assistant OCE expert required general skills. AS.01.01 Having general knowledge of explosions. AS.01.02 Having general knowledge of Black Gunpowder (ZB). AS.01.03 Having general knowledge of Smoke Weak Gunpowder (RB). AS.01.04 Having general knowledge of pyrotechnic mixtures. Machine Translated by Google AS.01.05 Having general knowledge of explosives. AS.01.06 AS.02.01 Having knowledge of the following 16 main types of CE and the basic principles for CE recognition: Small Caliber Ammunition (KKM), artillery munitions, hand grenades, rifle grenades, grenade launcher ammunition, rockets, launching ammunition, sub-munitions, underwater ammunition, land mines, traps, explosive substances, fireworks, means of destruction, detonators and accessories of ammunition. AS.02.02 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main type of Small Caliber Ammunition (KKM), as well as the recognition thereof. AS.02.03 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main type of ammunition, as well as their recognition. AS.02.04 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific dangers of the main type of hand grenades, as well as their recognition. Machine Translated by Google AS.02.05 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific dangers of the main type of rifle grenades, as well as their recognition. AS.02.06 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main type of ammunition for grenade launchers, as well as their recognition. AS.02.07 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main type of missiles, as well as their recognition. AS.02.08 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main type of release munitions, as well as their recognition. AS.02.09 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main species submunitions, as well as their recognition. AS.02.10 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main type of underwater ammunition, as well as their recognition. AS.02.11 Having knowledge of the general composition and Machine Translated by Google specific hazards of the main type of mines, as well as their recognition. AS.02.12 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main species traps and their recognition. AS.02.13 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main type of explosive substances, as well as their recognition (addition to AS.01 final term). AS.02.14 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main type of fireworks, as well as their recognition. AS.02.15 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main species means of destruction, as well as their recognition. AS.02.16 Having knowledge of the general composition and specific hazards of the main species ignition devices as well as , the recognition of them. AS.02.17 Having knowledge of the general composition of the main type of accessories Machine Translated by Google of ammunition, as well as their recognition. AS.03.01 Having general knowledge of the investigative process and the Certification scheme Detecting Conventional Explosives (WSCS-OCE). AS.03.02 Having knowledge of the working principles of active metal detectors and passive magnetometers. AS.03.03 Having knowledge of the distinction between: (1) real-time and non-real-time detection and (2) surface and depth detection, as well as the application area. AS.03.04 Having knowledge of the meaning of interpreting and being able to perform it of interpretation in real-time detection. AS.03.05 It under guidance be able to perform a real- time and non-real-time detection. AS.03.06 Having knowledge of the meaning of locating and being able to safely and 3- dimensionally determine the location of detected objects. AS.03.07 Having knowledge of the meaning of layer-by- layer excavation and being able to work safely during the excavation of detected objects Machine Translated by Google (to approach). AS.03.08 Having knowledge of the meaning of identifying and temporarily securing the situation. AS.03.09 Basic knowledge about other foreign substances and objects. Appendix 2B: Oce expert attainment targets Characteristic Description DS.00.01 Have a valid certificate Assistant OCE expert 1 Have . DS.00.02 the general skills required for OCE expert. DS.00.03 Have at least two years of project experience as a Assistant OCE expert, in whom experience has been gained in a demonstrable manner with the different parts of the detection process 2 . DS.01.01 Knowledge of the detecting CE relevant regulations. DS.01.02 Knowledge of the content from the Certification scheme Detecting Conventional Explosives (WSCS-OCE) and in particular regarding the requirements for the detection process. DS.02.01 Having Machine Translated by Google specific knowledge of the various types of explosions. DS.02.02 Having specific knowledge of the explosive substance Black Gunpowder (ZB). DS.02.03 Having specific knowledge of the explosive substance Smoke Weak Gunpowder (RB). DS.02.04 Having specific knowledge of the explosive substance pyrotechnic mixtures. DS.02.05 Having specific knowledge of explosives. DS.03.01 Having knowledge of the main types of CE and their meaning. DS.03.02 Able to display and explain the types caliber designations. DS.03.03 Being able to display and explain the general danger aspects of CE. DS.03.04 To be able to display and explain the basic principles of CE recognition. DS.03.05 Being able to represent and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and operation of Small Caliber Ammunition. DS.03.06 Being able to represent and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and functioning Machine Translated by Google of ammunition. DS.03.07 Being able to display the subspecies firing devices of artillery ammunition and explaining the operating principles. DS.03.08 Being able to display and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and operation of hand grenades. DS.03.09 Being able to display and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and operation of rifle grenades. DS.03.10 Being able to display and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and operation of ammunition for grenade launchers. DS.03.11 To be able to represent and explain the sub-types, composition, construction and operation of missiles. DS.03.12 Being able to display and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and operation of release munitions. DS.03.13 Being able to display and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and operation of submunitions. DS.03.14 Being able to display and explain the subspecies, Machine Translated by Google composition, construction and operation from detonators of ammunition. DS.03.15 To be able to represent and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and functioning of underwater ammunition. DS.03.16 Being able to represent and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and operation of landmines. DS.03.17 Being able to represent and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and operation of traps. DS.03.18 To be able to display and explain the sub-species, composition, construction and operation of fireworks. DS.03.19 Being able to represent and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and functioning from destruction tools. DS.03.20 Being able to represent and explain the subspecies, composition, construction and functioning from ignition devices . DS.03.21 Being able to represent and explain what becomes understood by Machine Translated by Google ammunition accessories. DS.04.01 Being able to display and apply the process requirements, responsibilities and authorities as included in the Certification Scheme for Detecting Conventional Explosives (WSCS-OCE). DS.04.02 Able to display and explain the working principles of metal detectors and magnetometers and the field of application. DS.04.03 Being able to represent and explain the distinction between real- time and non-real-time detection and the scope. DS.04.04 Be able to show and explain the difference between surface and depth detection and the field of application. DS.04.05 Can perform from detection. DS.04.06 Being able to show and explain what becomes understood by interpret. DS.04.07 Being able to represent and explain the terminology used in interpretation. DS.04.08 Can perform from an interpretation of measurement data from a real-time and non-real-time detection. DS.04.09 Able to display and explain the different methods Machine Translated by Google for locating DS.04.10 The safe 3- dimensional ability determine the location of detected objects. DS.04.11 Being able to safely excavate suspected CE, so that full identification can take place. DS.04.12 Being able to determine whether one in a concrete situation whether or not to do with a CE and then be able to determine: number, main type, sub- species, caliber or type, any detonator(s) installed, reinforcement condition and country of origin with any particulars. DS.04.13 Being able to temporarily secure the situation. DS.04.14 Be able to represent and explain the method of transfer from CE to the EODD. DS.04.15 Have basic knowledge of the destroy CE. 1 This requirement does not apply if a candidate applies for recertification (candidate possesses or has a certificate for this level of expertise, issued in accordance with this WSCS-OCE) and as part of this the final objectives are also tested against the underlying expertise levels. 2 In view of the special position of the EODD (Circular No. 17961), the associated responsibility, the intensive EODD training and supervision and the associated system of examination and qualification and the combination of investigative activities and clearance activities, for persons who work within the Machine Translated by Google EODD investigation activities according to the WSCS-OCE perform a different experience requirement of 1 year. In addition, the EODD mainly carries out investigative activities on (former) Defense sites. Appendix 2C: Senior oce expert attainment targets Final term Description SD.00.01 Have a valid certificate OCE expert 1 Have the general skills required for Senior. OCE SD.00.02 expert. SD.00.03 Feature at least three years of project experience as OCE expert, who has demonstrably gained experience with the various parts of the detection process 2 . SD.01.01 Having knowledge and application of the relevant provisions from legislation and regulations in relation to the detecting CE SD.01.02 Have knowledge about and can applying the procedure for the delivery of the exploration project, including drawing up an official report of delivery. SD.02.01 Representing and explaining the composition and operating principles of CE in use before and after World War II. SD.03.01 Being able to assess and Machine Translated by Google interpreting a preliminary study according to the WSCS- OCE. SD.03.02 Being able to assess and interpreting a project plan according to the WSCS-OCE. SD.03.03 SD.03.04 Being able to assess, interpret and apply OCE project related reports. SD.03.05 In the event of calamities with CE, being able to sequentially carry out the necessary actions that lead to to limit the consequences of this disaster as much as possible. SD.03.06 Able to carry out the transfer of CE to the EODD. SD.04.01 Able to display and explain the requirements to which a destruction site must comply. SD.04.02 Be able to represent and explain the methods and procedures for destroying CE insofar as they relate to the role and responsibility of the Senior OCE Expert. 1 This requirement does not apply if a candidate applies for recertification (candidate possesses or has a certificate for this level of expertise, issued in accordance with this Machine Translated by Google WSCS-OCE) and, as part of this, the final objectives are also checked against the underlying expertise levels. 2 In view of the special position of the EODD (Circular No. 17961), the accompanying responsibility, the intensive EODD training and supervision and the associated system of examination and qualification and the combination of investigation activities and clearance activities, for persons who work within the EODD investigation activities according to the WSCS-OCE perform a different experience requirement of 1.5 years. In addition, the EODD mainly carries out investigative activities on (former) Defense sites. Appendix 2D: Objectives basic knowledge OCE Characteristic Description BS.01.01 Basic knowledge about explosive substances. BS.01.02 Be familiar with the external characteristics of the 16 main species from CE. BS.01.03 Basic knowledge about the dangers of the undesired operation of CE. BS.02.01 Basic knowledge about the approach and implementation of OCE projects and about the main features of the Certification Scheme Detecting Conventional Explosives (WSCS-OCE). BS.03.01 Be aware of the applicable safety rules in OCE projects. Appendix 3: Determining suspect area and demarcation in preliminary investigation This appendix is part of section 6.5 of the WSCS-OCE and is used to assess whether certain acts of war are an indication for the presence of CE (suspicious or unsuspected) and for the horizontal demarcation of the suspected area. Deviation from this is only allowed with reasons. Indication General description Starting point conclusion Principles for Machine Translated by Google demarcation of suspicious area Suspicious Unsuspected Defense work inside Grouping of X The territory weapon emplacements and/or the limits of the gun emplacements, surrounded defenses are suspect. by a barrier (e.g. resistance The borders core or support point). are preferably determined on the basis of georeferenced aerial photographs. Weapon arrangement Arrangement of a X Location of the small firearm, machine gun weapon emplacement. or other (semi) automatic weapon, not being part of a defense work. Gun emplacement Location of gun, x the (static and 25 meters around mobile) not being part center of the of a gun emplacement, but no defense work. further than any adjacent waterway. Ammunition storage in open Ammunition X Location of the supply field location in the field storage location. open field, not being within a defensive structure. Trench Military trench x The area within the contours of the trench are suspect, preferably determined from georeferenced aerial photographs. Tank ditch or trench A deep (whether or not unless X not suspicious, dry) ditch or trench with there are indications steep walls, made to stop that ammunition may have armored vehicles. been dumped in it. Landmines suspected By a clue, area not being a X N/A Machine Translated by Google minelaying report, on landmines declared suspect area. No landmines were found in the suspected area during the check by the MMOD. Landmines Suspicious By clue, x such as area The borders not being a indicated in the minelaying report, on general report. land mines declared suspicious. Landmines were found in the suspected area during the inspection by the MMOD or during post- war activities. minefield Registered X N/A minefield, of which minelaying report is available. All landmines laid according to the laying report have been cleared. minefield Registered X The boundaries as minefield with indicated in the minelaying report minelaying report and/or available. Not all clearance report. landmines laid according to the minelaying report have been cleared. No factual substantiation known why there landmines are missing. minefield Minelaying report X N/A available. Not all landmines laid according to the laying report have been cleared. Factual basis known for why landmines are missing. Machine Translated by Google Barriers Barriers, such as beach barriers and X Unless there are dragon's teeth . indications that CE is part of the barrier. Infrastructure without Military works such as indications X Unless there gun emplacements or housing or because of the are on CE ammunition stock work with a presence of close civilian target such defense in the form of, for example as air raid shelter. weapon setups. Shelter trench Trench for civilian X N/A population to take shelter in. Camp indications Territory with X Unless there shelters like are on CE because of the tents. presence of ammunition storage or nearby defense in the form of, for example, weapon positions. Manhole Hole in ground with X N/A shelter function, not used as foxhole. Destruction charge Location of destruction X Location of the charge applied. destruction charge. Artillery, mortar Area shelled x or rocket fire by mobile or To be determined fixed situationally. artillery, mortars or ground- based (multiple) rocket launcher system. Rocket Fire Area affected x impact pattern known from Based on an analysis fighter-bomber rocket fire. of the impact pattern, the maximum distance between two consecutive impacts within a impact pattern determined. The suspect area is demarcated by measuring this distance Machine Translated by Google project onto the outer wefts of the weft pattern. This excludes any horizontal displacement of the outer dud within the impact pattern. Point of impact dud, Aircraft bomb that has not set To decide in motion according to an aircraft bomb. in which at calculation method at least the following parameters are taken into account: the drop height, the release speed, the weight of the bomb, the diameter of the bomb and the resistance of the soil. Based on at least these five parameters, it is calculated to what depth CE can theoretically penetrate and how far the maximum horizontal displacement. Aircraft crash location Presence of CE x due to the Situational too crash. determine. Crater of detonated Area containing the indications X Unless there incidental crater of the detonation that it is not an anti-aircraft grenade from an incidental incidental anti- anti-aircraft grenade. aircraft grenade. Point of impact of a V-1 Area affected x around a 15 meters weapon by the impact of a point of impact because of de V-1 weapon. possible horizontal displacement underground. Crater of a Area in which the x 50 meters around a Machine Translated by Google (partially) the crater of the detonation point of impact because of detonated V-1 weapon of a V-1 weapon presence. possible of explosive components. Crater of a Area in which the x To be determined (partially) crater of the detonation situationally. detonated V-2 weapon of a V-2 weapon. Dump location of ammunition Dump location of CE x the Location of dump and/or accessories onward and/or accessories in demarcation soil or on aquatic situational too soil. determine, for example dumping in standing or flowing water. Uncontrolled (sympathetic) X Situational too determination of (mass) explosion detonation of a explosives stock such as blast ammunition store or ammunition train. Destruction location One or more of the X The contours) for CE jumping pits. jumping pit(s) and demarcation can be determined further on a situational basis, for example in view of the distance of any ejected CE outside this contour(s). Destruction charge (in Location of set into operation Location where x) Destructive charge deployed, encountering with the explosive possibility of the destruction charge charge(s) that have not been was put into operation and (completely) detonated. demarcation further situational determine. Carpet Bombing Area affected x On the basis of a by bombardment with analysis of the medium and/or impact pattern becomes 1 Machine Translated by Google heavy bombers, with the aim the maximum distance of inflicting damage over a between two consecutive hits large area. determined within an impact pattern. The suspect area is delineated by projecting this distance onto the outermost wefts of the weft pattern. That excludes the any horizontal displacement of the outer dud within the weft pattern. Dive-bombing on Area hit x suspicious area called 'Pin Point It through a Target', by a bombardment is determined with fighter-bombers, distance of 181 meter impact pattern the with the aim of making a measured from heart unknown to hit a of the target 2 / 3 . predetermined specific object. Dive bombing on Linear area, near x area so-called 'Line The suspect Target', a railway line, that is is determined by a weft pattern gauge hit by a distance of 91 unknown bombardment with measured from the heart fighter-bombers, with the aim of from the railway line 2 / 4 hitting the railway. . Rocket Fire on Area Affected x Area so-called 'Pin Point The suspect through a Target', rocket fire with fighter-bomber impact pattern, with unknown from heart is determined by a distance of 108 meters measured with the aim of pre of the target 2 / 5 . certain specific Machine Translated by Google to hit the object. Rocket fire on Linear area, near x area, so-called 'Line The suspect Target', a railway line, that is is determined by a weft pattern hit by a distance of 80 meter unknown rocket fire with measured from the heart fighter-bombers, with the aim of from the railway line 2 / 6 hitting the railway line or trainset . on this railway line. 1 Collection of the locations of impacts of one particular aircraft or one particular bombing raid. 2 Distances come from a British study (empirical research) into the accuracy of attacks by single-engine dive bombers during the period October 1944 – Apr 1945 (AIR 55/322). Any effect of enemy anti-aircraft defenses during these dive bombings was not included in the study. 3 The stated distance is the average distance from the target, it should be noted that 50% of the aerial bombs fell within 119 meters and the maximum measured distance from the target was 181 meters. 4 The stated distance is the average distance from the target, it should be noted that 50% of the aerial bombs fell within 46 meters and the maximum distance from the target was 91 meters. 5 The stated distance is the average distance from the target (buildings) noting that the average spread of the missiles from the center of a burst was 69 meters, and that the average distance from the center of a volley from the target was 39 meters. 6 The stated distance is the maximum distance measured based on aerial photo interpretation. Appendix 4: Requirements for equipment If equipment is used when approaching CE, it must meet the following requirements: •. The bucket-facing windows are fitted with 33mm polycarbonate plates, or a facility at least equivalent thereto. This provision can be made by replacing the windows or by fitting a front window. Machine Translated by Google If front windows are used, the original windows must be replaced by 8 mm polycarbonate sheets, or a minimum equivalent provision. •. The other windows have been replaced by 8 mm polycarbonate sheets, or a minimum equivalent facility. •. The roof of the machine is covered with 40 mm plywood waterproof construction board, or a minimum equivalent provision. •. The steel surfaces facing the bucket are provided with 7mm steel plate with 40 mm multiplex waterproof construction plate on top, or a facility at least equivalent thereto. •. The cab is made of or protected by steel plate with a minimum thickness of 7 mm with 40 mm multiplex waterproof construction board on top, or a minimum equivalent provision. •. The cabin is fitted with rebated doors. •. The cab is anchored to the machine. Appendix 5: Requirements for protective measures Method The project plan describes which protective measures will be taken in which project phases. The protective measures to be taken are approved by the municipality(s) in which the work takes place. This approval is registered in the project file. There is no standard available for taking protective measures for the environment when approaching CE. Protective measures are currently being established at project level in consultation with the municipality(s), the client, the EODD and other stakeholders. For this purpose, among other things, use is made of guidelines that are used by the Ministry of Defence. Appendix 6: Requirements for temporary safeguarding of the situation Number Requirement A. GENERAL A.1 The VTVS is intended for temporarily securing the situation, by moving the CE from the location to a facility in which it CE pending transfer to EOD is deposited. A.2 The requirements in this appendix focus on preventing CE in Machine Translated by Google the VTVS come into effect (source-oriented measures). In concrete cases, the municipality, as the competent authority for public order and safety, may determine, due to location- specific circumstances, that measures must also be taken to control the elaboration risks of the VTVS (effect-oriented measures). A.3 The VTVS becomes used exclusively for the deposit of CE, including the insertion, (re)stacking and repatriation of the CE. Actions at the CE and any possible packaging thereof, other than described elsewhere in this appendix, are performed outside the VTVS. Maintenance on the VTVS may only take place if no CE is present in the VTVS. A.4 In the following situations, in view of the danger factors, it is not allowed to transfer the CE to the VTVS. This concerns: 1. CE with a greater NEM 1 than permitted; 2. landmines antitank (AT) / antipersonnel (AP) with seeded Machine Translated by Google detonator; 3. crystallized explosive; 4. CE that cannot be identified sufficiently (at least the state of reinforcement and the risks of the detonator must be known); 5. faded (armed) CE fitted with an igniter with preloaded firing pin spring; or 6. CE with an armed omnidirectional detonator. The temporary safeguarding of the situation of the above-mentioned CE must take place by taking measures whereby the CE remains at the location (in- situ). With regard to the situation mentioned under points A5 and A6, the Senior OCE expert may deviate from this with reasons. That is registered. A.5 Phosphorus formation or residues with phosphorus infected should remain in-situ or be placed in a separate VTVS. A.6 The CE detected that are entered in the VTVS are brought for that purpose by a Senior OCE expert classified in one of the below categories 2 . B1 Machine Translated by Google high-explosive explosives with detonators B2 high-explosive explosives without means of detonation B3 ammunition containing a pyrotechnic charge contains or has contained B4 ammunition containing white or contains or has contained red phosphorus B5 small caliber ammunition up to and including 19.1 mm B6 ignition devices containing or likely to contain explosive and/or pyrotechnic substances B7 low smoke gunpowder or black gunpowder B8 on CE equivalent material (see definition chapter 2 WSCS-OCE) A.7 The maximum amount NEM that may be placed in the VTVS is 10 kg, unless the municipality, as the competent authority for public order and safety, gives written permission for a deviating amount of NEM on the basis of a thorough risk analysis. b. SITUATION OF THE PROVISION The B.1 VTVS is set up on a flat and paved surface and is easily and safely accessible. B.2 The VTVS is not allowed be uncontrollably accessible to Machine Translated by Google unauthorized persons. A sound and lockable fencing or wire mesh of at least 1.80 meters high has therefore been installed around the storage facility, unless the storage facility is located within a closed area that is inaccessible to third parties. B.3 The following sign has been placed on all sides of the fence: B.4 Within a distance of 10 meters around the VTVS there are no objects and vegetation, with the exception of the fencing as referred to above and security measures such as a barricade. B.5 Within a distance of No smoking is allowed 10 meters around the VTVS and no open fire is allowed. A pictogram in accordance with NEN3011 has been placed on the outside of the VTVS or on the fencing in a place that is clearly visible to third parties with regard to this prohibition. c. WAY OF LAYING OUT FROM CE C.1 The CE get orderly and stable. C.2 The CE are at least placed one caliber away from the wall of the VTVS. C.3 CE be such Machine Translated by Google so that they do not come into direct contact with the floor. C.4 CE are recorded separately in the VTVS per category as determined in part B. This takes place by means of a physical separation with a height of at least the highest stacking height of the adjacent CE B categories. C.5 Sympathetic detonation is prevented by the CE in category B1, B2 and B6 at a distance of at least twice the caliber of the largest CE. C.6 CE in category B6 are deposited in a separate compartment of the VTVS which is covered from above. The CE will be laid down in a sand bed. C.7 CE in category B7 is deposited in a separate compartment of the VTVS which is covered from above in such a way that static electricity is prevented. C.8 In the VTVS indicated where which B category of CE is deposited. C.9 The VTVS may only are used for filing CE and to CE Machine Translated by Google assimilated articles and no other items may be stored in this, except first aid equipment and according to the WSCS-OCE mandatory registrations. C.10 CE in category B4 (phosphorus-containing CE) is deposited in a separate facility, which complies with the other requirements in this annex, when submerged in water. The water container is sturdy, sound and frost-resistant and covered from above, so that evaporation of water is prevented. First aid aids for the treatment of phosphorus fires are available at the project site. D. REQUIREMENTS FOR THE CONSTRUCTION OF THE VVVS D.1 The VTVS is 60 minutes fire resistant against fires outside the storage in accordance with NEN 6069:2011. D.2 The VTVS is here Prevention of unwanted mechanical / physical influences from outside protected. The walls (including the entrance door) and the roof therefore consist of 7 mm steel plate with a 40 mm multiplex waterproof construction plate on the inside, or a minimum equivalent Machine Translated by Google provision. D.3 The floor of the VTVS is made of such a material that sparks are prevented. D.4 The access of the VTVS is locked from the outside with a lock and key or in another equivalent manner, but can be opened from the inside without a key. Hinges and locks have a burglary resistance that meets the requirements in the NEN5089:2009 for resistance class 2. D.5 When entering the VTVS is assured that there is sufficient light (incidence) to be able to bring the CE in and out of the VTVS safely. D.6 The VTVS falls in accordance with NPR 7910-2:2010 in zone 22 (ATEX 137). If the VTVS is fitted with an electric installation, it is gas- and explosion- proof in accordance with ATEX 95 (NEN EN IEC 60079-14). D.7 The VTVS is equipped with an alarm system for motion detection in the VTVS, tilting / moving of the VTVS, intrusion into the VTVS, fire detection and tamper of the alarm system. The Machine Translated by Google When detected, the alarm center gives at least a sound signal, light signal and a telephone report to the emergency service or the key holder, as referred to under point E.1 of this annex. D.8 On the outside (front) of the VTVS is below danger sign, fire class sign and prohibition sign. The danger sign and fire class sign are only installed if there is actually CE in the VTVS. D.9 At a maximum distance of 20 meters from the VTVS has an ABC fire extinguisher with a capacity of at least 12 kg in a clearly visible and accessible place. The fire extinguisher must not be located in the VTVS. D.10 The VTVS is efficiently ventilated. Ventilation openings must not affect the required fire resistance. E. OTHER REQUIREMENTS E.1 Responsible person for and key holder of the VTVS is a Senior OCE expert, as mentioned in the project plan. E.2 Entering the VTVS may only Machine Translated by Google take place by or under the supervision of a Senior OCE expert. E.3 When entering the VTVS, the formation of static electricity is prevented. E.4 As part of the work preparation, it is determined in consultation with the municipality as the competent authority for public order and safety whether an environmental permit or other permission is required for the VTVS. The results of this consultations are recorded. E.5 There will be the following items registered on a list that is available at the project location. The registration, including interim changes, is included in the project file. Regarding the CE in the VTVS: a. type, subspecies and nationality of the CE; b. reinforcement state of any detonators; c. the hazard category of the CE (B category); d. the explosive content NEM. Concerning the VTVS: a. the total amount of NEM in the VTVS; b. in which compartment which Machine Translated by Google B category has been deposited. E.6 The municipality as the competent authority for public order and safety and the fire service are informed of the amount of NEM in the VTVS, which also states that the CE must be classified as hazard class 1.1. designated. In the event of a change in the amount of NEM in the VTVS, the fire brigade is informed of this on a daily basis. In consultation with the authorities involved, a different working method can be established. This is recorded in the project file, including the written consent of these authorities. Footnotes to Appendix 6: 1 Net Explosive Mass, also referred to as Net Explosive Weight (NEG). 2 Classification B1 to B7 according to paragraph 6.2.1 of VS9-681 of the Ministry of Defense Ordinance on the search and clearance of explosives, established by C-OTCO dated September 29, 2010 under note number 2010013496. Appendix 7: Model Certificate Annex XIIa. belonging to article 4.17b Machine Translated by Google Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on certification bodies belonging to the: certification scheme for the personal certificate Fireworks expert Document: WDAT-VD CONTENT 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1 Document description Active Risk parties analysis with regard to 3.2 the functioning of CKI 3.3 4. Requirements for the designation Personal expert Central Board certification of 4.1 Fireworks 4.2 Experts SCVE 4.3 Complaints and objections 4.4 Maintenance of the WSCS-VD 4.5 Certification staff 4.6 Outsourcing 4.7 Requirements for subcontractor personnel 4.8 Instructions, Confidentiality and Independence 4.9 Personnel files 4.10 Information on the certificate 4.11 Supervision of the certificate holder 4.12 Recertification 4.13 Using the personal certificate and logos 4.14 Designation Criteria 5. SUPERVISION 6. MEASURES 1 Introduction Machine Translated by Google Igniting professional fireworks, building up, installing, mounting, assembling and removing professional fireworks on site, as well as treating, processing, packaging, repacking, pre-assembling, mounting and assembling professional fireworks in an establishment as referred to in Article 3.2.1 Fireworks Decree, concerns a high-risk professional activity. In order to safeguard the social interest – safety and health in connection with work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for guaranteeing the professional competence of fireworks experts. The certificate is issued by CKIs under this scheme. In order to be allowed to issue certificates, a CKI must be designated for this purpose by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. This is done through an assessment against this WDA&T. This document indicates which rules and procedures the relevant CKIs must adhere to. 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant of a certificate institution : The person involved in the certification applies for the issue of a fireworks expert certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulation by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the WDA&T established by the Minister of SZW, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the body is competent to issue legally required certificates. When determining the WDA&T by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, the international system is used as much as possible standards. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. In the present case, this is the Foundation for Certification of Fireworks and Explosives (SCVE). calamity : A (serious) unwanted event whereby danger to health and safety. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act . A certificate is regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in the Machine Translated by Google relevant accreditation standards. Certificate Holder : Person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification process : All activities through which a CKI assesses and decide whether a person meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and Inspection Body (CKI) : Calibration or conformity assessment bodies such as certification bodies, user inspectorates, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. CCvD-VD : The Central College of Experts, element of and facilitated by SCVE, which offers interested parties in a particular sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way wise that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Competence : Demonstrated ability to share knowledge and apply skills and, where relevant, demonstrated personal attributes, as defined in the certification scheme. Consumer fireworks private : Fireworks intended for usage. Consumer fireworks become (considered if) professional fireworks as consumer fireworks are intended for usage during an event or performance (with the exception of ignition between December 31, 10 a.m. and January 1, 2 a.m. Machine Translated by Google hours and with the exception of igniting fake and jesting fireworks throughout the year) and/or if consumer fireworks are processed for an event or representation. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Expert : A person who possesses such theoretical and has practical professional competence that he is able to work with professional fireworks in a safe and adequate manner. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, which the candidate must meet in order to allowed to be included in the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/or test assignments), intended to be able to assess the individual candidate to the extent in which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are administered. Exam regulations : Provisions for the implementation of exams in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Thorough knowledge : Ready knowledge needed to safely use to be able to work professionally with fireworks (factual knowledge), as well as insight to be able to apply this knowledge in all common situations, both known and new and unknown situations. big fireworks : Professional fireworks that are intended in front of use outside (open air) during an event or performance. Consumer fireworks intended for use during a Machine Translated by Google event or performance or that is edited for the benefit of an event or performance is regarded as large fireworks. : Information of which the expert on the Knowledge height should be, and which the expert should know is important for working with professional fireworks. Complaint : Oral, telephone or written communication showing that the requirements or expectations have not been met. Nuffic : Dutch non-profit service organization and center of expertise in the field of internationally oriented education, based in The Hague. Professional fireworks : Fireworks, not being consumer fireworks. If there are fireworks that do not meet the requirements for consumer fireworks, this provides an indication that they are professional fireworks. It is not the nature of the fireworks that is decisive for the distinction between consumer fireworks and professional fireworks. There are two categories of professional fireworks, namely Pyrotechnic Special Effects and Large Fireworks. Pyrotechnic Special Effects is intended : Professional fireworks that for use during an event or performance with close audience distances and of which by the manufacturer or importer has indicated that it is suitable for this use. Risk analysis : Risk analysis with regard to the functioning of the CKI, which shows motivation for choices to be made in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended field- specific certification scheme. Supervision : Gathering the information about the ask whether an act or matter meets the requirements set for it, then forming an opinion about it and possibly intervening as a result. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a certain field of work or a Machine Translated by Google certain professional group, to persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Working with it : To ignite, for the benefit of on-site construction, installation, assembly, assembly and removal after ignition, as well as the processing, processing, packaging, repacking, pre-assembly, mounting and assembling of professional fireworks in an establishment as referred to in the Fireworks Decree. Work plan (referred to in Article 4.9 first paragraph of: the Document describing activities in the Working general sense, the specific Conditions Decree) work on the area of large fireworks and/or pyrotechnic special effects, the risks associated with the work, a description of the measures to be taken or taken and signed by the person who holds the certificate of professional competence for fireworks. WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific document of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must comply with in order to at be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WDAT-VD : Field specific document for Clues Supervision for the Fireworks Expert (VD) personal certificate. Document: WDAT-VD. WSCS : Term used by SZW for a field-specific certification scheme that has been accepted by the Minister of SZW for use within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WSCS-VD : Field-specific certification scheme for it Fireworks expert (VD) personal certificate. Document: WSCS-VD. Machine Translated by Google 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. Description document This field-specific designation and supervision document (WDAT-VD) relates to work in relation to professional fireworks. The professional field-specific document has been adopted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. This adopted document supersedes previous versions. Comments and/or comments about this document can be submitted to the Central Board of Experts VD. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this designation and supervision document, the following have been involved in the preparation: •. Fireworks & Explosives Certification Foundation (SCVE) •. Central Board of Experts Fireworks Expert (CCvD-VD) 3.3. Risk analysis with regard to the functioning of the CKI The purpose of personal certification is to provide stakeholders with confidence in the competence of certificate holders. This trust is based on the CKI's compliance with the principles described below. Failure to comply with this will lead to risks with regard to the functioning of the CKI and the confidence of interested parties in the Fireworks Expert Personal Certification Scheme may be damaged. In the WSCS-VD, as well as in this document, it is specified specifically for the Fireworks Expert personal certification scheme in which way the aforementioned principles must be implemented by the CKI. This is to prevent the risks related to these principles from manifesting themselves. Impartiality The CKI's policies and procedures must ensure that all applicants for the Personal Certificate are treated fairly and equally. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to what is stated in the certification requirements and the certification regulations. The CKI is prohibited from preventing or hindering certificate applicants from accessing the certification procedure. Decisions of the CKI must be based on objective evidence of (non-)conformity in relation to the certification requirements and must not be influenced by other interests or other parties. Expertise The CKI must have sufficient employees, including responsible management, with the necessary education, training, professional expertise, attitude and experience to be able to perform the certification tasks related to the Fireworks Expert person certification scheme. Responsibility Machine Translated by Google The CKI has policies and procedures in place with regard to the granting, maintenance, re- issuance, suspension and revocation of the Fireworks Expert personal certificate, as well as with regard to extending or limiting the scope of the personal certificate. The CKI is responsible for collecting sufficient objective and relevant evidence for taking a certification decision. When sufficient evidence of conformity with the certification requirements has been gathered, the CKI decides to award the Fireworks Expert person certificate to the applicant in question. If insufficient evidence of conformity has been gathered, this will lead to the CKI's rejection of the application for the Fireworks Expert personal certificate. If certification activities (eg examinations) are outsourced to an external party by the CKI, this must be based on a written agreement. This describes the duties, powers and responsibilities of both parties, as well as the arrangements with regard to confidentiality and the prevention of conflicts of interest and, where necessary, objection and appeal. Taking a certification decision cannot be outsourced by the CKI. Openness In order to guarantee confidence in certification, the CKI must ensure that non-confidential information about the certification process (for example, investigation into complaints) is accessible to parties with an interest in it. Confidentiality For the purpose of the certification process, the CKI must have access to personal data and exam results of applicants and certificate holders. The CKI must keep this information confidential in order to prevent customers from objecting to its collection and storage. Admissibility for complaints Parties with an interest in certification expect complaints to be investigated and, if justified, followed up by appropriate measures. Effective complaint handling is important for protecting the CKI, its customers and other certification stakeholders against errors, omissions or unreasonable behaviour. The confidence placed by stakeholders in certification partly depends on this. 4. Requirements for the designation 4.1. Personal Certification Fireworks Expert Machine Translated by Google The requirements of NEN EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 apply to the assessment and designation of CKIs for the WSCS-VD, as well as the requirements imposed on the CKI on the basis of designation. Insofar as this WDAT- VD does not deviate from resp. If a further elaboration is given of the accreditation standard NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012, this standard is deemed to be fully applicable. 4.2. Central Board of Experts SCVE The CKI undertakes on the basis of the agreement with the SCVE to use the CCvD established by the SCVE (and approved by SZW and anchored in regulations) for Fireworks Experts. The CCvD represents the interests of all parties involved in the work field Fireworks expert involved parties (suppliers and buyers of the certificate, governments, CKIs, examination institutes) in a fair and equal manner, without any interest prevailing. The CCvD develops, manages and maintains the Scheme for designation and supervision as well as the field-specific certification scheme Fireworks Expert. The CKI fully applies the certification scheme managed by the CCvD. It is stated in NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 that the scheme committee (CCvD) itself can determine how certain elements of the field-specific certification scheme Fireworks Expert can be changed. In the present case, the following, deviating from this, regulation with regard to changes applies. After the CCvD has accepted changes to the WSCS, the CCvD will present the changed schedule to the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. The Minister then declares the scheme binding by means of a static reference in the legislation and regulations. If the Minister has major objections to one or more components, he will consult the CCvD about this. The CCvD can then adjust the schedules. If the CCvD does not agree with the minister's objections, it will make this clear to the minister, stating reasons. The Minister then takes a decision. 4.3. Complaints and objections Specifically for the WSCS-VD, the CKI must establish a complaints procedure and an objection procedure. These arrangements must comply with the provisions of the WSCS-VD. The arrangements should ensure that objections and complaints are handled in an independent and unbiased manner. Regulations regarding the actions of certificate holders are laid down in the Fireworks Expert Code of Conduct, as included in Appendix A of the WSCS-VD. The applicant / certificate holder Fireworks Expert must comply with this in writing during certification and recertification. 4.4. Maintenance of the WSCS-VD Machine Translated by Google The testing method that is applied in determining the competence of applicants for the Fireworks Expert personal certificate is described in chapters 9 to 11 of the WSCS-VD. Based on reports from the CKI (see below), the CCvD determines at least annually the fairness, validity, reliability and topicality of the testing method. Changes in the certification requirements for the Fireworks Expert, as well as the applicable transitional arrangement, are announced to the certificate holders by the CKI, for example by publishing them. The CKI guarantees that all certificate holders are examined for conformity with the changed certification requirements within the transition period. The CKI ensures that access to the certification procedure is not limited or impeded on the basis of inappropriate financial or other conditions, such as membership of a professional association. The CKI does not discriminate between applicants for the Fireworks Expert certificate during the certification process, based on whether or not they have undergone education or training in the field of professional fireworks. The CKI investigates the fairness, validity and reliability of the examination method at least annually, and reports on this in writing to the CCvD Fireworks Expert. For this research, the CKI must have a description of the methods applied (such as the collection and storage of statistical data). In the report, the CKI also describes the overall course of each exam and how any deviations that occurred during this process have been corrected. 4.5. Certification staff The following certification personnel are involved in the implementation of the field-specific certification scheme for Fireworks Experts. Fireworks expert examiner examination institution: This examines by means of audits whether examination institutions meet the applicable requirements from the field-specific certification scheme Fireworks expert and reports his/her findings and conclusions in writing to the decision maker (see below). Fireworks expert personal certificate assessor: Based on the exam results supplied by examination institutions, this assessor determines whether candidates are eligible for a personal fireworks expert certificate. They report their findings and conclusions in writing to the decision maker (see below). Decider person certificate and examination institution Fireworks expert: This decision, based on the reports of the assessor of the examination institution and the assessor of the personal certificate, decides whether or not to accept an examination institution for the certification scheme Fireworks expert, or whether or not to award a person certificate Fireworks expert to an applicant. . The requirements imposed on these personnel are set out below. Evaluator Examination Institute Fireworks Expert Machine Translated by Google •. Successfully completed training to become a lead auditor of quality management systems; •. Professional training at a minimum HBO level; •. Knowledge of and experience in the field of examination and insight into testing methods, as well as meeting at least one of the following requirements: . Successfully passed fireworks expert exam in the fields of application Large Fireworks and Pyrotechnic Special Effects; . Safety training at a minimum HVK level (or equivalent). Personal certificate assessor Fireworks expert •. Experience with assessing files in the context of personal certification; •. Professional training at a minimum MBO level; •. Knowledge of and experience in the field of examinations; •. Knowledge of personal certification (NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012). Decider personal certificate and examination institution Fireworks expert •. Successfully completed training to become a lead auditor of quality management systems; •. Professional training at a minimum HBO level; •. Knowledge of and experience in the field of examination and insight into testing methods; •. Management function within the CKI; •. At least three years of experience with personal certification (NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012). 4.6. Outsourcing A CKI is authorized to have the development and administration of Fireworks expert examinations carried out by external examination institutions, with due observance of the requirements imposed by SZW on the designation of that CKI. To this end, a written contract for outsourcing must be concluded in which the tasks, powers and responsibilities of the CKI and the examination institution are included. In the event of outsourcing, the CKI accepts full ultimate responsibility for the outsourced activities. The CKI will at all times provide SCVE with an accurate list of subcontractors under the Fireworks Expert Person Certification Scheme. Before proceeding to accept an examination institution, the CKI assesses it for compliance with the requirements of paragraphs 5.2 to 5.5 of the WSCS SCVE-VD. The CKI will record the results and conclusions of this assessment in writing. The CKI repeats this assessment of the examination institution at least annually. The CKI also attends a Fireworks Expert exam of the examination institute at least once a year and records the results and conclusions of this in writing. If it is established by the CKI during an assessment of the examination institution or attendance of a Fireworks Expert examination that the requirements set are not met, the examination institution must implement corrective measures in order to correct the established deviation and prevent recurrence. The maximum timeframe for implementing corrective measures Machine Translated by Google is three months, on the understanding that this must always take place before the next Fireworks Expert exam. 4.7. Requirements for subcontractor personnel The requirements that apply to examination personnel are laid down in section 5.3 of the WSCS SCVE-VD. Before appointment, the examination staff is assessed by the CKI on whether they meet these requirements. Records of this assessment are kept by the CKI in the personnel file of the relevant employee of the examination institution. The certification decision, the issue of certificates with the preceding assessment of supporting documents, as well as the renewal of certificates cannot be outsourced. The requirements for the CKI arising from the agreement with the SCVE and the application of the certification regulations apply in full to the examination institution. 4.8. Instructions, Confidentiality and Independence The CKI is responsible for ensuring that each of its own employees and each employee of the contracted examination institution has access to written instructions, specifying their duties and responsibilities. These instructions are kept current. Personnel of the CKI and the Examination Body involved in the Fireworks Expert certification scheme must sign a declaration stating that they will comply with the instructions of the CKI, including those regarding confidentiality and independence from commercial or other interests . They must also declare that they have or have had no connections with applicants for the Fireworks Expert certificate and examination candidates, which could jeopardize their impartiality. In the unlikely event of a possible conflict of interest, the examiner in question is obliged to report this to the CKI without delay. In that case, the CKI will take measures to prevent the confidentiality and impartiality of the exam from being jeopardized. This means that the examination candidate in question is assessed by another examiner. This is recorded in writing in the exam report. 4.9. Personnel files The CKI has an up-to-date file of every employee and every employee of the contracted examination institution. This file is accessible to the person concerned and contains the following information: •. Name and address; •. Employer and position; •. Education and work experience •. Experience and training related to position fulfilled in the framework of the Fireworks Expert certification scheme; •. Tasks and responsibilities within the CKI; Machine Translated by Google •. Reports of assessment and/or performance interviews; •. Registrations of qualification(s) under the personal certification scheme Fireworks expert; •. Date of the most recent modification of the file. 4.10. Information on the certificate Chapter 12 of the WSCS SCVE-VD describes which information is stated by the CKI on the Fireworks expert personal certificates. 4.11. Supervision of the certificate holder The manner in which the CKI supervises the certificate holder during the validity period of the Fireworks Expert personal certificate is described in chapter 6 of the WSCS SCVE-VD. 4.12. Recertification The criteria that the Fireworks Expert certificate holder must meet for recertification are described in chapter 11 of the WSCS SCVE-VD. 4.13. Use of the personal certificate and logos The CKI must demonstrably inform Fireworks Expert certificate holders about the regulations regarding the use of the Fireworks Expert personal certificate and the associated logos/marks. These regulations must be laid down in writing and form part of the certification agreement between both parties. It must also describe the sanctions that apply in the event of incorrect use of certificates and/or logos/marks, such as suspension or withdrawal of the Fireworks Expert personal certificate. The certificate holder may, if applicable, indicate that it is certified as a Fireworks expert by means of a logo or pictogram made available by the CKI. The use of logos of others (for example SCVE or RvA), whether or not in combination with the logo or pictogram of the CKI, is only permitted in accordance with the conditions of the owner of the logo in question. 4.14. Designation Criteria In the context of its designation on the basis of Articles 1.5a to 1.5d Working Conditions Decree, the CKI is assessed against the following criteria: 4.14.1. The designated CKI and the employees in charge of the inspections or assessments perform them with the highest degree of professional integrity. 4.14.2. There is an integrity policy, which is set out in clear rules where necessary worked out. The staff has demonstrably complied with this. 4.14.3. The designated CKI acts with integrity and does not act in the market outside its powers. Machine Translated by Google 4.14.4. The personnel of the designated CKI is demonstrably bound by professional secrecy with regard to all that they have learned in the performance of their duties under the decision, except vis-à-vis the competent government authorities. 4.14.5. The designated CKI is an administrative body within the meaning of the General Act administrative law and must comply with administrative legislation such as the General Administrative Law Act, the Open Government Act and the Public Records Act 1995. 4.14.6. The designated CKI must have third-party liability insurance that provides adequate cover for reasonably foreseeable risks. 4.14.7. The designated CKI must have a procedure in which it is arranged that in In the event of a suspected imminent threat to safety, this is immediately reported by the employee concerned, stating that the institution will inform the interested parties as soon as possible, including the relevant government agency if applicable. 4.14.8. Upon termination of the activities by the designated CKI, he/she must: to inform the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment immediately. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines what the (formerly) appointed CKI should do with the files, and the (formerly) designated CKI must cooperate with this. This does not indemnify the (previously) appointed CKI from any liability for errors in inspections or assessments it has carried out. 4.14.9. The designated CKI must have the following procedures in writing: an opinion procedure (section 4.1.2 Awb), an objection procedure (chapters 6 and 7 Awb) and a complaints procedure (chapter 9 Awb). . 4.14.10. The designated CKI must be demonstrably represented in the national consultations of the institutions, organized by the CCvD and the CKIs participate in the consultations with the CCvD. The CKIs must be able to demonstrate that they implement the agreements made in consultation with the CCvD. other CKIs. Obligation to report refusal, suspension or withdrawal of certificates 4.14.11. to the 4.14.12. With regard to the sanctions/measures to be imposed, the Cki adheres to the sanctions and measures policy established. In the event of manifest unreasonableness, the CKI has the authority to deviate from this on the basis of the Awb. Deviation only takes place on the basis of arguments to be put forward by the certificate holder. The substantiation for the deviation is included in the decision on the imposed sanction. Deviations are registered by the CKI. 4.14.13. All documents and registrations in traffic with the government must be in Dutch unless otherwise agreed with the government. 4.14.14. Prohibition of subcontracting on the issuance of certificates and the preceding assessment and decision. 5. Supervision In connection with the obligations in the context of supervision, the following articles apply; Articles 1.5b and 1.5c Working Conditions Decree and Article 1.1a Working Conditions Regulations. For the purpose of collecting information, the CKI must: Machine Translated by Google a) Report to SZW in writing before 1 March each year about the legitimacy and effectiveness of the performance in each field of activity for which the institution has been designated by the Minister of SZW (the written justification is sent to the SZW Inspectorate). This written report covers at least the following topics: 1. the issued, suspended, withdrawn or rejected certificates; 2. changes in the accreditations, regulations and procedures relating to the field of work of the CKI; 3. changes in the CKI's field of activity division of tasks 4. changes in the composition of the board; 5. amendments to the articles of association or the internal regulations; 6. work outsourced to third parties; 7. structural bottlenecks in the work field of the institution that have arisen in the implementation practice; 8. the consultation and cooperation in the field with other certification bodies; 9. complaints received by the institution and the manner of handling of them; 10. objections lodged against the decisions of the institution and cases brought and the manner in which they are handled; 11. a financial report on the activities for which the setting is recommended. b) To cooperate in checks on behalf of SZW (in practice this means: that the checks can be carried out by the Inspectorate SZW and the national accreditation body) . c) Provide timely and correct information that SZW needs to be able to assess whether it continues to meet the designation standards (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW or to the national accreditation body). d) Immediately provide information to SZW and SCVE in the context of their registration task, about individual certificates/certificate holders on whom a sanction has been imposed (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW). e) Provide information to the Inspectorate SZW about the way in which they has issued depositary receipts and the way in which it periodically assesses the actions of depositary receipt holders. f) To demonstrate to SZW that it adequately checks whether certificate holders continue to comply with the certification requirements (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the SZW Inspectorate or to the national accreditation body). In any case, the frequency, nature and extent (duration) of the checks are shown. g) to inform SZW as soon as it intends to terminate one or more of its tasks. h) to inform SZW as soon as it submits an application for an additional accreditation or assessment based on a legal specific scheme. Machine Translated by Google 6. Measures If the designated institution no longer meets the requirements in this scheme, this may have consequences for the designation. See policy measure measures policy certification Working Conditions Act and Commodities Act, Stcrt. 2010, no. 10839 of July 14, 2010. Annex XIIb. belonging to article 4.17b Field-specific certification scheme for the Fireworks expert personal certificate Document: WSCS-VD CONTENT 1. PREFACE 2. DEFINITIONS ES 3. FIELD-SPECIFIC CHARACTERISTICS 3.1 Description scheme 3.2 Active parties 3.3 Risk analysis and infringement criteria 4. CERTIFICATION RULES 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Validity period of the certificate 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints procedure 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 5. EXAMINATION REGULATIONS 5.1 Objective 5.2 The exam institution 5.3 Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff 5.4 Requirements for the exam 5.5 Manage item bank 6. SUPERVISION 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency of the Machine Translated by Google supervision 6.3 The manner in which the supervision is carried out 6.4 Report of findings Measures 6.5 ( Article 1.5 E Working Conditions Decree ) 7. SUBJECT TO CERTIFICATION 8. CERTIFICATION CRITERIA A 9. END TERMS 9.1 General attainment targets for professional fireworks, pyrotechnics, health and safety 9.2 Final objectives large fireworks 9.3 Attainment targets pyrotechnic special effects 10. TEST METHODOLOGY FOR INITIAL CERTIFICATION 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Assessment method 10.3 Pass exam 11. RECERTIFICATION 12. THE CERTIFICATE 13. VALIDITY CONDITIONS APPENDIX A FIREWORKS EXPERT CODE OF CONDUCT APPENDIX B: TRANSITIONAL ARRANGEMENT Part I: General Provisions Part I of this certification scheme contains general principles and provisions for certification by CKIs and conditions under which certificates must be issued. Described is successively: •. The field to which this certification scheme relates, •. Definitions, •. A description of the specific characteristics of the field of work including: a risk analysis, •. the certification regulations, •. The examination regulations, and •. Provisions relating to supervision. 1 Introduction Machine Translated by Google This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-VD. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of performing work with professional fireworks. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns: •. Large Fireworks (igniting, building up, installing, assembling, assembling and removing after ignition on site, processing in an establishment as referred to in Article 3.2.1 of the Fireworks Decree, abbreviated: GV); •. Pyrotechnic Special Effects (on-site ignition, building up, installing, assembling, assembling and removing pyrotechnic special effects after ignition, processing in an establishment as referred to in Article 3.2.1 of the Fireworks Decree, abbreviated: PSE); •. Processing, packaging and repacking of professional fireworks in an establishment (limited field of application: setting up, building, installing, assembling, assembling, removing and processing after ignition, (pre) assembling and assembling is excluded, abbreviated: BT). The certification system of the Certification Body (CKI) must be structured in in accordance with the requirements of NEN-EV-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 and IAF GD 24:2004. 2. definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant of a certificate institution : The person involved in the certification applies for the issue of a fireworks expert certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulation by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the WDA&T established by the Minister of SZW, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the body is competent to issue legally required certificates. When determining the WDA&T by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, the international system is used as much as possible standards. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. In the present case, this is the Firework Certification Foundation Machine Translated by Google and Explosives (SCVE). Calamity in : A (serious) unwanted event which danger to health and safety. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act . A certificate is considered a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in the relevant accreditation standards. Certificate Holder : Person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification process : All activities through which a CKI assesses and decide whether a person meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and Inspection Body (CKI) : Calibration or conformity assessment bodies such as certification bodies, user inspectorates, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. Censorship : The boundary between the highest test score to which an unsatisfactory and the lowest test score to which a pass is awarded. CCvD-VD : The Central College of Experts, element of and facilitated by SCVE, which offers interested parties in a particular sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way wise that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Machine Translated by Google Competence : Demonstrated ability to share knowledge and apply skills and, where relevant, demonstrated personal attributes, as defined in the certification scheme. Consumer fireworks private : Fireworks intended for usage. Consumer fireworks become (considered if) professional fireworks as consumer fireworks are intended for usage during an event or performance (with the exception of igniting between 10 a.m. December 31 and 2 a.m. on January 1, and with the exception of decoy and banter fireworks throughout the year) and/or if consumer fireworks are processed for the purpose of of an event or representation. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Expert : A person who possesses such theoretical and has practical professional competence that he is able to work with professional fireworks in a safe and adequate manner. Attainment targets : A description of the whole of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific area of competence for the benefit of the tests of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, which the candidate must meet in order to allowed to be included in the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/or test assignments), intended to be able to assess the individual candidate to the extent in which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Machine Translated by Google Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are administered. Exam regulations : Provisions for the implementation of exams in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Thorough knowledge : Ready knowledge needed to safely use to be able to work professionally in fireworks (factual knowledge), as well as insight to be able to apply this knowledge in all common situations, both known and new and unknown situations. big fireworks : Professional fireworks that are intended in front of use outside (open air) during an event or performance. Consumer fireworks that is intended for use during an event or performance or that is processed for the purpose of an event or performance is regarded as large fireworks. : Information of which the expert on the Knowledge height should be, and which the expert should know is important for working with professional fireworks. Complaint : Oral, telephone or written communication showing that the requirements or expectations have not been met. Nuffic : Dutch non-profit service organization and center of expertise in the field of internationally oriented education, based in The Hague. Professional fireworks : Fireworks, not being consumer fireworks. If there are fireworks that do not meet the requirements for consumer fireworks, this provides an indication that they are professional fireworks. It is not the nature of the fireworks that is decisive for the distinction between consumer fireworks and professional fireworks. There are two categories of professional fireworks, namely Pyrotechnic Special Effects and Large Fireworks. Machine Translated by Google Pyrotechnic Special Effects is intended : Professional fireworks that for use during an event or performance with close audience distances and of which by the manufacturer or importer has indicated that it is suitable for this use. Risk analysis : Risk analysis with regard to the functioning of the CKI, which shows motivation for choices to be made in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended field- specific certification scheme. Supervision : Gathering the information about the ask whether an act or matter meets the requirements set for it, then forming an opinion about it and possibly intervening as a result. Professional competence : The requirements that, within a certain requirements work field or a certain professional group, to persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Field of competence function, : Indication of the field of work, the or a set of tasks related to certain professional competence requirements. Work with : To ignite, for the benefit of of them on-site construction, installation, assembly, assembly and removal after ignition, as well as the processing, processing, packaging, repacking, pre-assembly, mounting and assembling of professional fireworks in an establishment as referred to in the Fireworks Decree. Work plan (referred to in Article 4.9 first paragraph of: the Document describing activities in the Working Conditions Decree) activities on the general sense, the specific area of large fireworks and/or pyrotechnic special effects, the risks associated with the work, a description of the measures to be taken or taken and signed by the person who holds the certificate of professional competence for fireworks. Machine Translated by Google WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific document of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must comply with in order to at be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WDAT-VD : Field specific document for Clues Supervision for the Fireworks Expert (VD) personal certificate. Document: WDAT-VD. WSCS : Term used by SZW for a field-specific certification scheme that has been accepted by the Minister of SZW for use within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WSCS-VD : Field-specific certification scheme for the Fireworks expert (VD) personal certificate. Document: WSCS-VD. 3. Field-specific characteristics Igniting professional fireworks, building up, installing, mounting, assembling and removing professional fireworks on site, as well as treating, processing, packaging, repacking, pre- assembling, mounting and assembling professional fireworks in an establishment as referred to in Article 3.2.1 Fireworks Decree, concerns a high-risk professional activity. In order to safeguard the social interest – safety and health in connection with work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for assuring the professional competence of fireworks experts. 3.1. Description scheme This field-specific certification scheme (WSCS-VD) relates to work in relation to professional fireworks. The WSCS has been established by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. Comments or comments about the certification scheme can be submitted to the Central Board of Experts VD. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this certification scheme, the following are active: Certification Body Certification Body Machine Translated by Google and and (CKIs) are by SZW have been appointed for the implementation of this certification scheme and are responsible for issuing and collecting personal certificates for Fireworks Experts. The organization of exams under this certification scheme can be outsourced by CKIs to examination institutions. These must be determined by a CKI on the basis of an investigation accepted and are responsible for organizing exams. The SCVE Certification Foundation is the owner of Fireworks and Explosives this (SCVE) certification schemeto and enterasinto such is authorized agreements with CKIs that enable them to issue Fireworks Expert personal certificates. A CKI must also be designated for this by SZW. Central Board of the CCvD-VD Experts act as 'scheme committee' Fireworks to in (CCvD-VD) expert as paragraph referred 4.2.3 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 and is responsible for the development and management of the certification scheme. In the CCvD-VD, the certification scheme Machine Translated by Google interested parties are represented in a balanced way, i.e. in such a way that no interests prevail. Examination Boards Any exam institution has an Examination Board that is responsible for the development and maintenance of exam questions and assignments based on this certification scheme. An examination board consists of experts with regard to certifying professional competence on the one hand and developing exams on the other hand. Certificate holder The holder of the WSCS-VD must comply with the set requirements, cooperate in all forms of supervision within the framework of this certification scheme and overpay the costs charged by the CKIs of his choice can be made in assessing and keeping of supervision. In practice, the costs are usually borne by the certificate holder's employer. 3.3. Risk analysis and detriment criteria Machine Translated by Google Under the responsibility of the CCvD-VD, a risk analysis has been drawn up of the hazards and risks in the work field. This assessment is shown in the text below. The risk analysis and the resulting non-compliance criteria serve as the basis for the elaboration of field-specific requirements The following tasks are common when working professionally with fireworks: •. To receive; •. Internal transport; •. Save; •. Editing in a device; •. processing, packaging and repacking; •. Relocation to the combustion site; •. Build, install, assemble and assemble; •. Ignite on site; •. Remove after ignition. The main risks when working with fireworks are injury or damage from fire and/or explosion as a result of premature and unintentional ignition. These risks arise from the chemical reactions between the starting materials in fireworks. These can burn 'normally', but also deflagrate, ie burn explosively. Explosive combustion (deflagration), which proceeds many times faster than normal combustion, produces pressure effects because large quantities of hot gases are produced in a very short time. When this takes place in a sealed container, the pressure can rise so high that the container explodes. When this happens prematurely and unintentionally, the risk of injury or damage from fire and/or explosion is greatest. Since premature ignition can be initiated by a sufficient, but unintentional, external energy supply (heat, friction, impact or impact), this unintended supply of energy must be prevented when handling and handling fireworks. Other risks associated with working with fireworks include: •. Not ignited come back (duds); •. shard effect; •. Ejection of (burning) parts; •. Noise, smoke and dust particles. 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations define the procedures relevant to the correct application of the WSCS-VD. This includes procedures for application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions relating to certification, the issuance of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out inspections, handling complaints and review. 4.2. Certification procedure Machine Translated by Google The candidate Fireworks Expert submits an application to the CKI for the Fireworks Expert personal certificate in accordance with these certification regulations. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs at the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who was not involved in the assessment of the candidates and who is qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the CKI has on the basis of the field-specific schedule for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate Under the responsibility of the CCvD-VD, a risk analysis has been drawn up of the hazards and risks in the work field. This assessment is presented in section 3.3. The risk analysis and the resulting non-compliance criteria serve as the basis for the maximum period of validity of the Fireworks Expert personal certificate. This has been set at 3 years by the CCvD VD. 4.5. Validity conditions Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. The conditions and the way in which they must be supervised by the CKI are drawn up by the CCvD-VD and recorded in this certification scheme. 4.6. Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI Adequate treatment of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person Machine Translated by Google If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter, creates a file for the purpose of monitoring progress and includes the handling of the complaint by the company/person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. Machine Translated by Google The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non- granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: . name and address of submitter . date . a description of the contested decision . the grounds of the objection. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. Machine Translated by Google •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more expert(s) appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision added to the objection. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. Machine Translated by Google administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with SCVE, this data is sent electronically to the secretariat of SCVE at least as often as changes occur. The CKI sets up a Fireworks Expert certificate register in accordance with statutory provisions. This register is made accessible via the Internet. The CKI is responsible for managing the register. A link is made from the SCVE website to the CKI website, which contains the certificate register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD-VD must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this WSCS-VD. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in this field-specific certification scheme. If it happens that certificate holders, the CKI or other interested parties use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then different interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD-VD. 5. Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the WSCS-VD. 5.1. Objective These exam regulations are part of the SCVE-VD certification scheme. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the CKI and consists of the following parts: •. Pyrotechnic Special Effects: exam consisting of three parts; •. Great Fireworks: exam consisting of three parts; •. The processing, processing, packaging, repacking, pre-assembly, mounting and assembling professional fireworks in an establishment: exam consisting of three parts. 5.2. The exam institution The examination institution must use the examination regulations, as referred to in 5.1, which must include the following: a) effective date of the certificate; Machine Translated by Google b) any entrance requirements for taking the exam (in this case, no entry requirements established); the application procedure at the CKI; confirmation of participation and call; identification of the participants; c) admission and absence; exam duration and method of examination; rules of conduct for candidates; adjusted exam arrangement; pass and fail standards; announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; retention period of the exam documents such as answers and d) e) f) g) h) i) j) k) l) assessment forms; m) right of inspection; n) validity period of the exam result. The examination institution and the CKI have committed themselves to each other by means of an agreement. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. The CKI is obliged to report to SCVE that exams are taken by an external examination institution and which institution it concerns. 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. The selection process must guarantee that examination staff who administer (part of) an examination at least meet the following requirements: •. General: . At least 1 year of demonstrable experience in conducting exams; . Demonstrably instructed by the examination institution with regard to the tasks and responsibilities and the handling of the examination regulations; •. Subject matter: . Have a valid personal certificate in the exam scope, i.e. PSE, GV or BT; . Have at least three years of work experience in the field of application to be examined. •. Independence: . Have not been involved as a teacher in the training of the te examining candidates; . Have no personal or business ties to the examinee candidates. If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination are not discredited. These measures must be recorded. An examination institution must have a documented procedure for the appointment and supervision of new examiners. Machine Translated by Google 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the certification/examination institutes are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the CKI. Employees of the examination institute have signed a declaration of confidentiality. 5.4.2. General rules when conducting exams Requirements for the exam location are: •. Outside influences may not influence the examination process or to disturb; •. There must be an acceptable climate (sufficient light, heating, ventilation, etc.); •. The space for the exam must be large enough to place candidates approximately 1 meter apart, so that fraud is prevented; •. A room must be available for the reception of the candidates; •. Sanitary facilities must be available near the exam location; •. A telephone (preferably with a direct outside line) must be available for the supervisor near the location. A mobile phone will also suffice; •. a table (minimum approximately 0.5 x 0.7 m) and chair must be provided for each candidate to be present and preferably a larger table and chair for the supervisor(s); Requirements for the exam are: •. For the exam, based on the number of candidates to be examined, sufficient bundled assignments and worksheets must be available. •. If at one exam location during one exam day on two different When a theory exam is taken, two different versions should be used. •. The basic principle is that a written exam is conducted in the Dutch language declined. 5.5. Manage item bank Each examination institution is responsible for managing its own item bank. This is done under strict secrecy by the examination board of the examination institution. 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder meets the requirements. Machine Translated by Google The supervision is completed depending on the subject of certification, the period of certification and the risk analysis. 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the national accreditation body, the Inspectorate SZW and any other government bodies. The necessary provisions for this are included in the agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder. 6.2. Frequency of supervision The supervision that the CKI exercises on certificate holders consists of: •. handling complaints received about certificate holders and examining information received about criminal offenses committed in the course of work. •. the annual on the basis of a random sample of at least 5% of the certificate holders assessing the registration prescribed in chapter 13, to be kept up to date by the certificate holder, over the period since the issue of the personal certificate. The CKI reports annually to the CCvD-VD on the number and nature of the complaints received about certificate holders and on the manner in which these have been handled and any sanctions imposed as a result, the supervision carried out on the certificate holders, the results and any sanctions imposed. as a result of this. If, on the basis of these reports, the CCvD-VD is of the opinion that additional supervision is desirable, the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment may decide on additional or alternative checks, including on the advice of the CCvD- VD. In that case, this section will indicate what these checks should consist of, what their scope should be and with what frequency the checks are performed. 6.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out A complaint about the actions of a certificate holder within the scope of the certificate can be submitted by an interested party to the CKI or to the certificate holder himself. In the latter case, the certificate holder is obliged to register this complaint and immediately report it to the CKI. The certificate holder is also obliged to register the finding or suspicion by the competent authority of criminal offenses committed in the performance of work and to report it immediately to the CKI. The CKI annually assesses, based on a random sample of at least 5% of the certificate holders, the registration prescribed in Chapter 13, to be kept up to date by the certificate holder, over the period since the personal certificate was issued. The work experience requirement here is that demonstrably, at least twice per period of 12 months since the date of issue of the personal certificate, the type of work concerned has been performed within the field of application Large Fireworks or Pyrotechnic Special Effects. This should be apparent from the submission of at least two work plans for each Machine Translated by Google period of 12 months. The work plan must meet the requirements in accordance with art. 4.9 1st paragraph Working Conditions Decree and as referred to in Appendix XI of the Working Conditions Regulations. A reasoned request for dispensation for this requirement can be submitted in writing to the CCvD-VD for decision-making. This requirement does not apply to the application for a certificate with a limited scope. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI will inform the certificate holder in writing of its decision as a result of the complaint investigation, stating the reasons. Any additional costs associated with the measure may be charged to the certificate holder by the CKI. The CKI draws up a report of the findings of the supervision. This report is made available to the certificate holder. As a result, they can submit a complaint or request for a review to the CKI. The methods to be followed are described in paragraphs 4.6 and 4.7 of this document. 6.5. Measures (Article 1.5 E Working Conditions Decree) If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards in the professional field-specific certification scheme, this will result in measures by the CKI in the shortest possible time. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. Suspension of the certificate takes place if facts are identified: •. during an inspection or an observation otherwise; •. in response to notifications received from the certificate holder; •. in response to complaints received at the CKI; •. in response to information received about the implementation of criminal offenses committed at work; •. in response to information received about criminal offenses committed that have a relationship with the work or the resources used; •. as a result of actions affecting the safety or health of employees or third parties is endangered; •. that are regarded as shortcomings by the CKI. Examples of shortcomings are non-compliance with the fireworks expert's code of conduct and not (completely and/or timely) keeping a registration, as described in chapter 13 of this document. The certificate will be revoked if no adequate corrective measures have been taken by the certificate holder within the stipulated period of suspension. The certificate will be refused if the applicant does not meet the entry criteria from Chapter 8 of this document for initial certification, or if the applicant does not meet the criteria from Chapter 11 for recertification. scope was withdrawn less than a year ago. Machine Translated by Google The CKI must exchange information with the Inspectorate SZW about identified dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and that could endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties. If the CKI identifies such facts in any way, it will immediately report this by telephone to the Inspectorate SZW. The notification will be confirmed in writing by the CKI to the Inspectorate SZW within 24 hours. If there is a sanction, this will be made known to the certificate holder. Relevant information about the sanction must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. The Inspectorate SZW must also be informed of this. The CKI will inform the SZW Inspectorate of this in writing within 24 hours of the decision to impose the sanction. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the CKI must indicate (and register) the period after which certification is allowed again. Recertification after a withdrawal is only possible after one year from the date of withdrawal. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. Part II: Standards Part II of this WSCS-VD contains the standards that apply to a certificate for professional competence in a field. Described is successively: •. the subject of certification, •. entrance criteria that are set to be admitted to the certification process, •. the attainment targets that apply to the certificate, •. the way in which compliance with the learning outcomes is assessed and reported, •. the assessment that takes place during recertification, •. requirements for the certificate, •. validity conditions. 7. Subject of Certification This WSCS-VD has been drawn up by the CCvD-VD. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of performing work with professional fireworks. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns: •. Large Fireworks (igniting, building up, installing, assembling, assembling and removing after ignition on site, processing in an establishment as referred to in Article 3.2.1 of the Fireworks Decree, abbreviated: GV); Machine Translated by Google •. Pyrotechnic Special Effects (on-site ignition, building up, installing, assembling, assembling and removing pyrotechnic special effects after ignition, processing in an establishment as referred to in Article 3.2.1 of the Fireworks Decree, abbreviated: PSE); •. Processing, packaging and repacking of professional fireworks in an establishment (limited field of application: setting up, building, installing, assembling, assembling, removing and processing after ignition, (pre) assembling and assembling is excluded, abbreviated: BT). 8. Certification Criteria Below is a summary of the requirements for the first issue of the legally required WSCS-VD. Candidate must meet the following entry criteria: •. Have a certificate or certificate relevant to the field of application diploma issued by an examination institution accepted by the CKI as described in chapter 5. The validity of the personal certificate is limited to a maximum of three years after the date on which the certificate/diploma was obtained. •. Demonstrable at least ten times concerning type of work within the scope of application Large Fireworks or Pyrotechnic Special Effects have performed under the supervision of (a) certificate holder(s) in the five years prior to the application. To this end, the CKI requests underlying work plans or information for inspection. The work plan must meet the requirements in accordance with art. 4.9 1st paragraph Working Conditions Decree and as referred to in Appendix XI of the Working Conditions Regulations. This requirement does not apply to the field of application 'The processing, processing, packaging, repacking, pre-assembly, mounting and assembling of professional fireworks in an establishment'. •. Comply with the code of conduct and act accordingly. •. Have a recent (not older than six months) Statement Regarding Behavior in relation to the scope of the certificate. 9. Attainment targets The candidate meets the following attainment targets and is therefore competent. 9.1. General attainment targets for professional fireworks, pyrotechnics, health and safety 1. The expert must have knowledge of the applicable laws and regulations that relate to working with professional fireworks. 2. The expert should have knowledge of the different aspects of the pyrotechnics. 2.1. The skilled person should have knowledge of the history and development of pyrotechnic effects. 2.2. The expert must have knowledge of the properties of pyrotechnic mixtures used in professional fireworks. 2.3. The skilled person should have a thorough knowledge of material properties with regard to sensitivity. 3. The expert must have knowledge of the various aspects of health and safety, preventing inhalation or ingestion when working with professional fireworks. Machine Translated by Google 3.1. The expert must have a thorough knowledge of how to work safely with professional fireworks. 3.2. The expert must have thorough knowledge and skills with regard to how to act in the event of calamities. 3.3. The expert must have insight into situations where burning material can lead to safety problems. He must be able to handle the available fire extinguishers. 3.4. The expert must have a thorough knowledge of the necessary personal protective equipment. 9.2 Goals for large fireworks 4. The expert must have a thorough knowledge of materials that are used when working with large fireworks. 4.1. The expert must have a thorough knowledge of the different types of large fireworks. 4.2. The expert must have knowledge of the tool and the tools used when working with large fireworks. 4.3. Thorough knowledge is required when it comes to tools that are used in the processing of pyrotechnic mixtures and semi-finished and finished products of large fireworks. 4.4. The expert must have thorough knowledge of the necessary materials as well as to be able to carry out the inspection of those materials. 4.5. The expert must have a thorough knowledge of the to the choice of materials for mortars. 4.6. The expert must have a thorough knowledge of the placement of mortar tubes. 4.7. The expert should have a thorough knowledge of how to inspect mortar tubes. 4.8. The expert must have a thorough knowledge of the causes and effects of mortar dysfunction. 4.9. The expert must have a thorough knowledge of the various inflammatory agents. 4.10. The expert must have a thorough knowledge of possible semi-finished products and loose pyrotechnics. 5. The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to the safe ignition of large fireworks. 5.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to drawing up the work plan. The expert must have thorough knowledge and skills with 5.2 regarding how a show should be built. 5.3 The expert must have thorough knowledge and skills with regarding site preparation. 5.4 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to safety aspects in the unloading and storage of fireworks articles. 5.5 The expert should have knowledge and skill in how to pre-prepare parts of the show and pre-assemble scaffolding. Machine Translated by Google 5.6 The skilled person should have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to loose pyrotechnic mixtures. 5.7 The expert must have thorough knowledge and skills with related to setups. 5.8 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to the preparation of the fireworks articles 5.9 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to manually igniting all forms of large fireworks. 5.10 Thorough knowledge and skill is required in connection and safe use of electrical detonators. 5.11 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill relating to the ignition of large fireworks articles. 5.12 The expert must have knowledge and skills with regard to to ignite large fireworks in special situations. 5.13 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to the safe handling of refusers. 5.14 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to the dismantling of shows. 5.15 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill regarding the safe removal and disabling of refusers. 9.3 . Pyrotechnic special effects attainment targets 6. The expert should have a thorough knowledge of materials used when working with pyrotechnic special effects. 6.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge of the different types of fireworks and of the way in which they can be ignited safely. 6.2 The expert should have knowledge of the tools and aids used when working with pyrotechnic special effects. 6.3 Thorough knowledge is required when it comes to tools used in the processing of pyrotechnic mixtures and semi-finished and finished products of pyrotechnic special effects. 6.4 The expert must have thorough knowledge of the required materials as well as be able to carry out the inspection of those materials. 6.5 Thorough knowledge of electrical detonators for fireworks items is required. 6.6 The expert must have a thorough knowledge of loose pyrotechnics. 7. The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill at the regarding the safe ignition of pyrotechnic special effects. 7.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to drawing up the work plan. The expert must have thorough knowledge and skills with 7.2 with regard to how a show should be built. 7.3 The expert must have thorough knowledge and skills with regarding the preparation of the theatre. Machine Translated by Google 7.4 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to safety aspects in the unloading and storage of fireworks articles. 7.5 The expert must have thorough knowledge and skills with related to setups. 7.6 The skilled person should have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to loose pyrotechnic mixtures. 7.7 Thorough knowledge and skill is required regarding the connection and safe use of electrical detonators. 7.8 The expert should have a thorough knowledge and skill in the ignition of pyrotechnic special effects. 7.9 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to the dismantling of shows. 7.10 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill regarding the safe removal and disabling of refusers. 10. Test methodology for Initial certification 10.1. Key terms Each final term is elaborated in test terms. These test criteria are arranged in the diagrams below per final term. The state of the art has been used in the elaboration of the attainment targets. 10.1.1. General criteria for professional fireworks, pyrotechnics, health and safety 1 Legislation The expert must have knowledge of the applicable legislation and regulations relating to working with professional fireworks. This in any case includes regulations in the field of: 1.1 occupational safety (working conditions legislation) external safety of the environment (Fireworks Decree 1.2 1.3 , Law environmental management ) 1.4 Thorough knowledge of transport and packaging of explosives (ADR/VLG); 1.5 legal liability 1.6 local regulations: General local regulation Machine Translated by Google Explanation In a general sense, with a view to health and safety, the Working Conditions Act 1998, the Working Conditions Decree and the Working conditions regulation; for working with professional fireworks in particular these are it Fireworks Decree , Article 4.9 Working Conditions , Decree Articles 4.17a , b , c and d and 9.2 Working Conditions Regulations and the Explosives for Civil Use Act . The Explosives for Civil Use Act does not apply to pyrotechnic articles (Article 2, opening words and under b.). Large fireworks companies supply and use class 1 substances, including black gunpowder. On these fabrics the latter law does apply. Transport and packaging of professional fireworks are dealt with in the Overland Transport of Dangerous Goods Regulations . 2.1 Pyrotechnics, history and development The expert should have knowledge of: the history and effects 2.1.1 development of pyrotechnic Machine Translated by Google 2.1.2 the processes through which, among other things, light, bang and flash effects caused and by which the propulsion and emission of projectiles is effected new developments in the field of pyrotechnics, in particular with regard to 2.1.3 professional fireworks Explanation Pyrotechnics use specific raw materials, namely oxidizers, reducing agents and auxiliary materials. He must have insight in the areas of application and characteristic properties of these raw materials, as well as in the characteristics to which the raw materials can be recognized, such as color, shape, etc. Noting that some commonly used oxidizers are white so that they cannot be distinguished by color to be. 2.2 Pyrotechnic mixtures The expert must have knowledge of: 2.2.1 the properties of pyrotechnic mixtures used in professional fireworks applied the 2.2.2 reasons why certain mixtures Machine Translated by Google are used and in the effects that can be created with those mixtures which mixtures 2.2.3 can be used for smoke, sound (pop and whistle), light, delay effects and for the emission or propulsion of projectiles. In particular, knowledge about the application of black gunpowder (mass explosive) is important here, as is experience with black gunpowder. In particular, attention should be paid to the composition of black gunpowder, the possible variations in composition, the applications of the various compositions of black gunpowder and their properties. 2.3 Material properties with regard to sensitivity The expert should have a thorough knowledge of: 2.3.1 concepts such as hitting, punching and friction sensitivity, moisture sensitivity, ignition temperature and sensitivity to static electricity, and what influence these sensitivities 2.3.2 have on the way in which professional fireworks should be worked in order to guarantee integral (work and external) safety. Machine Translated by Google guarantee 3.1 Working safely The expert must have thorough knowledge of: 3.1.1 the required materials that have hazard aspects for health and safety a good preparation (procedures) a 3.1.2 calm way of working the right work clothing and 3.1.3 personal protective equipment tools control of 3.1.4 the explosion-proof electrical equipment used 3.1.5 3.1.6 (NPR 7910-2) 3.1.7 the use and handling of (small) fire extinguishers 3.1.8 clear agreements on division of work and responsibilities. the 3.1.9 expert must be able to work on the basis of procedures and checklists and must also be able to draw up these. Explanation Working with procedures and checklists that have been drawn up on the basis of experience can ensure that previously encountered problems do not recur. 3.2 Calamities 3.2.1 The expert must have thorough knowledge and skills with regard to the way in which to act Machine Translated by Google be in case of disasters. Explanation Although public services such as the ambulance service, fire brigade and police will take responsibility for a certain part in the event of calamities, the ultimate responsibility for the fireworks lies with the expert. 3.3 Fire safety 3.3.1 The expert should understand situations where burning material can lead to safety problems. 3.3.2 The expert to be able to handle the available fire extinguishers. 3.4 Protective equipment 3.4.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge of the necessary personal protective equipment, such as a safety helmet, hearing protection, fire-resistant gloves (setting off professional fireworks with a torch), overalls, safety shoes, face mask, respiratory protection (both in connection with toxic raw materials and with combustion products released not only as gas but also in smoke particles as Machine Translated by Google barium, strontium, etc.). 3.4.2 The expert must know in which circumstances the relevant protective equipment must be used. 10.1.2. Key terms big fireworks 4.1 Types of large fireworks The expert must have a thorough knowledge of the different types of large fireworks, such as: 4.1.1 ground, low and high fireworks 4.1.2 water fireworks 4.1.3 fountains 4.1.4 Roman candles 4.1.5 flowerbeds rockets 4.1.6 mortar bombs and 4.1.7 how to work with 4.1.8 them safely Explanation Only by being aware of the wide variety of articles and constructions used and the variety in structure, and above all by having experience with the effects that this can be reached, he is able to organize a performance or event as well and as safely as possible feed. 4.2 Tools and aids The expert must have knowledge of the tools and aids that are used when working with large fireworks. Machine Translated by Google 4.2.1 Knowledge is needed of tools and materials that can be used to build racks on which to mount fireworks, build scaffolding, mortar racks, holders for fountains, Roman candles, etc. Explanation Not only mounting the pyrotechnic articles, but also the strength of scaffolding is important. 4.3 Material 4.3.1 Thorough knowledge is required when it comes to tools that are used in the processing of pyrotechnic mixtures and semi-finished and finished products of large fireworks. Explanation Because the risk of ignition by sparks is high, especially when working with mixtures and semi-finished products, special spark- free tools are used. In this phase of working with large fireworks, extra attention must be paid to the way of working. Which use tools with/for which material. 4.4 Inspection of materials Machine Translated by Google 4.4.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge of the required materials as well as be able to inspect those materials to carry out. 4.4.2 He should have knowledge of many common deficiencies and how they can be identified. This concerns checking fireworks items on cracks, leakage of gunpowder, broken fuses, torn casings, the effect of moisture, broken fire arrow sticks, etc. Explanation Thoroughly inspecting the items to be used prevents unnecessarily dangerous situations to arise. 4.5 Mortars – choice of materials 4.5.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge of making a safe choice of materials from the point of view of safety mortars, tube length and mortar bomb type to make. Explanation Salute shots are allowed for example, better not fired from steel mortars, while multi-shot bombs should not be fired from cardboard mortars can fade Machine Translated by Google become. When using steel mortars, they must be seamless have been carried out, having regard to fragmentation during deflagration of a mortar bomb in the mortar. The length of the mortars is from importance for the height that the projectile must achieve. 4.6 Mortars – placement The expert must have a thorough knowledge of: 4.6.1 the use of mortar tubes securing and burying of tubes 4.6.2 4.6.3 mutual distances between mortar tubes 4.6.4 the use of mortars in so-called 4.6.5 mortar racks, whether or not of the same diameter. Explanation If the field permits, mortars can be buried directly in the ground. However, it is also possible to put the mortars in so-called oil drums, after which the drums can be filled with sand. Another possibility is to use well-anchored wooden mortar racks. 4.7 Mortars – Inspection 4.7.1 The expert should have a thorough knowledge of how to inspect mortar tubes. Machine Translated by Google 4.7.2 Critical points of a pipe, such as deformation, cracks, corrosion, etc., must be known. Explanation Very high, short-term pressures arise in mortar tubes due to strong explosions. It is therefore of great importance that they always be thoroughly inspected for irregularities. 4.8 Mortars – dysfunction The expert must have a thorough knowledge of: 4.8.1 the causes and effects of malfunctioning of individual mortars and of mortars set up in groups (dysfunctioning is understood to mean malfunctioning, whereby there is a risk to health and safety) 4.8.2 the measures that must be taken to prevent malfunctions 4.9 Ignition means The expert must: have a various means ofthorough ignition 4.9.1 knowledge have aofthorough the knowledge of manually igniting fireworks by means of fuses 4.9.2 4.9.3 to have knowledge of the variety of fuse types, the applications for the Machine Translated by Google different slow and or fast fuse types and the application method 4.9.5 to have knowledge of the construction and operation of electrical detonators 4.9.5 to have knowledge of the application of the peripheral equipment with which detonators can be controlled. This can vary from simple shooting boxes to radiographic or computer- controlled firing installations. This also means that the expert is not only aware of the developments in the field of pyrotechnics but also of advanced firing installations. Explanation Computer-controlled fireworks mainly occur in pyrotechnic special effects; knowledge about the application of this equipment is necessary. 4.10 Semi-finished products and loose pyrotechnics 4.10.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge of possible semi-finished products and loose products pyrotechnics, e.g. black gunpowder and loose stars. 5.1 Work plan The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to: until: Machine Translated by Google 5.1.1 drafting the work plan, as referred to in Article 4.9, first paragraph, of the Working Conditions 5.1.2 Decree submitting the work plan with the application for permission from the Provincial Executive, as referred to in Article 3.3.4, first paragraph, of the Fireworks Decree. Explanation Drawing up a work plan forces the expert to prepare thoroughly, which also gives the opportunity to consult (in advance) about the show, either with colleagues or with the Provincial Executive who must give permission, or with other parties. authorities concerned, as referred to in Article 3.3.4, paragraphs 4 and 5, of the Fireworks Decree (provincial authorities that have granted the application licence; the aviation service concerned, the commander of the regional fire brigade and the mayor of the municipality where the fireworks are ignited is brought), or, at the location of ignition, with the Inspectorate SZW. Machine Translated by Google 5.2 Show building The 5.2.1 thorough knowledge expert must and have skills in how to build a show. This includes all aspects related to the preparation, execution and dismantling of the show. 5.3 Set-up of shows – preparing the grounds The knowledge and skills expert with must regard haveto5.3.1 preparing thorough the grounds. Explanation Unnecessary obstacles should be be removed and the site must be dropped off to safely set up the show. During ignition it is possible that burning material ends up on the ground. That is why combustible material must be as much may be removed. Also obstacles that obstruct walking around during ignition should be removed as much as possible. 5.4 Setting up shows – storage and loading of fireworks items 5.4.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to safety aspects in Machine Translated by Google unloading and storage of fireworks. Explanation He should always take into account the possibility that items will be damaged during transport, which could result in the release of gunpowder. Powder on the loading floor can contain up to inflammation come when heavy boxes be moved over. Since large amounts of explosive material are gathered together during loading, this is particularly dangerous. In this context, large quantities should be understood to mean such a quantity that inflammation can lead to a serious calamity. it to igniting flowerbeds that have been transported upside down can lead to accidents. Furthermore, a safe place has been created in which the pyrotechnic articles can be safely stored before or during the fireworks show. 5.5 Building shows – parts of shows and scaffolding The expert should have knowledge and skills with regard to: the way in which parts 5.5.1 of the show beforehand could be Machine Translated by Google prepared 5.5.2 the pre-construction of scaffolding Explanation In particular racks on which images have been applied that consist of interconnected with quick fuse fountains are pre-assembled. 5.6 Setting up shows – loose mixtures, etc. The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to: 5.6.1 the hazard aspects for the environment and health the safe handling of loose pyrotechnic and semi-manufactured mixtures, stars, finished products Explanation Especially working 5.6.2 with loose pyrotechnic agents in combination with semi- and finished products can create a dangerous situation. That is why it is necessary to work according to work procedures. 5.7 Setting up shows – setting up lineups 5.7.1 The expert must have thorough knowledge and skill in setting up the positions so that they remain good and safe during firing stand. Explanation Mortars, for example, should be Machine Translated by Google are buried in the ground or in large sandboxes. Mortar racks and racks for Roman candles should be properly secured. Large, high installations, for example, should be secured with steel cables in such a way that strong winds cannot cause any danger. 5.8 Setting up shows – setting up fireworks items 5.8.1 preparing the fireworks items 5.8.2 setting up scaffolding loading mortars preparing 5.8.3 5.8.4 flares 5.8.5 Roman candles 5.8.6 connecting fuses etc. Explanation Account must be taken of, for example, the possibility that articles may ignite prematurely. 5.9 Setting up shows – manually igniting 5.9.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to manually igniting all forms of large fireworks. Explanation The fact that, when manually ignited, the detonator is very close to the Machine Translated by Google functioning fireworks item, entails an extra risk compared to not setting off by hand. the torch or torch must be wind and rain resistant and not have too large a flame. 5.10 Set-up of shows – electric detonators 5.10.1 Thorough knowledge and skill isand to connecting required with regard safe use of electric detonators. Explanation For electrical checks and measurements it is necessary that the circuits of series and parallel circuits can be calculated in order to determine whether the circuit has the correct resistance. Prevention should be that falling pipes can be damaged. 5.11 Ignition of fireworks articles – general The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to the ignition of large fireworks articles. This includes: manual and 5.11.1 electrical up to ignition bring about 5.11.2 the division of labor between the different experts among themselves and between the expert and the persons under Machine Translated by Google continuous supervision 5.12 Igniting fireworks – special situations 5.12.1 The expert should possess knowledge and skills with regard to the ignition of large fireworks in special situations. Explanation Fireworks shows can be set up on, for example, pontoons, bridges or buildings, where each situation has special safety aspects. 5.13 Ignition of fireworks articles – refusers The expert must have knowledge and skill a thorough with regard 5.13.1 to the safe handling of refusers. Explanation Refusers should be marked in the first place and should never be re- ignited. Depending on the legal regulations associated with the transport of large fireworks that have not exploded, it must be determined how the refusers will be removed. 5.14 Dismantling shows – general The thorough 5.14.1 knowledge expert mustand have skilla Machine Translated by Google regarding the dismantling of shows including cleaning up and possibly destroying parts. below In this context, destruction should be understood to mean treating in such a way that reuse is impossible for unauthorized persons. 5.15 Dismantling shows – refusers 5.15.1 The expertknowledge must haveand a thorough skill with regard to the safe removal and rendering harmless of refusers. Explanation It must be determined where have been refusers. After the occurrence of a refusal, a waiting period must be observed, after which it is decided how the article must be rendered harmless. The clearing of refusers, which is a very dangerous activity, because it is not known why the fireworks article did not go off, must be done with special care. 10.1.3. Pyrotechnic special effects key terms Machine Translated by Google 6.1 Types of pyrotechnic special effects The expert knowledge of the different shouldtypes haveof a fireworks thorough 6.1.1 and of the way in which they can be ignited safely. 6.1.2 The basic principle is that only articles and so- called two-component mixtures such as these are used supplied by indoor manufacturers. Explanation The application of pyrotechnics in theaters entails many limitations because of the danger to people and the environment. For this reason, only special articles developed as 'indoor pyrotechnics' are used. 6.2 Tools and aids The expert must 6.2.1 to have knowledge of the tools and aids used when working with pyrotechnic special effects. Explanation In general, use should be made as much as possible of commercial available installations that have been developed for the work safely as possible Machine Translated by Google with pyrotechnic special effects. Setups manufactured in-house require extra attention for safety. 6.3 Material 6.3.1 Thorough knowledge is required when it comes to tools used in the processing of pyrotechnic mixtures and semi- and semi-finished products finished products of pyrotechnic special effects. Explanation Because the risk of ignition by sparks is high, especially when working with mixtures and semi- finished products, special spark-free tools are used. In this phase of working with pyrotechnic special effects, extra attention must be paid to the way of to work. Which tools to use with/for which material. 6.4 Inspection of materials 6.4.1 The expert must haveknowledge thorough a of the required materials as well as be able to inspect those materials. to carry out. 6.4.2 He should have knowledge of many common defects and Machine Translated by Google how they can be identified. This concerns checking of firecrackers on cracks, leakage of gunpowder, broken fuses, torn open casings, the effect of moisture, broken flares, etc. Explanation By thoroughly inspecting the articles to be used, prevent unnecessarily dangerous situations from arising. 6.5 Electric igniters 6.5.1 Thorough knowledge is required of electrical detonators for fireworks items. This concerns aspects such as the construction of detonators and peripheral equipment with which they are controlled. Explanation The various peripheral equipment can vary from simple shooting boxes to remote-controlled and computer-controlled control systems. The use of electric detonators entails additional product knowledge, but is unavoidable and necessary for 'indoor' applications and therefore requires a thorough knowledge. The expert must also be aware of advanced Machine Translated by Google firing installations. 6.6 Loose pyrotechnics The expert 6.6.1 must have a thorough knowledge of loose pyrotechnics such as the so-called two-component systems and the effects that can be created with it. Explanation For safety reasons, pyrotechnic agents are used as much may be supplied ready- made in the form of so- called two-component systems of which the two , components individually are much less dangerous and can only be used as a pyrotechnic agent in a mixed state. 7.1 Work plan The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to: 7.1.1 drafting the work plan, as referred to in Article 4.9, first paragraph, of the Working Conditions 7.1.2 Decree submitting the work plan with the application for permission from the Provincial Executive, as referred to in Article 3.3.4, first paragraph, of the Fireworks Decree. Explanation Drawing up a work plan forces the Machine Translated by Google expert to a thorough preparation, which also provides the opportunity to consult (in advance) about the show, either with colleagues or with the provincial executive who must give permission, or with the other involved parties authorities, as referred to in Article 3.3.4, fourth and fifth paragraph, of the Fireworks Decree (provincial authorities that have granted an application permit; the involved aviation service, the commander of the regional fire brigade and the mayor of the municipality where the fireworks are ignited), or, at the location of ignition, with the Inspectorate SZW. 7.2 Building up shows The thorough knowledgeexpert andmust skill have in 7.2.1 a in how to build a show. This includes all aspects related to the preparation, execution and dismantling of the show. 7.3 Setting up shows – preparing theater The expert 7.3.1 must have thorough knowledge and Machine Translated by Google have skills in preparing the theater. Explanation Unnecessary obstacles should be be removed and the work area cordoned off for the show to be set up safely. During ignition it is possible that burning material ends up on the ground. Therefore, combustible material should be removed as much as possible. Obstacles that hinder walking around during ignition also serve be removed as much as possible. 7.4 Setting up shows – storage and loading of fireworks items 7.4.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to safety aspects in the unloading and storage of fireworks articles. Explanation He should always take into account the possibility that items will be damaged during transport, which could result in the release of gunpowder. Gunpowder on the loading floor can ignite when heavy boxes pushed over it Machine Translated by Google become. Since large amounts of explosive material are gathered together during loading, this is particularly dangerous. In this regard, large quantities should be means such an amount that inflammation can result in a serious calamity. it to igniting flowerbeds that have been transported upside down can lead to accidents. Furthermore, a safe place must be created in which the pyrotechnic articles for or can be safely stored during the fireworks show. 7.5 Setting up theater shows – set-up The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to: 7.5.1 preparing the fireworks articles 7.5.2 setting up scaffolding loading 7.5.3 control devices 7.5.4 preparing articles , etc. Explanation During the set-up, unauthorized persons must be kept out in order to be able to set up the show safely. Unauthorized persons are those who are not in possession and/or not under constant supervision Machine Translated by Google of a person who is in possession of a certificate of professional competence for professional fireworks issued by Our Minister or a certifying institution. They are kept out by a barrier (ribbon) and warning signs with the inscription explosive substances. Account must be taken of the possibility that an article may ignite prematurely. 7.6 Setting up shows – loose mixtures, etc. The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to: the hazard aspects for the environment and health pyrotechnic mixtures, 7.6.1 stars, beingsemi-finished able to safely products handle and loose 7.6.2 finished products Explanation Especially working with loose pyrotechnic agents in combination with semi- and finished products can create a dangerous situation. That is why it is necessary to work according to work procedures. 7.7 Building theater shows – electric detonators 7.7.1 Thorough knowledge and skill is required with regard to the Machine Translated by Google connection and the safe use of electric detonators. Explanation For electrical checks and measurements, it is necessary that the circuits of series and parallel circuits can be calculated in order to determine whether the circuit has the correct resistance. Prevention should be that can be damaged by falling pieces of pipes. 7.8 Ignition of pyrotechnic special effects 7.8.1 The expert must have a thorough knowledge and skill with regard to the ignition of fireworks articles. 7.8.2 This also includes the division of tasks between the various experts and the other subordinates continuous supervision of the skilled workers. Explanation With regard to the division of tasks, one can think of setting functions as controllers, observers and assistants to a to guarantee optimal safety of a show. 7.9 Reducing shows – general 7.9.1 The expert must Machine Translated by Google have thorough knowledge and skills with regard to the dismantling of shows including cleaning up and possibly destroying parts. In this context, destruction should be understood to mean treating in such a way that reuse is impossible for unauthorized persons. 7.10 Dismantling of shows – refusers 7.10.1 thorough knowledge The expertand mustskill havewitha regard to the safe removal and rendering harmless of refusers. Explanation It must be established where the refusers have been. After the occurrence of a refusal, a waiting period must be observed, after which a decision is made how the article must be rendered harmless. Clearing refusers, which is a very dangerous activity, because it is not known why the fireworks item has not gone off, special care must be taken. Machine Translated by Google 10.2. Assessment method Compliance with the test criteria is assessed as follows: 10.2.1. Areas of application The final and test objectives are divided into three categories: a) General (professional fireworks, pyrotechnics, health and safety) b) Big Fireworks c) Pyrotechnic Special Effects. Candidates who want to qualify for WSCS-VD with the field of application Large Fireworks are examined on the basis of the test criteria in categories a and b. The exam consists of multiple choice questions, open questions and cases and lasts a total of three hour. Candidates who want to qualify for the WSCS-VD with the application area Pyrotechnic Special Effects, are examined on the basis of the test criteria in categories a and c. The exam consists of multiple choice questions, open questions and cases and takes a total of three hours. Candidates who want to be considered for the WSCS-VD with both application areas are examined on the basis of the test criteria in categories a, b and c. The exam consists of multiple choice questions, open questions and cases and lasts 4.5 hours in total. Candidates who want to be considered for a personal certificate Fireworks expert with a limited field of application are examined on the basis of the test criteria in category a. (General). The exam consists of multiple choice questions, open questions and a case study and lasts 1.5 hours in total. The scope is shown on the certificate. Someone who has the Large Fireworks or Pyrotechnic Special Effects certificate is deemed to meet the requirements for the limited field of application 'processing, packaging and repacking of professional fireworks in an establishment'. 10.2.2. test dies The test terms in each of the above categories are examined on the basis of: •. multiple choice questions (part A); •. open questions (part B); •. cases (part C). The distribution of questions and assignments is shown per category of test period in the following test matrices. Machine Translated by Google Test matrix 1: General topics (professional fireworks, pyrotechnics, health and safety) Key terms Part A Part B Part C Comments Number of multiple choice Number of open questions Number of cases questions 1 Legislation 1.1 Part A resp. B: From the test terms per exam 9 resp. Select 3 questions (total 12 questions). Per test term, a minimum of 1 and a maximum of 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6 9 3 0 3 questions are asked in total and maximum 1 open question per test term. 2 Pyrotechnics 2.1.1 1 1 0 2.1.2 1 2.1.3 1 2.2.1 1 1 1 2.2.2 1 2.2.3 1 2.3.1 3 1 1 Part A: Maximum 2 questions per test term. 2.3.2 3.1 Working safely 3.1.1 6 1 0 Part A: Maximum 1 question per test term. Part C: Always assess 2 test criteria together in one case. 3.1.2 0 3.1.3 1 3.1.4 3.1.5 1 3.1.6 3.1.7 1 3.1.8 3.1.9 0 Machine Translated by Google 3.2 Calamities 3.2.1 1 0 0 3.3 Fire safety 3.3.1 1 1 1 1 test term is always treated per question or assignment. 3.3.2 3.4 Protective equipment 3.4.1 1 1 1 1 test term is always treated per question or assignment. 3.4.2 Totals general part 27 9 1 Out of the 7 options exam indicated, 1 case must be chosen per exam. den selected. Key Matrix 2: Big Fireworks Attainment targets Part A Part B Part C Comments Number of multiple choice questions Number of open questions Number of cases 4 Material knowledge Select 5 questions from 2 questions Select 2 cases from ticked final objectives from ticked ticked final objectives (10). Valuation per final objectives 1.0 Rating 10). (3 per combinations) question is question is 1.0 4.1 Types of large X fireworks X X 4.2 Tools and X aids 4.3 Material X X X X 4.4 Inspection of X X materials 4.5 Mortars – X X X choice of materials 4.6 Mortars - X X placement 4.7 Mortars – X X inspection 4.8 Mortars – X X malfunctioning 4.9 Ignition agents X 4.10 Semi- X finished products and X loose X pyrotechnic agents Machine Translated by Google 5 Working with large 7 select questions from 2 select questions from 2 select cases from The open questions serve as fireworks ticked final objectives ticked final objectives ticked final objectives each a different final objective (15). Rating per (15). Rating per (6 combinations) at to deal with. question is 1.0 question is 1.0 Tested attainment targets A and B must not be identical. 5.1 Work plan X 5.2 Set-up X X KO question of shows X 5.3 Set-up of shows X – X X site preparation 5.4 Set-up of shows X X – storage and loading of fireworks items 5.5 Set-up of shows X – parts X of shows and scaffolding 5.6 Set-up of shows X – loose mixing sel etc. X X 5.7 Set up shows X – set up setups X X 5.8 Set up shows X – set up fireworks items 5.9 Set up shows X – manually ignite 5.10 Set up shows X – electrical X X X X detonators 5.11 Ignition X of fireworks X X KO question articles – general 5.12 Ignition X fireworks articles – X KO question special situations 5.13 Ignition X fireworks articles – X KO question refusers 5.14 Reducing shows X – general X X Machine Translated by Google 5.15 Winding down shows X X – refusers Total Specific Part 12 Exam 4 4 cases (Application Big Fireworks) Test Matrix 3: Pyrotechnic Special Effects Attainment targets Part A Part B Part C Comments Number of multiple choice questions Number of open questions Number of cases 6 Material knowledge select 5 questions from 2 select questions from 2 cases select from The open questions serve ticked final objectives ticked final objectives ticked final objectives each a different final term (6). Appreciation per (6). Rating per (3 combinations) at to deal with. question is 1.0 question is 1.0 Tested attainment targets A and B must not be identical. 6.1 Types of X X X Pyrotechnic Special Effects 6.2 Tools and X Tools 6.3 Material X X X X 6.4 Inspection of X X materials 6.5 Electric X X X igniters 6.6 Loose X X pyrotechnics 7 Ignition of attainment select 7 questions from 2 select questions from 2 cases select from targets ticked attainment targets ticked over attainment targets Pyrotechnic Special (10). Rating per (10). Rating per (5 combinations) Effects demand is 1.0 demand is 1.0 7.1 Work plan XX 7.2 Building theater shows 7.3preparing Building theater shows – X KO question X X X X X 7.4 Building theater X X shows – storage Machine Translated by Google and loading fireworks 7.5 Building theater shows – set-up 7.6 Building theater X X X shows – loose mixtures, etc. X X 7.7 Building Theater X X Shows – Electric Detonators 7.8 Ignition X Pyro Technical Special Effects X X KO question 7.9 Reducing Shows X X X – general 7.10 Reducing shows X X – refusers Total Specific Part 12 Exam 4 4 cases (Application 'Indoor fireworks') 10.3. Pass exam 10.3.1. General test terms (1.1 to 3.4.2) The grade for parts A and B of the exam is 1 point per question. In total, 36 points can be earned with these parts, 27 points for part A and 9 points for part B. The cut-off point is as follows: you have passed the general part if you have answered 70% of the 36 questions correctly. This means a score of 25 correct answers. Part A of the exam consists of multiple choice questions with four answer alternatives, one of which is always the best choice. This applies to the general part of the theory exam as well as to both applications (Large Fireworks and Pyrotechnic Special Effects). Part C of the exam consists of five cases, one of which is from the general part of the test terms. The other four cases are based on the assessment criteria of the individual applications (Pyrotechnic Special Effects or Large Fireworks). 10.3.2. Great Fireworks (test terms 4.1.1 to 5.15.1) The grade for part A and B of the theory exam is 1 point per question. The 16 questions from this specific test matrix are additional to the 36 questions from the general part of the theory exam. In total there are 16 points to be earned with the specific part. The caesura is Machine Translated by Google as follows: one has passed the application part Great Fireworks if one has answered 70% of the 16 questions correctly. This means a score of 11 (rounded) correct answers. The examination candidate has passed parts A and B of the exam (general part plus application Groot Vuurwerk) if he has answered at least 36 questions (70%) of the total of 52 questions correctly and a pass result for each of the separate parts ( 70% good) has achieved. Part C of the exam consists of 5 cases, of which 1 is based on a test term from the general part and four on test terms from the specific part (Great Fireworks application). Part C of the exam may contain one or more so-called knockout parts (KO). If the examination candidate makes a predefined error on a KO part, the examiner will award a knockout (KO) and the candidate will fail part C. A fatal error is an act that can create an unacceptable risk for the employee (candidates) or his environment. The exam candidate has passed the total part C of the exam (general part plus application Groot Vuurwerk) if he has answered at least 3 cases (60%) of the total of 5 cases correctly and has also not made a fatal error on a KO part. . A candidate has passed the entire Great Fireworks exam if he has each scored a pass for part A and B of the exam on the one hand, and for part C on the other hand. When determining the total result of an examination candidate, the following distribution is used: part A and B jointly count for 40% of the final score and part C of the exam counts for 60%. 10.3.3. Pyrotechnic Special Effects (test terms 6.1.1 to 7.10.1) The grade for parts A and B of the exam is one point per question. The 16 questions from this specific test matrix are additional to the 36 questions from the general part of the theoretical exam. In total, 16 points can be earned with the specific part. The cut-off point is as follows: one has passed the application Pyrotechnic Special Effects part if one has answered 70% of the 16 questions correctly. This means a score of 11 (rounded) correct answers. The examination candidate has passed parts A and B of the exam (general part plus application Pyrotechnic Special Effects) if at least 36 questions (70%) of the total of 52 questions have been answered correctly and a pass has been obtained for each of the separate parts. result (70% correct). Part C of the exam consists of five cases, one of which is based on a test term from the general part and four on test terms from the specific part (Pyrotechnic Special Effects application). Machine Translated by Google Part C of the exam may contain one or more so-called knockout parts (KO). If the exam candidate makes a predefined fatal mistake on a KO part, the examiner will award a knockout (KO) and the candidate will have failed part C of the exam. A fatal error is an act that can create an unacceptable risk for the employee (candidates) or his environment. The exam candidate has passed the total part C of the exam (general part plus application Groot Vuurwerk) if he has answered at least 3 cases (60%) of the total of 5 cases correctly and has also not made a fatal error on a KO part. . A candidate has passed the entire Great Fireworks exam if he has scored a satisfactory result for parts A and B of the exam on the one hand, and for part C of the exam on the other hand. When determining the total result of an examination candidate, the following distribution is used: part A and B together count for 40% of the final score and part C of the exam counts for 60%. 10.3.4. Both application areas If an examination candidate wants to obtain a personal certificate for both specific skills, Large Fireworks and Pyrotechnic Special Effects, he must have obtained a pass for both specific exam variants (applications Large Fireworks and Pyrotechnic Special Effects). This means that on both variants (GV and PSE) of parts A and B of the exam, at least 11 of the 16 questions have been answered correctly and on the general part of parts A and B of the exam, at least 25 of the 36 questions have been answered correctly. In this case, the general part only needs to be taken once. In this case, a pass must also be obtained for both variants of part C of the exam. The result of the general part of the exam remains valid for the entire certification period. The exam candidate can therefore take an exam or re-examination for an additional application at a later time, if desired. 10.3.5. Limited scope (test terms 1.1 to 3.4.2) The grade for parts A and B of the exam is 1 point per question. In total, 36 points can be earned with these parts, 27 points for part A and 9 points for part B. The cut-off point is as follows: you have passed the general part if you have answered 70% of the 36 questions correctly. This means a score of 25 correct answers. Part A of the exam consists of multiple choice questions with four answer alternatives, one of which is always the best choice. Part C of the exam consists of a case from the general part of the test terms. The examination candidate has passed part C of the exam if he has scored at least 60% of the total number of points to be obtained for the cases and has also not made a fatal error on a KO part. Machine Translated by Google The result of the exam in the limited scope remains valid for the entire certification period. If desired, the exam candidate can therefore take an exam for (an) additional application(s), i.e. GV and/or PSE at a later time. 10.3.6. Re-exam If a candidate fails a partial exam (part A and B jointly, or part C), the pass result remains valid for six months after the date of administration. After this date, the validity of this partial exam will expire and the applicant must go through the certification procedure in advance. Partial exams may be resit once. Failing a partial exam twice in succession will lead to a negative certification decision by De CKI. This means that the applicant must go through the procedure from the beginning. 11. Recertification The personal certificate has a maximum validity of three years. If a certificate holder wishes to be re- certified, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. A summary of the requirements for re-issuing the legally required WSCS-VD follows. For recertification, the candidate must meet the following criteria: •. Have a certificate or certificate relevant to the field of application diploma issued by an examination institution accepted by the CKI as described in chapter 5. The validity of the personal certificate is limited to a maximum of three years after the date on which the certificate/diploma was obtained. •. Demonstrable at least six times concerning type of work within the area of application Large Fireworks or Pyrotechnic Special Effects in the three years prior to the application. This must be apparent from the submission of at least two work plans for each of these three years. The work plan must meet the requirements in accordance with art. 4.9 1st paragraph Working Conditions Decree and as referred to in Appendix XI of the Working Conditions Regulations. A reasoned request for dispensation for this requirement can be submitted in writing to the CCvD-VD for decision-making. This requirement does not apply to the field of application 'The processing, processing, packaging, repacking, pre-assembly, mounting and assembling of professional fireworks in an establishment'. •. Comply with the code of conduct and act accordingly. •. Have a recent (not older than six months) Statement Regarding Behavior in relation to the scope of the certificate. •. Production of the information prescribed in chapter 13 of this document registration over the period since the issue of the previous personal certificate. The CCvD-VD will assess the final and test objectives at least annually for topicality and adjust them if necessary. 12. The certificate Machine Translated by Google The certificate must state that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements of the field-specific certification scheme with regard to the relevant field(s) of application. At least the following information must be stated on the certificate: •. Surname and initials of the certified person; •. Place and date of birth of the certified person; •. Unambiguous certificate number; •. Name, contact details and Chamber of Commerce number of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standard that has been tested (SCVE-VD); •. Scope of the certificate (GV and/or PSE, or limited scope), including the validity conditions (see chapter 13); •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid; •. Logo Management Foundation SCVE; •. Feature designation decision SZW; •. Regulations of the CKI applicable to the certificate; •. Instructions for the user: . This WSCS-VD is only valid if the certificate holder is listed in the register of fireworks experts that can be accessed via the SCVE internet site. . Questions about the validity of this personal certificate can be addressed to the CKI. At Big Fireworks: •. Suitable for professional fireworks intended for outdoor use •. (open air) during an event or performance. •. Professional work with consumer fireworks is allowed. •. Work in accordance with work plan on location. For Pyrotechnic Special Effects: •. Suitable for work at close public distances. •. Professional work with consumer fireworks is excluded. •. Work in accordance with work plan on location. With limited area of application: •. only suitable for processing (internal transport, storage), packaging and repacking of professional fireworks in an establishment. •. to ignite, build up, install, assemble, assembly, removal and processing after ignition, (pre-) assembling and assembling of professional fireworks is excluded. 13. Validity Conditions Machine Translated by Google During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. •. The certificate holder must conform to the code of conduct and act accordingly. The code of conduct is included in Appendix A of SCVE-VD. •. The certificate holder must keep records including: . complaints register; . visits by the Inspectorate SZW; . visits by an official of the competent authority; . work experience (by area of application); . registration of accidents and/or damage. Appendix A. fireworks expert code of conduct 1. General 1.1. The fireworks expert observes due care in his/her work and behaves in such a way that confidence in his/her profession is not harmed. 1.2. The fireworks expert sticks to his / her professional practice to the legal provisions, regulations and permits and to this code of conduct. He/she also informs himself/herself of this. 1.3. The fireworks expert informs his employer and any client of this code of conduct and makes agreements about its implementation in practice. 1.4. The fireworks expert is loyal to his/her employer and any client. He/she makes the best possible use of his/her professional knowledge and skills when working with fireworks and pyrotechnics. 1.5. The fireworks expert maintains his/her professional knowledge and skills. 1.6. The fireworks expert will inform, if requested, the licensing authority or law enforcement officer about his/her activities relating to the ignition/use of fireworks. 1.7. The fireworks expert puts safety during the work above the economic aspects of the work. 1.8. The fireworks expert retains his/her own professional judgment with regard to working with fireworks / using fireworks. 2. Execution of work 2.1. When preparing his/her work, the fireworks expert assesses the dangers and risks of working with fireworks and pyrotechnic objects and substances. 2.2. No uncontrolled risks are taken when performing the work. If work has to be carried out as a result of which the risks can no longer be controlled or if insufficient control measures can be taken, the work will be discontinued or not started. 2.3. If the circumstances change during the execution of the work, resulting in new (unforeseen) risks, the work will be interrupted. Work will only be resumed once the risks can be controlled again. Machine Translated by Google 2.4. If the work is interrupted or discontinued, the client and the employer will be informed of the reasons. 2.5. Before working and/or assisting in setting firecrackers to ignite, non-expert employees are informed about the dangers and risks and are instructed about the control measures. The fireworks expert supervises the implementation of this. If someone does not comply with his/her instructions or agreed control measures, the fireworks expert will intervene and shield the danger. 2.6. The fireworks expert will, on the basis of the recognized state of the art, do everything to prevent dangers, accidents and damage to employees, instructed third parties, bystanders, himself, the environment and goods. 2.7. If an accident still occurs, the fireworks expert will immediately secure the working environment and the fireworks and pyrotechnic material. He/she will also inform the employer, client and the competent authority. 2.8. The fireworks expert cooperates fully in the investigation into the causes of any accident or incident. 3. Complaints 3.1. The fireworks expert gives the client the opportunity to submitting any complaints. Upon receipt of a possible complaint, the fireworks expert, together with his/her employer, will assess the complaint and handle it in an adequate manner towards the client. 3.2. The fireworks expert keeps a record of the received complaints, special occurrences, incidents and accidents. The fireworks expert also registers any instructions from law enforcement officers. 3.3. Complaints can be submitted to both his/her employer and the CKI submitted. 3.4. The fireworks expert provides insight into his/her complaints register if requested to do so. 4. Consequences of non-compliance with the code of conduct 4.1. Failure to comply with the code of conduct may lead to a (written) warning, suspension or revocation of the certificate and removal from the certification register. Appendix b: transitional arrangement Personal Certificates issued prior to the date of entry into force of this WSCS VD will retain their five-year validity provided that the interim review by the CKI described below is successfully completed. Three years after the issue of a five-year personal certificate, the CKI assesses the continuing professional competence of the certificate holder. The following criteria apply for this interim assessment of five-year personal certificates: •. Demonstrable at least six times concerning type of work within the area of application Large Fireworks or Pyrotechnic Special Effects in the three years prior to the interim assessment. This must be apparent from the submission of at least two work plans for each of these three years. The work plan must meet the requirements in accordance with art. 4.9 1st paragraph Working Conditions Decree and as referred to in Annex Machine Translated by Google XI of the Working Conditions Regulation. A reasoned request for dispensation for this requirement can be submitted in writing to the CCvD-VD for decision-making. This requirement does not apply to the application for a certificate with a limited scope. •. Comply with the code of conduct and act accordingly. •. Have a recent (not older than six months) Statement Regarding Behavior in relation to the scope of the certificate. •. Production of the information prescribed in chapter 13 of this document registration over the period since the issue of the previous personal certificate. •. For the holders of a five-year certificate of person issued on the date of the entry into force of the present certification scheme has been valid for longer than three years, the following adjustment applies to the first criterion described above: •. Demonstrable to have performed at least twice a year concerning type of work within the field of application Large Fireworks or Pyrotechnic Special Effects in each year prior to the interim assessment. This must be evidenced by the submission of at least two work plans for each of the years since the personal certificate was awarded. Work plans that holders of a five-year personal certificate have submitted to the CKI during the interim assessment, are also used by the latter as evidence for recertification of the certificate holder. For this purpose, the work plans referred to are archived by the CKI in the file of the certificate holder during the remaining validity period of his five-year personal certificate and, after recertification, the subsequent three-year personal certificate. Work plans used as evidence for recertification must not be older than three years at this time. This as described in chapter 11. Work plans that are older than three years upon recertification are destroyed by the CKI. Annex XIIc. belonging to article 4.18 Addition rule for the risk of exposure to a mixture of hazardous substances In principle, the limit value for a hazardous substance only applies to exposure to the substance in its pure form and does not automatically apply if the substance is a component of a mixture of substances to which exposure takes place or can take place. It is possible that the health effect of such a mixture is the sum of the individual substances. This is the case with a mixture of different organic solvents. It is also possible that in a combined exposure the health effects of the individual substances are considerably enhanced or reduced. If the different substances in a mixture individually have the same health effect on the same organ system, the assessment of the risk of exposure to the limit value established for each of those substances shall be carried out as follows: Machine Translated by Google The sum of all individual exposure concentrations as a fraction of the individual limit values is less than one. In other words: Annex XIII. belonging to Article 4.19, first paragraph List of statutory limit values on the basis of Articles 4.3(1) and 4.16(1) of the Working Conditions Decree Explanation of the letters and indications used CAS number To facilitate unambiguous identification, the so-called CAS number has been included for each substance, ie the number under which the substance is registered by the 'Chemical Abstract' Service. TGG Time-weighted average. For a number of substances, in addition to the maximum accepted concentration for an exposure duration of up to 8 hours per day, a limit value has also been established for a short-term exposure of no more than 15 minutes. C Ceiling value This designation is applied to substances whose limit value is a ceiling value or ceiling value. Such a value indicates that exceeding this concentration must be avoided in all cases. H (Skin shot) Substances that can be absorbed relatively easily through the skin, which can make a substantial contribution to the total internal exposure, have an H designation in the list. For these substances, in addition to measures against inhalation, adequate measures must also be taken to prevent skin contact. Respirable/inhalable dust For substances that can also occur as particles/aerosols, the limit value relates to the particles sampled as 'inhalable dust', unless stated otherwise. For a further definition of inhalable and respirable dust and its measurement aspects, reference is made to NEN standard NEN-EN 481:1994 'Workplace atmosphere. Definition of the particle size distribution for the measurement of airborne particles'. Machine Translated by Google Respirable Fiber Respirable fibers are defined as follows: fibers longer than 5 micrometers, smaller than 3 micrometers in diameter and having an aspect ratio greater than 3/1. For mineral wool fibres, the additional criterion is that the fibers must be shorter than 200 micrometers. The limit values stated below apply at a temperature of 20 °C and a pressure of 101.3 kPa. A. List of legal limits ISO name of the substance CAS number min TWA 8 hours mg/m 3 C TGG 15 mg/m 3 huh Acetaldehyde 75-07-0 37 92 Acetone 67-64-1 1210 2420 Acetonitrile 75-05-8 34 Allyl alcohol 107-18-6 4.8 12.1 huh 2-Aminoethanol 141-43-5 2.5 7.6 huh ammonia 7664-41-7 14 36 Antimony and 7440-36-0 compounds 0.5 (as Sb) 64-19-7 25 – Acetic acid Barium, soluble 7440-39-3 0.5 compounds (as Ba) Bisphenol A 80-05-7 10 (inhalable dust) Bromine 7726-95-6 0.2 Hydrogen bromide 10035-10-6 6.7 2-Butanone 78-93-3 590 900 huh 2-Butoxyethanol 111-76-2 100 246 huh 2-(2-Butoxyethoxy)ethan 112-34-5 ol 50 100 huh 2-Butoxyethyl acetate 112-07-2 n-Butyl 135 333 huh acrylate 141-32-2 tert-Butyl1189-85-1 chromate (as 11 53 0.1 C huh CrO 3 ) tert-Butyl methyl ether 1634-04-4 180 360 5 – Calcium Dihydroxide 1305-62-0 Carbonyl fluoride and 353-50-4 1 PTFE pyrolysis products, as F chlorine 7782-50-5 1,5 Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 23 70 Chlorodifluoromethane 75-45-6 3600 Chloroethane 75-00-3 268 Chloroform 67-66-3 5 25 Machine Translated by Google Chromium (metallic) 7440-47-3 inorganic 0.5 0,5 Chromium(II) compounds and inorganic 1 Chromium(III) compounds (insoluble) Chromium(III) compounds (as 0.06 Cr), water soluble Cumene Cyanamide 420-04-2 Cyanides, incl. 74-90-8 hydrogen cyanide 98-82-8 100 250 huh (as CN) 0.2 huh 1 10 huh Cyclohexane 110-82-7 700 1400 Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 50 huh Dichloroacetylene 1,2- 7572-29-4 0.4 C Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 1,4- 122 300 huh Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 1,1- 150 300 Dichloroethane 75-34-3 Diethylamine 400 800 109-89-7 Diethyl ether 60-29-7 pentaoxide Diphosphorus 15 30 1314-56- 3 Diphosphorus 1314-80-3 pentasulfide N,N,- 308 616 Dimethylacetamide 127-19-5 Dimethylamine 1 5 124-40-3 Dimethylether N,N- 1 Dimethylformamide 68-12-2 1,4-Dioxane 36 72 huh 123-91-1 Dipropylene glycolmethyl 8 Ether34590-94- Ethane-1,2- 1,8 diol - vapor 107-21-1 - drops115-10-6 2-Ethoxyethanol 950 1500 110-80-5 2-Ethoxyethyl acetate 111-15-9 Ethyl 15 30 huh acrylate 140-88-5 Ethylamine Phenol Ethylbenzene 2- 20 Phenylpropene Fluorine 300 52 10 104 huh 8 huh 11 huh 21 42 75-04-7 9 100-41-4 215 430 huh 108-95-2 8 huh 98-83-9 20 7782-41-4 0.5 Fluorides, inorganic and 2 soluble (as F) Hydrogen fluoride (as F) 7664-39-3 1 Formaldehyde 50-00-0 0.15 0.5 Phosphine 7803-51-2 0.14 0.28 Phosphorus Pentachloride 10026-13-8 1 Phosphoric Acid 7664-38-2 1 2 Machine Translated by Google Phosgene 75-44-5 0.08 0.4 n-Heptane 142-82-5 1200 1600 2-Heptanone 110-43-0 233 3-Heptanone 106-35-4 163 n-Hexane 110-54-3 72 144 1,6-Hexanolactam - vapor 105-60-2 - dust 20 1 Isopentane 78-78-4 1800 Cobalt (dust and smoke) 7440-48-4 (as 0.02 Co) Cobalt Hydrocarbonyl 16842-03-8 (as Co) 0.1 carbon dioxide 124-38-9 9000 Carbon monoxide 630-08-0 29 Copper and inorganic 7440-50-8 copper 0.1 compounds (inhalable) 22 – Kresol (all isomers) 1319-77-3 huh Mercury and divalent 0.02 inorganic mercury compounds (measured as mercury) welding fumes 1 Lithium hydride 7580-67-8 0.025 – Lead and inorganic 7439-92-1 lead 0.15 compounds (see also Article 4.19a Working Conditions Regulation) Mesithylene 100 200 (trimethylbenzenes) Methanol 67-56-1 133 huh 2-Methoxyethanol 109-86-4 0.5 huh 2-(Methoxyethoxy)ethano 111-77-3 l 45 huh 2-Methoxyethyl acetate 110-49-6 0.8 huh 1-Methoxy-2-propanol 107-98-2 375 563 huh 1-Methoxy-2-propylaceta 108-65-6 550 at Methyl acrylate 96-33-3 18 36 1-Methylbutyl acetate 620-11-1 530 2-Methylbutyl acetate 625-16-1 530 5-Methylheptane-3-one 541-85-5 133 5-Methylhexan-2-one 110-12-3 233 Methyl isocyanate 624-83-9 0.05 Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 205 410 4-Methyl-2-pentanone 108-10-1 104 208 Machine Translated by Google N-Methyl-2-pyrrolidone 872-50-4 40 80 huh Formic acid 64-18-6 5 Morpholine 110-91-8 36 72 huh naphthalene 91-20-3 50 80 sodium azide 26628-22-8 0.1 0.3 huh neopentane 463-82-1 1800 Nicotine 54-11-5 0.5 huh Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 1 huh Oil mist (mineral oil) 5 Oxalic acid 144-62-7 1 Ozone 10028-15-6 0.12 (TWA 1 hour) n-pentane n- 109-66-0 1800 pentyl acetate iso- 628-63-7 530 pentyl acetate tert- 123-92-2 530 pentyl acetate 625-16-1 530 Perfluoroisobutylene 382-21-8 0.082 C Picric acid 88-89-1 0.1 – Piperazine 110-85-0 0.1 0.3 Platinum, Metallic 7440-06-4 1 Propionic Acid 79-09-4 31 62 Pyrethrum 8003-34-7 1 pyridine 110-86-1 0.9 resorcinol 108-46-3 10 Nitric acid 7697-37-2 1.3 Selenium Hexafluoride (as 7783-79-1 0.2 Se) Hydrogen selenium (as 7783-07-5 0.1 Se) Stibine 7803-52-3 0.5 Nitrogen Dioxide 10102-44-0 0.4 1 Nitric Oxide 10102-43-9 0.25 Talc (respirable) 14807-96-6 0.25 0.1 Tetraethyldithiopyrophos 3689-24-5 fat huh Tetrahydrofuran 109-99-9 300 600 huh 7440-31-5 2 – Tin (inorganic compounds like Sn) Toluene 108-88-3 150 384 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 7.55 37.8 huh 1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 555 1110 Triethylamine 121-44-8 4.2 12.6 huh 1,2,3-Trimethylbenzene 526-73-8 100 200 1,2,4-Trimethylbenzene 95-63-6 100 200 Vanadium Oxides (as V) 0.01 0.03 Vinyl Acetate 108-05-4 18 36 Xylene, o-, m-, 1330-20-7 210 442 huh Machine Translated by Google p-isomers Silver, metallic 7440-22-4 0.1 Silver, soluble 0.01 compounds (as Ag) Hydrochloric acid 7647-01-0 8 15 Sulphur dioxide 7446-09-5 0.7 Sulfur carbon 75-15-0 15 huh hydrogen sulfide 7783-06-4 2.3 During exposure monitoring for mercury and its divalent inorganic compounds, relevant biological monitoring techniques are taken into account in addition to the air limit value B. List of legal limits for carcinogens B1. List of legal limit values for carcinogens, determined on the basis of the threshold effect ISO name of the substance CAS number TWA 8 hours mg/m3 TWA 15 min min mg/m 3H Cadmium Chloride (as 10108-64-2 0.005 CD) Cadmium Oxide (smoke) 1306-19-0 (as 0.005 Cd) Cadmium Sulfate (as Cd) 10124-36-4 0.005 Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.03 Silicon (di)oxide: – quartz 14808-60-7 0.075 8 – crystal ballite 14464-46-1 0.075 8 – tridymite 15468-32-3 0.075 8 Sulfuric acid (mist), 7664-93-9 defined 0.05 as the thoracic fraction 8 For respirable dust B2. List of legal limit values for carcinogens, determined according to the risk approach ISO name of the substance CAS number TWA 8 hours mg/m3 TWA 15 min mg/m3 huh Acrylamide 79-06-1 0.16 huh Aflatoxins 0.005 Machine Translated by Google Arsenic 7440-38-2 0.0028 Arsenic pentoxide (as 1303-28-2 0.0028 Ash) Arsenic Trioxide (as As) 1327-53-3 0.0028 Arsenic Acid (as As) 7778-39-4 0.0028 Water Soluble salts of arsenic acid (as As) 0.0028 Water insoluble salts of arsenic acid (as As) 0.0028 Other Inorganic Arsenic 0.0028 Compounds Asbestos, see article 4.46 Working Conditions Decree Azathioprine Aziridine 446-86-6 0.005 Benzo(a)pyrene 151-56-4 0.0009 50-32-8 Barium chromate (as Cr) 550 7 10294-40-3 Benzene 71-43-2 3.25 0.025 huh Petrol ² 240 480 1,3-Butadiene 106-99-0 2 Calcium chromate (as 13765-19-0 0.01 cr) Carbadox 6804-07-5 0.003 4-Chloro-o-phenylenediam 95-83-0 ine 0.2 Chromium(III) chromate 24613-89-6 (as Cr) 0.01 Chromium(VI)-soluble compounds 0.01 0.02 huh Chromium (VI)-poorly 0.05 huh soluble compounds, not mentioned elsewhere on this list Chromium Trioxide (as Cr) 1333-82-0 0.01 0.02 Cisplatin 15663-27-1 0.00005 dacarbazine 4342-03-4 0.0009 1,2-Dibromoethane 106-93-4 0.002 1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 7 2,2'-Dichloro-4,4'- Methylenedianiline 101-14-4 0.02 huh Epichlorohydrin 106-89-8 0.19 1,2-Epoxypropane 75-56-9 6 Ethanol 64-17-5 260 1900 huh Machine Translated by Google Ethylene Oxide 75-21-8 0.84 hardwood dust 2 Ceramic Fibers 0.5 4 Lead chromate (as Cr) 7758-97-6 0.025 2-Methylaziridine 75-55-8 0.6 4,4'-Methylene-dianilin 101-77-9 9 e Metronidazole 443-48-1 0.00012 2-Nitropropane 79-46-9 0.036 N-Nitrosodimethylamine 62-75-9 0.0002 Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons from coal (as benzo(a)pyrene) 550 7 huh Procarbazine 366-70-1 0.002 Hydrochloride Strontium chromate (as 7789-06-2 0.01 cr) 1,2,3-Trichloropropane 96-18-4 1.08 Urethane 51-79-6 0.002 0.012 Vinyl bromide 593-60-2 7.77 Vinyl Chloride Monomer 75-01-4 Zinc chromate (as Cr) 13530-65-9 0.01 micrograms/m3 ² As fuel for combustion engines. This mixture is classified as carcinogenic if the benzene content is greater than 0.1%. Definition of hardwood according to the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) of wood based on botanical characteristics: wood from flowering plants = hardwood. 4 Respirable fibers per cm3 air, TWA 8 hours. 7 Nanogr/m3 Annex XIIIa. belonging to Article 4.27 Field-specific certification scheme for the Asbestos Inventory Process Certificate Certification scheme Machine Translated by Google for the inventory of existing asbestos, asbestos-containing products and asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction components in a structure or object prior to at •. the complete or partial demolition of structures and/or objects; •. removing asbestos; •. the removal of asbestos after an incident to be recorded in an asbestos inventory report including risk classifications Document: SC-540 Content 1. Introduction 2. Definitions and Documents 2.1 General definitions 2.2 Field-specific definitions 2.3 Documents 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1 Description scheme 3.2 Active parties 3.3 Risk analysis and infringement criteria 3.4 Asbestos inventory characterization 4. Certification Regulations 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Procedures 4.4 Certification decision 4.5 Validity period of the certificate 4.6 Validity conditions 4.7 Complaints 4.8 Objection procedure re 4.9 Norm Interpretation 5. Supervision 5.1 Access Machine Translated by Google 5.2 Frequency of supervision 5.3 The manner in which the supervision is carried out 5.4 Report of findings 5.5 Sanctions for detected deviations 5.6 Cost of research 5.7 Criteria 6. Subject of certification 7. To demand 7.1 Administrative requirements 7.2 Release of Pressure 7.3 confidentiality 7.4 Organization and management 7.5 Quality system 7.6 Staff 7.7 Facilities and equipment 7.8 Inventory methods and procedures 7.9 Handling of inventory objects and material samples 7.10 Data management 7.11 Inventory Reports 7.12 Outsourcing 7.13 Collaboration 7.14 Requirements for asbestos inventory 7.15 Size of the project 7.16 It asbestos inventory plate n 7.17 Report Assessment methodology 8. 8.1 Time spent on the assessments 8.2 Combination with reviews for others Machine Translated by Google certification schemes 9. The certificate 9.1 Certificate Details 9.2 Use of the certificate 9.3 Ascert Certificate Register APPENDIX A NOTIFICATION FORM ASBESTOS INVENTORY APPENDIX B DEFINITIONS (I) APPENDIX C MODEL REQUEST PROJECTS FOR INITIAL CERTIFICATION (V) APPENDIX D MODEL AGREEMENT CKIE AND CERTIFICATE HOLDER (I) APPENDIX E ASCERT PROCESS CERTIFICATE ASBESTOS INVENTORY (V) APPENDIX F OBLIGATIONS CLIENT (I) APPENDIX G HOW TO TRADE AT INCIDENT (FIRE STORM) (I) APPENDIX H CATEGORY LAYOUT SANCTION SYSTEM ASBESTOS INVENTORY TABLE 5.5.3 (V) APPENDIX J GENERAL MEASURES (V) APPENDIX K SUBSTITUTION OF THE DEROGATIONS (V) Part I. General Provisions Part 1 of this certification scheme contains general principles and provisions for certification by CBs and conditions under which certificates must be issued. Described is successively: •. the field of activity to which this certification scheme relates (1); •. definitions and documents (2); •. a description of the specific characteristics of the field, including a risk analysis (3); Machine Translated by Google •. the certification regulations (4); •. monitoring compliance with the requirements (5). Additional information is provided in the text of this certification scheme for support and clarification in the form of Explanation, Remark and Appendix. These are of an informative nature. 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme SC-540 for the inventory of existing asbestos, asbestos- containing products and asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction parts in a structure or object prior to and for the benefit of – the total or partial demolition of structures and/or objects, – removing asbestos, – the removal of asbestos after an incident, has been drawn up by Ascert and adopted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It forms the basis for the Ascert Process Certificate Asbestos Inventory. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. 2. Definitions and Documents 2.1. General definitions Term or abbreviation: Meaning Applicant of a The (legal) person who applies for a certificate: to the certification body for the issuance of a certificate. Note: Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. ADK: Asbestos expert Assignment: Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. For the work field asbestos operates the Asbestos Certification Foundation (Ascert), formerly SCA. Rating: Assessment (initial, Machine Translated by Google or re-) by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the information issued by the Minister of SZW adopted WDA&T, under which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates to give. When adopting the WDA&T by the Minister of SZW is aligned as much as possible with international systems and standards. Category I, II, III or There are four levels IV: on which in case of theofcertificate deviant behavior holder company the following sanctions may be imposed: • Category I Unconditional withdrawal • Category II Suspensions • Category III Conditional withdrawal with a term of 3 months • Category IV Warn This levels are further elaborated in the so-called escalation ladder. (see SC-530/ SC-540, par. 5.5.2). Central College of the college, part Experts (CCvD): from and/facilitated by Ascert, which interested parties Machine Translated by Google in a particular sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Certificate: A certificate in the meaning of article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Commodities Act . In addition, a certificate be considered as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant accreditation standards. Certificate Holder: (right) Person who holds a valid legally required certificate for his business. Certification process: All activities through which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations: Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification system: Set of procedures and resources needed to Machine Translated by Google carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and Calibration or Inspection Body Conformity Assessment (CKI): g bodies such as certification bodies, user inspection inspection services, bodies and testlaboratories, institutes. CKI person: CKI designated by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment on the basis of Annex XIIIf for the granting of personal certificates Expert asbestos remover level 1, Expert asbestos remover level 2 or Expert asbestos removal supervisor based on Annex XIIIc CKI process: CKI by the Minister designated by SZW on the basis of SC-502 for the granting of process certificates based on SC-530 and/or SC-540. Concern: a) a group of companies that are (to a significant extent) jointly managed and act as a unit; or, b) legal entities linked by shareholding. Check: Periodic assessment by the national Machine Translated by Google accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). DAV: Expert asbestos remover level 1 (DAV-1) and Expert asbestos remover level 2 (DAV-2) SLIDE: Expert inventor of asbestos DTA: Expert supervisor asbestos removal Final assessment body Final assessment body: ing: by the RvA, NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17020: 2004 type C, accredited inspection body that carries out the final inspection (inspection, sampling and analysis) after asbestos removal. IenM: Ministry of Infrastructure and Environment. Client: Client in the sense of Article 1.1, second paragraph, preamble and under c and d of the Working Conditions Decree Project: A building in the sense of Article 1.1, second paragraph, preamble and under b of the Working Conditions Decree, whereby the the boundaries of the project are formed by the entire assignment of the client; Machine Translated by Google Risk analysis: Analysis from which motivation, for choices to be made in field-specific problem area appears to be included in the intended certification scheme. SC-502: Field specific document for Designation and Supervision of the Certification Body and for Asbestos Removal Companies (AVB) and Asbestos Inventory Companies (AIB). Document number SC-502. SC-530: Field-specific certification scheme for the Asbestos Removal Process Certificate. Document number SC-530. SC-540: Field-specific certification scheme for the Asbestos Inventory Process Certificate. Document number SC-540. Supervision: Gathering information about whether an action or thing meets the requirements set for it, then forming an opinion about it and intervene if necessary. Supervision and enforcement (Government) institutions: charged with supervision and the enforcement of the asbestos removal such as certification body and (designated by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment), Machine Translated by Google SZW Inspectorate, Human Environment and Transport Inspectorate, municipalities, environmental police, etc. Field specific Term used by SZW certification scheme for a (WSSC): certification scheme established by the Minister of SZW is accepted to be used within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. Field-specific Term used by SZW document for a document designation and supervision in which, on the one hand, the (WDA&T): standards have been established that CKIs must meet in order to be designated by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment and, on the other hand, the conditions within which designation takes place. ZBO: Independent administrative body 2.2. Field-specific definitions SC-540 Part III Appendix B contains a list of field-specific definitions. 2.3. Documents The documents below play a role in the text of this certification scheme. [1] Working conditionswe legal t [2] Working conditions are legally closed [3] Working conditions legal regulation [4] Asbestos removal order legal from 2005 [5] cancelled cancelled Machine Translated by Google [6] Products Decree Asbestos legally [7] Report TNO-MEP R informative 2004/523 Risk-based classification of work involving asbestos [8] Legal covenant Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment and the Foundation Certification Asbestos dated March 8, 2006. Government Gazette 7 August 2006, no. 151/page. [9] Protocol Validation Measurements 7 Normative for the Expansion of SMA-rt (SC-548); CCvD Asbestos [10] Information sheet Informative Approach Asbestos Fire 2006. VROM Inspectorate. Available at www.vrom.nl [11] National informative Implementation Method Asbestos Inventory Decree 2005; VROM and LOM. A guide for municipalities. Senter Novem June 2007 [13] NEN 2990: 2012; Air – normative Final inspection after asbestos inventory [14] NEN 2991: 2005; Air – normative Risk assessment in and around buildings or structures in which asbestos-containing materials are incorporated. [15] NEN 5896: 2005 nl; normative Sampling and analysis of asbestos in raw construction and demolition waste and recycled granulate [16] NEN 5897 / NEN 5707 informative Asbestos in rubble and demolition waste Machine Translated by Google [17] NEN 5707: 2003 nl; informative Soil – Inspection, sampling and analysis of asbestos in soil [18] General protocol for informative validation of asbestos risk classification systems (Ascert SC-549: Version 01, Date 15/09/2011); CCvD Asbestos [19] Aedes Protocol Informative Removal Asbestos containing materials for mutation and complaints maintenance 2007 [20] NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 19011: normative 2002; Guidelines for performing quality and/or environmental management system audits [21] NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17020: normative 2004 and; General criteria for the functioning of different species institutions that perform inspections. [22] NTA Asbestos in informative water bottoms [23] Draft NEN 2939: informative 'Workplace atmosphere – Determination of the concentration on respirable asbestos fibers in the air when working with or in the immediate vicinity of asbestos or containing asbestos products, using microscopic techniques.' [24] NEN-EN 1822-5:2000 and; normative Machine Translated by Google High Efficiency Air Filters (HEPA and ULPA) – Part 5: Determining Filter Element Efficiency. [26] CROW 132; Working in or informative with contaminated soil and contaminated (ground) water 3. Field-specific characteristics In order to safeguard the public interest – health and safety in and around work – the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment has opted for a legally required certification scheme for the assurance of quality/safety in the inventory of asbestos, products containing asbestos and materials contaminated with asbestos or contaminated materials. structural components prior to demolition, renovation or maintenance in structures and objects and after an incident. Prior to the removal of asbestos-containing material after an incident (fire / storm), the indicated step-by-step plan must be followed (see Appendix G). See, for example, the 2006 Asbestos Fire Action Plan Information Sheet. 3.1. Description scheme The field-specific certification scheme for the careful, occupational and environmental hygiene inventory of asbestos, etc., SC-540, has been proposed by Ascert and established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment through a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. Comments or comments about this document can be submitted to the CCvD, info@ascert.nl. 3.2. Active parties The following are particularly active within the Asbestos Certification Foundation: •. Central College of Asbestos Experts •. Workroom Asbestos •. Central Examination Board •. Certification bodies, listed on www.ascert.nl under CKIs •. Certificate holders, listed in the Ascert Register 3.3. Risk analysis and detriment criteria 3.3.1. General Machine Translated by Google Due to its good properties, asbestos has been widely used in the past, for example in buildings and homes. When inhaled, asbestos fibers can penetrate deep into the lungs and eventually cause peritoneal cancer, lung cancer and asbestosis (dust lungs). It is estimated that about 700 people die every year from this in the Netherlands. The time lag between exposure and getting sick can be decades. Together with SZW and VWS, I and M are responsible for asbestos regulations. During activities related to the removal of asbestos, there is a risk that asbestos fibers will enter the breathing zone of employees. The number of fibers during the activities is divided into three separate risk classes: Risk class 1: when there are concentrations of asbestos fibers as described in Articles 4.44 and 4.46 of the Decree; Risk class 2: when there are concentrations of asbestos fibers as described in Articles 4.46 and 4.48 of the Decree; Risk class 2A: in the case of the concentrations of asbestos fibers as described in Articles 4.46 and 4.53a of the Decree. 3.3.2. Risk analysis level asbestos inventory In order to prevent the issue or maintenance of a certificate on unjustified grounds, it is necessary to define risks and take measures. These aim to eliminate the risks related to incomplete and/or incorrect asbestos inventory. The measures come in two forms and can consist of distance from the source or of technical measures, such as direct measures to eliminate the risks related to the occurrence of the central event and thus prevent asbestos fiber contamination. In addition to the measures, there are also so-called management factors. These management factors cannot in themselves eliminate the central event, but influence the quality of the measures. Once the measures have been defined, they must be set up and maintained. The latter sets requirements for the asbestos inventory company and its employees. Once the measures have been installed, inspection and maintenance of the measures is necessary. The direct cause of asbestos fiber contamination is by definition one or more failing measures. See SC-540 par. 5.5.1 with regard to the valuation of risky conditions in the sense of formal deviation from the requirements indicated with deviation Cat I, II, III and Cat IV. When several employees are involved in work, communication always plays an important role. Central event Emerging risks Measures In SC-540 Management factors par Asbestos fiber emission Incomplete and/or 1 Independence 7.1.2 SC-540 WSCS AIB SC-560 incorrect inventory company WSCS SLIDE SC-570 Machine Translated by Google asbestos inventory from Ascert diploma ADK with a chance of disposal company internal exposure risk quality control 2 Independence director of Inventory Company Correct assessment at 3 7.16.3.4 7.3.2 7.6.5 start of inventory with regard to exposure risks When 4 implemented, 7.16.3 comply with all safety aspects to prevent asbestos exposure 5 Respond appropriately to 7.9.2 deviant situations Complete and/or 6 correct 7.14.9 risk class classification Complete and/or correct 7.17 7 reporting Release of 7.11.3 inventory report Complete and/or correct 8 7.14.11 analysis of samples conditions Validity 4.6 9 ISO 17020 10 3.4. Asbestos inventory characterization 3.4.1. Distinguish all asbestos applications The Central Board of Experts has made the following choice for an interpretation of all asbestos applications in a building, construction or object: a) Directly detectable asbestos; this includes all asbestos applications that are directly visually observable or that can be detected by means of light destructive testing. Mild destructive testing is understood to mean investigation into all asbestos applications, of which the inventor should have a suspicion in view of his expertise, which can be observed with (where necessary) using the tool set as stated in SC-540 par. 7.14.4. In the case of slightly destructive testing, the architectural integrity is not affected. Machine Translated by Google b) Asbestos not directly detectable; this includes all asbestos applications that are not directly visually observable or that cannot be detected by means of light destructive testing and can only be detected by destructive testing that affects the structural integrity. Destructive research is understood to mean research into the asbestos applications, stated on an overview of reasonable asbestos sources presumably present, drawn up by the inventor. The investigation uses heavy equipment (using electrically or pneumatically driven tools), which may affect the structural integrity of the structure. c) Unforeseen presence of asbestos. When actually deleting this In the case of inventoried asbestos applications, it is possible that, despite the above- mentioned findings with subsequent removals, asbestos is still unexpectedly found. This must be reported by the asbestos removal company to the inventory bureau, municipality, owner and client (see SC-540 par. 7.17.4). The manner in which the asbestos removal company should deal with unforeseen asbestos is regulated in SC-530. The investigation into all asbestos applications can be carried out in the following phases. 3.4.2. Asbestos inventory for demolishing/dismantling/using a structure or object: Type A Immediately observable asbestos, products containing asbestos, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction parts. The systematic and complete inventory of all observable asbestos, asbestos-containing products, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction parts in a structure or object, insofar as these asbestos sources are directly observable or can be detected with the aid of light-destructive research. Light destructive testing does not affect the architectural integrity of the structure or object. In order to carry out a type-A asbestos inventory, the client of the inventory must provide unobstructed and appropriate access to all areas associated with the purpose and scope of the investigation. This is a necessary condition. This inventory leads to an asbestos inventory report type A (see SC-540 par. 7.17.2). Overview of reasonable suspected asbestos sources If during the asbestos inventory the reasonable suspicion arises, or cannot be ruled out, that asbestos sources may be present in the building construction or the object that can only be detected with the aid of destructive testing, an overview must be drawn up of these asbestos sources. This overview of reasonable asbestos sources presumably present is the basis for the subsequent Type-B inventory study. Since such an investigation cannot be enforced by the asbestos inventory company on its client, the agency must limit itself to an explicit recommendation in the summary to have a type B investigation carried out. Machine Translated by Google This recommendation is a reason for the licensing authority to make such a type-B investigation mandatory in the license conditions as a supplement to the type-A report. The asbestos inventory report Type-A must be a complete inventory of all areas of a structure, or the part of this structure that is intended for demolition, such as: floors, walls, ceilings, pipes, technical installations, facades (inside and outside), crawl space(s), basements and roofs. A complete Type-A asbestos inventory report serves as the basis for the application for an environmental permit for the complete or partial demolition or dismantling of a structure. An asbestos inventory report Type-A that is not complete is not suitable for an application for an environmental permit. Elaboration: In practice, it is conceivable that exclusions are included in the report of a Type-A investigation because, for example, some areas could not be examined, or that the structure was still in use at the time of the asbestos inventory (the building was not unobstructed and suitable accessible). In all these cases, there is an incomplete Type-A study. These exclusions can only be lifted through an additional Type-A examination. The report must state clearly and unmistakably whether it concerns a 'complete' Type-A study or an 'incomplete' Type-A study (state in title page and summary). An incomplete Type-A study is not suitable for submitting an application for an environmental permit. 3.4.3. Additional asbestos inventory during construction demolition: Type-B Asbestos, asbestos-containing products, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction parts that are not directly observable. A type-B investigation is an investigation that is carried out before or during the architectural demolition of a building object or construction by a certified inventory company on the basis of an overview of reasonable suspected asbestos sources. During this investigation, the structural integrity of the structure may be affected. The result leads to a type-B asbestos inventory report as a supplement to the type-A asbestos inventory report (see SC-540 par. 7.17.3). This is made available by the asbestos inventory company to the owner / client or the holder of the environmental permit. Explanation: Machine Translated by Google The client must make the additional type-B asbestos inventory available to the competent authority, the licensing authority (municipality). 3.4.4. Limited inventory prior to a risk assessment in accordance with NEN 2991: 2005 The execution of a risk assessment in accordance with NEN 2991: 2005 falls outside the scope of SC-540. For information purposes, mention is made here of 'Limited inventory prior to a risk assessment in accordance with NEN 2991: 2005 Type 0 (zero)'. Prior to risk assessments to be carried out, in accordance with NEN 2991: 2005, in buildings, constructions or objects in an inhabited/used condition that will not be demolished, a limited inventory of materials containing asbestos will suffice, without using destructive research methods. This inventory must be recorded in a report. The result of a type 0 inventory can then serve as a starting point. Naturally, a type 0 inventory is only performed if no type A inventory is available for the relevant structure or object, while there are reasons to perform a NEN 2991: 2005 risk assessment in the short term. Elaboration: A condition for performing a NEN 2991: 2005 investigation is that an asbestos inventory report type 0 has always been drawn up prior to the NEN 2991: 2005 investigation. If the results of a NEN 2991: 2005 investigation lead to an asbestos remediation, the results of the type 0 and the NEN 2991: 2005 investigation serve as the basis (desk research) for drawing up the Type-A investigation. Remediation can only take place with a Type A investigation. Explanation: The type 0 inventory report is the minimum starting point for the NEN 2991: 2005 survey. 3.4.5. Asbestos inventory Type-G: Asbestos inventory focused on the use of the building A type-G asbestos inventory is an extension of a complete type-A asbestos inventory. Building owners or managers can voluntarily order this type of asbestos inventory. It concerns a type of asbestos inventory that can be used in the context of this scheme. This does not alter the fact that the inventor is obliged to carry out the work in accordance with the requirements in this scheme. 3.4.6. Asbestos risk classification system SMA-rt Machine Translated by Google The classification of asbestos fibers released during asbestos removal into a risk class is included in an automated internet system (SMA-rt). Ascert manages and maintains SMA-rt. This system should be used for the inventory. A precondition for a usable SMA-rt system is that the asbestos inventory company, which enters data, is independent, competent and honest (see SC-540 par. 7.6 and SC-560: version 01, date 15- 11-2011). 3.4.7. Deviations from SMA-rt with arguments SMA-rt contains a very large number of source situations that fit directly to actual source situations. In addition, there is a wide variety of actions/environmental factors that determine the current exposure risk. In order to properly estimate the effect of this diversity and to introduce it in SMA-rt, an expert, independent and honest judgment of the inventor is required. A reliable risk classification – recorded in the inventory report – is therefore always based on the use of SMA-rt in combination with the arguments of an expert, independent and honest inventor, when it deviates from the outcome of SMA-rt (see SC-540 par 7.17.2.6). 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the field- specific scheme. This includes the application procedure, the conditions with regard to certification, the issuance and withdrawal of certificates, procedures for carrying out initial and periodic assessments, handling complaints and any request for review thereof. 4.2. Certification procedure The candidate certificate holder submits an application to a CKI in accordance with these certification regulations to carry out the certification procedure. The CKI then provides information about the state of affairs in the handling of the application. 4.3. Procedures In the context of the initial certification of the asbestos inventory company, various processes are run through. The CKI must: •. to be designated by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment to carry out the concerning inspections; Machine Translated by Google •. to have concluded a cooperation agreement with the Ascert Foundation. In addition, the CKI is obliged to inform the applicant in writing about the rules, conditions and procedures related to issuing, revocation, etc. of the certificate. without any form of discrimination against the applicant. As part of the certification process, the following procedures are followed:. •. Handling the initial certification application •. Requesting certificates from another, or more than one, CKI •. Admission assessment process •. Multiple branches/branches •. Initial assessment •. Completing or aborting the initial assessment •. Permission for work at the project location •. Time spent on initial assessment •. Report This is further elaborated below. 4.3.1. Handling application for initial certification A CKI must handle an application for the certificate in accordance with regulations drawn up by it. The CKI is obliged to inform the candidate in writing about the rules, conditions and procedures laid down therein related to the processing of the application for the certificate. 4.3.2. Applying for a process certificate The following requirements apply to the application: a) the applicant must handle the application independently; b) If there is any certification history on the subject of In the case of asbestos inventory, the candidate must provide the CKI with the complete assessment reports and correspondence over the past three years. The CKI must verify prior to the application that the candidate has not had a certificate from another CKI and whether it has been suspended or revoked. If the certificate is suspended or revoked, the CKI may not accept the application and refer the candidate back to their original CKI; c) an application for a certificate for a company whose certificate is already if this was not withdrawn at the request of the certificate holder up to 12 months earlier, will not be processed; d) an application for a certificate for a (legal) person whose certificate was withdrawn up to 12 months earlier, whether or not at the request of the certificate holder, will not be processed. If a certificate holder states that he will surrender his certificate, this is an application to revoke the certificate. The certificate is only revoked if the CKI has made a decision on the application (and has withdrawn the certificate). The notification (application) must be made in writing or electronically. The request to revoke a certificate can be Machine Translated by Google not be done orally. The period of 12 months of sub c and d runs from the date of the decision of the CKI in which the certificate was revoked. 4.3.3. Course of the entrance examination The course of the admission assessment, from the first assessment at the project location to the decision on whether or not to grant the certificate, is capped at 4 months. If the excess is attributable to the applicant, the candidate's assessment results will expire. 4.3.4. Distinction in categories of companies A distinction is made in: a) Independent companies registered with the Chamber of Commerce. b) Companies, registered with the Chamber of Commerce, which are part who form part of a group and hereinafter referred to as a participating company, each independently apply for the process certificate from the same certification body. The process certificate is made out in the name of the applicant company and included in the Ascert register, with the same Ascert code for all companies in the group, and a subcode for each participating company. A participating company that applies for the asbestos inventory process certificate: 1°. has no board members who are also board members at subsidiaries or sister companies of that participating company or the parent company of that participating company with the asbestos inventory process certificate; 2°. is located at a different location than a subsidiary, sister company or the parent company with the asbestos inventory process certificate; 3°. has five or more DIAs working for it; and 4°. realizes at least 1000 inventory reports per certification year. 4.3.5. Program Initial Assessment The purpose of the assessment to be performed by the CKI is to determine whether all requirements in SC-540 are met. The assessment consists of: A. Assessment of the It is assessed whether documentation that according schemetomust the certification be recorded in writing, has actually been recorded in its own quality documentation (quality manual and any associated related Machine Translated by Google documentation). B. Assessment of the implementation After it has been established that meets the documentation the requirements, the implementation of the documented system is assessed for correctness and completeness based on the requirements in SC-540. This assessment consists of the parts referred to under B.1 and B.2. For the concrete performance of the assessment makes the CKI with the candidate de necessary agreements. B.1 Assessment of the At the branch(ies) branch(ies) will be assessed as to whether the Parts of the quality system that can be assessed at the site, in conjunction with the whole quality system, meet the requirements of SC-540 and the candidate's quality documentation. B.2 Assessment of project locations per branch/establishment referred 4.3.4, whether to in Article the practical implementation of the inventory is also assessed at at least two project locations. and its reporting conforms to the SC-540 and its own quality documentation. Project site assessments are described in 5.2.2. further Machine Translated by Google differentiated into 'regular' and 'result-oriented' assessments. In the opinion of the CKI, the structures or objects to be inventoried must be sufficiently representative in nature and size to be able to properly assess the implementation aspects from SC-540 (see also section 4.3.6). 4.3.6. Application and permission for work at the project location For the duration of the assessment at two project locations where the assessment by the CKI takes place, a candidate is equated with a certified asbestos inventory company, or in the event of an additional assessment at three project locations. The applicable conditions are: •. that a written application has been submitted to the CKI for the acquisition of the certificate; •. that the candidate meets the requirements of SC-540, to the extent that the assessment referred to in 4.3.5A. After it has been demonstrated that the aforementioned conditions have been met, the CKI prepares an application for each project location that will be included in the assessment of the candidate. Based on the following criteria, Ascert must have given written permission for the application: •. the two projects should be distinguished from each other by different clients, inventory locations; •. the application form SC-540 Appendix C has been completed in full. 4.3.7. Completing or canceling the assessment 4.3.7.1. At least 2 full inventory reports The assessment can only be completed if the candidate has prepared at least 2 full inventory reports that meet the requirements of the SC-540. The results of the asbestos inventories, including the relevant reports, are part of the assessment. 4.3.7.2. Cancel rating Machine Translated by Google The assessment will be terminated without the certificate being issued if: •. the result of the assessment at the location does not meet the requirements even after a second assessment at that location; •. the result of the extra assessment on location does not meet the requirements; •. the candidate carries out work at one or more project locations for which no prior permission has been obtained from Ascert; •. the candidate has provided incorrect or incomplete information with regard to the provisions of 4.2. If the candidate whose assessment has been interrupted wants to acquire the certificate again, the CKI must go through all the steps of the assessment again. 4.3.7.3. Status of inventory reports during candidate assessment The CKI ensures that the status of the inventory reports drawn up during the assessment of a candidate is provisional and that these reports do not yet form a legally valid basis for carrying out asbestos removal. These preliminary inventory reports must be dated and marked in a conspicuous place with the text 'Not suitable for the application for an environmental permit'. The due date of these reports is equal to four months from the date the inventory activities started at the first project location. This expiry date must be clearly marked on the report. Based on the 'application for permission for work on a project location' as referred to in section 4.3.6 and after written permission has been granted by Ascert, these inventory projects are sent to Ascert with the details about the candidate, with a view to registration. 4.3.7.4. Time use assessment The time spent here for a regular assessment is a guideline, time units include reporting: •. quality documentation and pre-assessment: 0.5 man day; •. implementation at site or branch: 0.5 man day; •. assessment at project location, indication: 0.5 man day per assessment. Normally there are 2 assessments per day, with a maximum of 3. 4.3.7.5. Report The results of each part of the assessment are reported to the candidate in accordance with the guidelines in the current version of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 19011: 2002. 4.4. Certification decision 4.4.1. Grant decision and certificate Machine Translated by Google The certification decision is made by the certificate decision maker. The decision is made on the basis of the assessment report and a corresponding written opinion from the auditor. The CKI ensures that the written decision, including any certificate, is sent to the candidate within 10 working days after the last assessment, or after a different term agreed between CKI and the candidate. 4.4.2. Status preliminary asbestos inventory report If the CKI has issued the asbestos inventory company with a certificate, the CKI will ensure that the asbestos inventory company submits a preliminary inventory report, as referred to in section 4.3, at the latest during the next inspection. 7.1, has been converted into a final version conforming to all the requirements of the SC-540. When converting to a final report, the date of issue must be the same as the date of issue of the certificate. If the candidate cannot be granted a certificate, the value of a report referred to in par. 4.3.7.1 will automatically lapse. The CKI informs the applicant of this in writing and points out that no asbestos removal may be carried out in the future on the basis of that report. 4.5. Validity period of the certificate The certificate is valid for three years, unless revoked in the interim. 4.5.1. Recertification Unless the certificate holder has indicated in writing that it does not wish to continue the certificate, the CKI will generally have to complete the annual assessments at the branches / branches in the last year of the current certification period three months before the expiry date of the certificate. In doing so, the procedure described in section 4.3.5 is followed as much as possible. 4.5.2. Recertification after withdrawal If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. The period between withdrawal and application for the new certificate is 12 months. 4.6. Validity conditions The following conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. a) The certificate is inextricably linked to the asbestos inventory company, registered with the Chamber of Commerce. In the event that the company ceases to exist, the certificate will be revoked immediately. b) Demonstrable compliance with the provisions, to which reference is made in the risk analysis par. 3.3.2 and intended to eliminate the risks mentioned there. Machine Translated by Google c) If, in accordance with section 5.5.4 at level Cat I, no deviation(s) have been established by the CKI for certificate holders; d) If the personal certificate is abused. e) A candidate who previously held a valid certificate and whoever has had the certificate revoked cannot apply for a new certificate within the period of 12 months after the date of revocation. 4.7. Complaints 4.7.1. Complaints about the CI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both the certified companies and the users of certificates. The following requirements are set for a CB: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place; •. The complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, assessing and investigating the complaint; the manner of tracking and recording the complaint and subsequent actions; and how it is ensured that corrective actions are taken; •. The decision on the response to the complaint should be made by person(s) who are not involved in the subject of the complaint; •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed kept of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome; •. It must be determined in consultation with the client and the complainant whether and to what extent the complaint and its resolution are made public. 4.7.2. Complaints about the company or person If the CB receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person applying for the certificate or being a certificate holder, the CB should refer the complainant to the company or person. The CB must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CB it concerns a serious complaint, in addition to the treatment by the company or the person, the CB must also immediately assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CB must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. The regulations of the CB determine the further handling of these complaints. If the additional assessment shows that the complaint is justified, it will be charged as an additional assessment. If it turns out that the complaint is unjustified, the additional assessment will be regarded as a regular (project) assessment, which will replace the next assessment planned in the future. 4.7.3. Complaints procedure 4.7.3.1. Introduction Machine Translated by Google The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each complaint (shortcoming, improvement proposal). 4.7.3.2. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in a letter, fax or e-mail. If a complaint is received in the form of a letter, fax or e-mail, it is immediately (immediately after registration in the incoming mail) taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she will immediately receive a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint, records it on the complaint form and informs the CB director of the complaint. The director of the CB appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the shortcoming form in the owner box and informs the complaint handler in writing of the complaint. The complaint handler informs the complainant in writing (letter, e-mail, fax) about the receipt of the complaint. 4.7.3.2.1. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the petitioner; creates a file for the purpose of monitoring progress and including the handling of the complaint by the company/person at the next assessment. 4.7.3.2.2. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form in the improvement proposal box. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is entered on the complaint form in the appropriate box. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form in the follow-up investigation findings box. The quality manager archives the complaints handling documents. 4.8. Objection procedure Machine Translated by Google 4.8.1. Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. 4.8.2. Method 4.8.2.1. General – A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final opinion, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. – In its correspondence, the CKI informs the interested party of the possibility to lodge an objection against a decision by means of the following clause: ' Pursuant to the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can: a notice of objection may be lodged with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date of dispatch. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested to enclose with the request a copy of the contested decision and any other documents relating to the case.' – The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: a. name and address of the applicant; b. date; c. a description of the contested decision; d. the grounds of the objection. – The notice of objection is declared inadmissible: a. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default; in cases other than those mentioned under a, if not used b. of the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism. – The notice of objection is further declared inadmissible if, at the not applicable of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. – The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. – The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision against which it is objection is addressed. 4.8.2.2. Procedure – The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms receipt within two weeks, referring to the application of these regulations. – The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. – The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. Machine Translated by Google – The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to until the decision and must, in principle, take place within four weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. – The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. The hearing will take place at a time to be determined by the CKI within normal office hours. – Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. – Hearing will be waived if the notice of objection is manifestly not is admissible or manifestly unfounded, has meanwhile been met with the notice of objection, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. – The person or persons hearing convinces themselves or at the the correct procedures have been followed in reaching the decision, and takes note of the arguments of the interested party(s) and in each other's presence. – A report is made of the hearing. The report is attached to the decision on the objection. – The person or persons who hear also provide advice to the CKI. 4.8.2.3. Decision on notice of objection – The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks from the day after the day on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. – The decision period can be extended once by six weeks. After that you can the period may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. – If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. – The CKI will communicate the substantiation and motivation of its decision to the interested party. – The quality manager is informed of the outcome of the procedure. – The certification coordinator archives all relevant documents. 4.8.2.4. administrative judge – If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. – The CKI will point out this possibility to the interested party in its decision on the notice of objection. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD ensures unambiguous interpretation of the standards. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that Machine Translated by Google holders of depositary receipts, CKIs or other interested parties use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then differing interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. 5. Supervision The CKI is obliged to continuously test the certificate holder against the requirements in the field-specific certification scheme. In this chapter of the certification scheme, the CCvD determines how supervision by the CKI should be organised. 5.1. Access It is indicated below how the certificate holder must grant access and/or make information available to enable supervision by the supervisory and enforcement (government) institutions, including the certification body, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. (see also the certification agreement CKI-Certificate Holder): 1. The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with assessments at the office as well as at project locations, by or on behalf of the supervisory and enforcement (government) institutions, including the CKI, the RvA and the SZW Inspectorate. 2. The certificate holder is obliged to notify the CKI of changes in his circumstances that may be important for the certificate. 3. The certificate holder is obliged to provide the details of a to make asbestos inventory work for on-site assessment known to the supervisory and enforcement (government) institutions. 4. Reporting an asbestos inventory and thus the transfer of the relevant data must be made using the National Asbestos Tracking System (LAVS) from the moment of entry into force. 5.2. Frequency of supervision After the certificate has been issued, the CKI carries out periodic assessments of the certificate holder during the certification period. 5.2.1. Assessment at the location There is at least one assessment at the site per year. Part of this assessment is the file of at least four inventory projects. If an asbestos inventory company has one or more branches/branches as referred to in 4.3.4, in addition to the main location, at least one assessment per year will also take place per branch/ establishment, in addition to the one assessment per year at the main location. 5.2.2. On-site assessment Machine Translated by Google During the term of the certificate, periodic assessment of project locations will take place per branch/establishment, among other things, on the basis of the numbers stated in table 5.2.2. It includes the following distinction: a) unannounced regular implementation review; b) results-oriented implementation assessment planned together with the asbestos inventory company. At a substantiated request from the asbestos inventory company, the CKI may decide that a large inventory assignment with a number of subprojects/locations can be regarded as multiple assignments with regard to the required numbers in table 5.2.2. In doing so, the CKI considers whether, in view of the size and complexity of the assignment, all implementation aspects from SC-540 can be properly assessed. In that case, the CKI of the asbestos inventory company requires a separate notification for each subproject/location with a separate notification form, and that each subproject/location is handled through a separate procedure, including reporting and decision-making. A Regular on-site implementation assessment The regular implementation review takes place unannounced. Locations are selected on the basis of the regular system used by the CKI. It is intended to assess the implementation of the documented system. B Results-oriented on-site implementation assessment After an inventory has been carried out and the inventory report has been drawn up, the planned and announced result-oriented assessment takes place prior to asbestos removal. Together with the responsible DIA, the CKI returns to the project location using the completed and signed inventory report as a guideline. The project location for this assessment is selected on the basis of a random sample from inventory projects that have not yet been remediated or demolished for asbestos. In addition to an overview of the project, samples from the inventory report are checked with the DIA on site, partly on the basis of an explanation by the DIA. Temporarily no periodic assessment on location possible If the number of on-site assessments listed in table 1 is not possible in a 12-month period, the CKI will give the asbestos inventory company the opportunity, in the following 12-month period, in addition to the number for this period, also the missing number. from the previous 12-month period. The CKI will record such a measure in writing in the file. This measure can only be applied once in 4 consecutive 12-month periods. Table 5.2.2 Annual on-site assessments in proportion to number of DIA or number of (partial) reports Machine Translated by Google Average number of DIA Average number of Total amount Regular Deployment Result-oriented Inventory Reports assessments per year assessment (see art. implementation per year 5.2.2A) assessment (see art. 5.2.2B) 1–2 < 500 4 3 1 3–5 500–1100 6 4 2 6–8 1100–1600 9 6 3 >8 > 1600 12 8 4 Explanation of table 5.2.2: The number of assessments is determined by the criterion (number of DIA or number inventory reports) leading to the highest number of on-site assessments. The term 'annual' does not refer to calendar years, but to periods of 12 months each after the certificate was issued. 5.2.3. Reporting by CKI on the assessment The results of assessments by the CKI are reported to the asbestos inventory company in the interim. 5.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out This section indicates how the CKI is expected to complete audits. 5.3.1. Time spent on periodic assessment and recertification The indicated time commitment is a guideline; the time units include reporting. •. Annual assessment and recertification on site: 1 man day; •. assessment at project location: 0.5 man-day per assessment; maximum 2 reviews per day. 5.3.2. Combination with assessments for other certification schemes In the case of combining assessments, the CKI must be able to make plausible and demonstrable with the assessment report that the minimum requirements of SC-540 are examined during the assessment period for each location. Assessments at project locations are independent and must be carried out in accordance with the provisions of 5.2.2. 5.4. Report of findings Machine Translated by Google 5.4.1. Reporting to the certificate holder In accordance with the guidelines in the current version of ISO 19011, the CKI prepares a report of its findings during the interim audit. This report is made available to the certificate holder. He can file a complaint against this and possibly. submit a request for review of the handling of the complaint, see paragraphs 4.7 and 4.8. 5.4.2. Reporting to CKI person If, in the opinion of the CKI process, the observed deviations (see SC-540 par. 5.5.3) are attributable to employees with a DIA personal certificate, the CKI process will immediately and directly report the relevant nonconformity report to the person issuing the personal certificate. setting (see also SC-560 par. 6). 5.5. Sanctions for detected deviations If it appears that a certificate holder and the processes to be prepared and executed under his responsibility do not or no longer meet the requirements or standards in the field-specific certification scheme, the CKI must impose the sanctions prescribed in this scheme. When establishing the deviations and the application of sanctions, the CKI must apply table 5.5.3 (Appendix H). 5.5.1. General Reference is made to Appendix J for the general framework of sanctions for nonconformities found. 5.5.2. Escalation ladder 5.5.2.1. Introduction If it is established by a certification body designated by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment that a certificate-holding asbestos inventory company commits an infringement in accordance with the provisions included in table 5.5.3 (Appendix H), the certification body will issue the certificate of the certificate holder (un- ) conditionally withdrawn or suspended, or the certificate holder receives a warning. After revocation of the certificate, the former certificate holder can only submit an application for a new certificate after 12 months. For the company too, an application for a new certificate can only be submitted after 12 months. The period of 12 months starts from the day following the day on which the decision to withdraw the certificate enters into force. After the establishment of a Cat III deviation, the certificate holder must have introduced an internal corrective measure within 2 months, after which the CKI must have definitively assessed this measure within one month. Explanation: Machine Translated by Google Within the period of 3 months, the deviation can be closed, in a positive sense (Cat III removed) or negatively (increased from Cat III to Cat I). If, in a group situation with several independent companies, which are under a process certificate from the same CKI, the certificate of a company is (un)conditionally withdrawn or suspended, the CKI will immediately subject all other certified companies to a check on those subjects for which there is a deviation. which led to the sanction. 5.5.2.2. Breakdown of deviations For the substantiation of the subdivision of the sanction per deviation, reference is made to Annex K. 5.5.2.3. weighting When applying the provisions referred to above under par. 5.5.2.1 and 5.5.2.2, the following reinforcements are applied: •. If during an audit or investigation of an institution three or more misstatements, other than Category I misstatements, are found from one Category, these three or more misstatements are considered to be one misstatement from the adjacent, higher (more serious) Category. •. If a deviation from Category II, III, or IV has been identified six times within a period of one year, then the sixth deviation is considered to be a deviation from the adjacent, higher (heavier) Category. This means that for each deviation from Category II, III, or IV, it must be determined whether a deviation from the same Category has been determined five times in the year prior to this deviation. •. If at a certain moment several facts are established that different of the categories mentioned under 3, then the fact from the heaviest Category will determine the sanction to be taken by the certification body. 5.5.3. Elaboration of deviations per category including subdivision The four categories to which in the initial and/or periodic assessment of the (candidate- )certificate holder sanctions are imposed, including the subdivision in the deviations, and are included in table 5.5.3 (Appendix H). 5.5.4. Sanction procedure The decision regarding a sanction with regard to the asbestos inventory process certificate due to deviations found by the CKI is based on its own investigation or on investigation by supervisory and enforcement government institutions (Inspectorate SZW, Inspectorate Human Environment and Transport, (Environmental) Police, Municipalities). 5.5.4.1. CKI .'s own research Machine Translated by Google The CKI will have to determine whether there is a Category I, II, III or IV deviation or whether there is no deviation. To do this, it must establish facts. The frameworks for this are: •. Periodic monitoring (office and project locations) (see SC-540 Chapter 5) •. Complaints in accordance with SC-540 par. 4.7; If it is concluded with a Category I or II deviation that a certified DTA/DAV is not competent, the CKI process will draw up a deviation report with its findings and conclusion. The CKI process will send a copy of this to the relevant CKI person. 5.5.4.2. Research by government agencies If investigations by supervisory government institutions lead to an official report, report of findings or a fine report, it can be determined directly on the above-mentioned documents on the basis of Appendix H whether there is a deviation. If necessary, further investigation is carried out by the CKI. It is also possible that the CKI only receives a notification from the supervisory government institutions. In that case, the CKI (if a sufficiently clear and substantiated notification) will have to conduct its own investigation. In the case of reports by government agencies, the CKI must inform the government agency concerned what has been done with the report. 5.5.4.3. Sanction After the CKI has established, on the basis of the established facts through its own investigation or that of a supervisory government institution, that there is a Category I, II or III deviation, the following course of events is discussed. 5.5.4.4. Opinion procedure If a Category I, II, III or IV deviation has been established, the CKI will send a notification of (un)conditional withdrawal or suspension to the certificate holder. This notification states that the CKI intends to (un)conditionally revoke the certificate, suspend it or issue a warning. It motivates why, which amounts to justifying why there is a category I, II, III or IV deviation. It also gives the certificate holder the opportunity to respond to this intention within two weeks by means of a so- called opinion. After the CKI has received the opinion or the two weeks have passed without an opinion being received, the CKI will assess within one week whether it should proceed with the intention. If it is still demonstrated that there is a non-conformity, the CKI will impose the sanction. It may be that the facts have been contested to such an extent that it is no longer established that there is a category I, II, III or IV deviation or that further investigation is necessary. This further investigation must be completed within 4 weeks. The certificate holder will be informed of this in writing. Machine Translated by Google If the CKI is of the opinion that there is still a category I, II, III or IV deviation, it will (un)conditionally revoke the certificate or suspend the certificate or issue a warning. It also states why there is a Category I, II or III deviation. The CKI reports category I, II and III deviations to the Inspectorate SZW. Category II or Category III deviations always result in an additional assessment by the CKI at the office or project location. 5.6. Cost of research The costs arising from an investigation that is carried out in response to a notification or in response to the possibility of a deviation will be borne by the certificate holder. The costs of extra supervision that must be carried out because a deviation has been found, will be borne by the certificate holder. 5.7. Criteria The criteria used for initial certification and subsequent certification are listed in Part II Standards. Part II. Standards Part II of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to a process certificate for Asbestos Inventory. Described are successively: •. Administrative requirements; •. Requirements for the control and assurance of the inventory; •. Requirements for the asbestos inventory; •. Requirements for the asbestos inventory report; Additional information is provided in the text of this certification scheme for support and clarification in the form of Explanation, Remark and Appendix. These are of an informative nature. 6. Subject of certification The professional field-specific certification scheme 'SC-540' has been proposed by the CCvD Asbestos and established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment – including any adjustments – by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. Machine Translated by Google The subject of certification concerns the process of inventorying the presence of asbestos, products containing asbestos and asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction components in a structure or object prior to – the complete or partial demolition of structures and/or objects; – removing asbestos; – the removal of asbestos after an incident including the delivery of the asbestos inventory report including the risk classifications according to the requirements of the certification scheme. 7. Requirements When making an inventory of the asbestos in a structure and/or object, the health of those directly involved is not endangered if this inventory is carried out in accordance with the requirements laid down in the above-mentioned certification scheme with regard to care, work safety and the prevention of spread. from asbestos to people and the environment. The asbestos inventory report based on the above-mentioned inventory is only available for the performance of an asbestos removal work if it is complete and provided with risk classifications in accordance with the requirements laid down in the above-mentioned certification scheme with regard to content and form of the asbestos inventory report. 7.1. Administrative requirements 7.1.1. Asbestos inventory company or concern The asbestos inventory company must have recorded the complete group/holding structure, managerial relationships, ownership relationships, certificates present in the field of asbestos, both professionally and personally, the personnel implementation of the management structure, the purpose and nature of the company and its services in full, up-to-date and in writing. and signed by all directors of the company (in accordance with the Chamber of Commerce) submitted to the CKI. The CKI records this in the certificate holder's file. The asbestos removal company must be registered with the Chamber of Commerce or sister organizations within the European Union. Remark: Government bodies, such as municipalities, police and defense, may be in possession of a process certificate, but do not need to be registered with the Chamber of Commerce. The inventory bureau must be independent, ie it may not have any interest in the final result of its inventory (see also par. 7.2.). 7.1.2. Combinations/relations that are not allowed within the asbestos chain Company level a) Carrying out combinations of asbestos inventory and asbestos removal work within a company is not allowed. Machine Translated by Google b) Combined shareholding by natural or legal persons at an asbestos inventory company and an asbestos removal company are not allowed c) Combined fulfillment of a board position at a asbestos inventory company and an asbestos removal company are not allowed. d) The combination of shareholding by natural or legal persons at an asbestos inventory company with a directorship in an asbestos removal company is not allowed. e) The combination of directorship by natural or legal persons in an asbestos inventory company with shareholding in an asbestos removal company is not allowed. f) An asbestos inventory company must accept or supply the carry out assigned asbestos inventory work themselves. It may only outsource this work to another certified asbestos inventory company. A violation by the outsourced company is considered a violation by the outsourcing company. In the sanction procedure against the outsourcing company, the violation is treated as if it had been committed by the outsourcing company. Project level a) Within the same project it is not allowed that shareholders, directors or employees of the asbestos inventory company, which is responsible for preparing an appropriate asbestos inventory report, perform work on the asbestos removal b) Within the same project it is not allowed that shareholders, directors or employees who were involved in drawing up the asbestos inventory report, carry out the final check after asbestos removal. c) Within the same project, it is not permitted for shareholders, directors or employees within a group of which the asbestos inventory company, which is responsible for drawing up an applicable asbestos inventory report, is part, to carry out work on asbestos removal. d) Within the same project, it is not permitted for shareholders, directors or employees within the group of which the asbestos inventory company is part and who were involved in drawing up the asbestos inventory report, to carry out the final inspection after asbestos removal. e) It is not allowed that an asbestos inventory company and a Asbestos removal company perform work within the same project if there is a 1st or 2nd degree blood relationship or cohabitation relationship between a shareholder of the asbestos inventory company and a shareholder or director of the asbestos removal company. f) It is not allowed that an asbestos inventory company and a Asbestos removal company carry out work within the same project if there is a 1st or 2nd degree blood relationship or cohabitation relationship between a director of the asbestos inventory company and a shareholder or director of the asbestos removal company. Machine Translated by Google Explanation: Only a certified company may carry out the project and the work. If it wants to hire people for this, it can. But the certified company remains responsible. 7.1.3. Juridical status The asbestos survey company, or the organization of which it is a part, must have documented its legal status in writing. The inventory office must be registered with the Chamber of Commerce or sister organizations within the European Union. Explanation: Other statutory regulations apply to government institutions and some research organizations in which the legitimacy of these organizations/institutions is established. The inventory office must be independent, ie it may not have any interest in the final result of its inventory (see also section 7.1.2). 7.1.4. Relationships with a parent organization An inventory office that is part of a larger organization that also performs other than inventory activities must be clearly distinguishable as an independent unit within such an organization, to which the responsibilities with regard to SC-540 can be unambiguously assigned. Within the same parent organization, the asbestos inventory must be carried out under one process certificate. 7.1.5. Work area and technical ability The inventory office must have managed documentation in which the purpose, research area and technical capabilities of the company are recorded. 7.1.6. Liability insurance The company must be adequately insured for its services. 7.1.7. Delivery/contract conditions The inventory office must have available up-to-date delivery /contract conditions. 7.2. Release of Pressure Machine Translated by Google The inventory office personnel must be relieved of any commercial, financial, or other pressure that could influence their judgment. Procedures must be in place to prevent external parties from influencing the outcome of the asbestos inventory. Explanation: Preventive measures to prevent improper pressure are recorded in the quality manual of the company/institution as well as in the code of conduct for individual inventors. 7.3. confidentiality 7.3.1. Data relating to data of the client The inventory bureau must guarantee its client confidentiality of all data obtained during the inventory. In cases where the inventory bureau is obliged to do so by the government, this secrecy is not an issue. Property rights must be protected. How this is achieved must be described in the Quality Manual. 7.3.2. Data for asbestos exposure that exceeds standards If during the inventory asbestos, products containing asbestos, materials contaminated with asbestos or construction components contaminated with asbestos are found that can reasonably lead to direct exposure to asbestos fibers in the air that exceeds the standard, this will be reported immediately, confidentially, to the client with the urgent recommendation of an additional risk assessment. to be carried out in accordance with NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 2991: 2005. Explanation: a) In the code of conduct (see section 7.6.5), the inventory bureau must indicate how conflicts of interest and/or conflicts with the client are dealt with. b) Supervisory bodies (municipalities, Inspectorate SZW, Inspectorate Environment and Transport) have instruments to act in such situations. c) In the case of industrial activities, a cross-standard exposure to asbestos fibers in the air in the workspaces is the direct responsibility of the employer. 7.4. Organization and management The inventory office must provide sufficient facilities to maintain technical competence and to be able to carry out its work at the required level. Sufficient people and resources must therefore be made available for this. Safeguards and preconditions are laid down. Machine Translated by Google 7.4.1. Organization chart/functional separation The inventory office must record the structure of the organization, as well as the responsibilities of its employees. 7.4.2. Technical responsible The inventory company must appoint an employee who is ultimately responsible for carrying out the inventory work in accordance with this certification scheme, drawing up the inventory report and processing the evaluation forms received. This employee must be experienced in operational management and must also be qualified and experienced in the preparation, implementation and reporting of asbestos inventories. The following minimum requirements with regard to experience and knowledge apply: a) Be in possession of the Ascert Personal Certificate DIA SC-560;. b) direct involvement in at least 10 asbestos inventory projects per year; c) knowledge of the own quality system; d) knowledge of the SC-540 certification scheme; e) knowledge of the Working Conditions Decree and Asbestos Inventory Decree 2005. Explanation This function can be a combination function, in particular for inventory companies with a small occupation. 7.4.3. Supervision The inventory bureau must ensure effective supervision by expert employees of the inventory process, in particular the visual inspection, the inventory techniques used, the objects to be inventoried, the risk classification and the conclusions and recommendations for the asbestos inventory included in the inventory report. 7.4.4. Substitute Qualified deputy must be arranged in writing for each officer listed in this schedule. 7.4.5. Job Descriptions A job description must be available for all employees deployed for asbestos inventory, or directly related subjects. 7.5. Quality system 7.5.1. Quality policy, management statement Machine Translated by Google The management of the inventory office must endorse and record its vision and objectives with regard to quality in a quality system. It must also ensure that this policy is generally known and embedded in the policy of the organization at all levels. 7.5.2. Effectiveness The inventory bureau must have an effective quality system that is tailored to the nature of the work area, the scope of the inventory work to be performed and the asbestos inventory report, in accordance with Chapter 7.17. 7.5.3. Quality Manual (KBH) The quality system must be described in a KHB, in which all information required in accordance with this certification scheme is included. An example of subjects that are included in the KHB are: a) general information (name, address, telephone numbers, etc. and the legal status of the company or institution); b) a management statement regarding the principles, objectives and endorsement of the quality policy; a management statement regarding the appointment of a quality officer c) as referred to in section 7.5.4; d) a description of the work field and the competences of the inventory office; e) information about the location of the inspection body within the parent organization (if applicable); f) an organization chart; g) job descriptions of the positions within the inventory office relevant for asbestos inventory; h) a policy statement on staff qualifications and training; (i) documentation control procedures; j) internal audit procedures; k) procedures for feedback and corrective actions; l) procedures for carrying out a management review of the quality system; m) other procedures, work instructions or references to other procedures or work instructions required under this certification scheme; n) a distribution list of the Quality Manual. 7.5.4. quality officer The management of the organization must designate an officer who is authorized and responsible for quality assurance within the inventory office. This officer must have direct access to senior management of the organization. 7.5.5. Updating the quality system Machine Translated by Google The quality system must be kept up-to-date under the responsibility of this official. 7.5.6. Document control The inventory office must maintain a system for controlling all documentation related to its activities. This is to ensure that: a) Up-to-date versions of all quality documents are available in the appropriate places and are available to all employees involved; b) all changes or additions to documents bear the proper authorization and made available to all involved in a timely manner; c) expired documents are taken within the organization, whereby a copy (marked as expired) remains archived for a certain period of time; notify other parties of changes if necessary d) stated. 7.5.7. Internal audits The inventory bureau must have a described system of planned internal quality assessments to determine whether the requirements set in this certification scheme are met and to test the effectiveness of its own quality system. The personnel performing the assessments must be suitably qualified and have an independent position in relation to the assessed components and/ or persons. Explanation: With regard to the control and assurance of the preparation of the asbestos inventory report, peer reviews are a possibility. These could be performed as follows. A second (usually more experienced senior) inspector carries out an inventory on the same building or object without prior knowledge of the results of the first inspector. By comparing the method and results, an opinion can be formed about the inventory and the completeness with which an inventory is carried out. Particularly for small inventory firms, it is also possible to engage fellow companies for such peer reviews. 7.5.8. Internal reviewer The internal assessor must demonstrably possess: a) general knowledge of the health risks associated with asbestos, legislation and regulations, certification schemes, personal protective equipment, the asbestos inventory and asbestos removal process, etc. b) With the availability of the Ascert-Diploma Asbestosexpert ADK in accordance with SC-570: version 01, date 15-11-2011, these requirements have been met. c) knowledge of own quality system. 7.5.9. Feedback and Corrective Action Machine Translated by Google The inventory office must have a described procedure for providing feedback on the results of internal audits and taking corrective action for any possible nonconformities found in the quality system and/or the performance of the inspections. In particular, the inventory office must have a cleared procedure for handling the evaluation form. Explanation: If the asbestos removal company (beyond the list provided in the asbestos inventory report) finds unforeseen asbestos, products containing asbestos, etc., this is reported to the inventory agency using the evaluation form (see SC-540 par. 7.17.4). 7.5.10. Quality system assessment by management The management of the inventory bureau must assess the effectiveness of the quality system at least once a year. The results of the management review must be recorded and documented. 7.6. Staff 7.6.1. Availability and temporary staff The inventory bureau must have sufficient permanent staff to cover all areas of expertise necessary for normal business operations with regard to the asbestos inventory. Temporary personnel must meet all the requirements described in this chapter. The inventory office will carry out the inventories assigned to it itself. Explanation: The inventory report remains the responsibility of the asbestos inventory company. 7.6.2. Personnel qualifications The personnel who carry out the inventories must be in possession of a valid Ascert Personal Certificate of Expert Inventory Asbestos (DIA) in accordance with SC-560. 7.6.3. Education The inventory bureau must have a described training plan. This is to ensure that the professional competence of its personnel in both the technical and administrative aspects of the work to be performed is up-to-date and Machine Translated by Google is held. This plan must be related to the objectives of the inventory office. The required training will depend on the capabilities, previous education and experience of the individuals involved. 7.6.4. Personnel files The inventory bureau must keep an appropriate detailed record of the personnel, of the training followed and still to be followed and work experience data. 7.6.5. Code of Conduct The inventory bureau must have behavioral guidelines and periodically assess the personnel on their knowledge and application. Integrity, independence and professional attitude should be the most important considerations. This code of conduct should at least address the following aspects: a) inventor is familiar with and endorses all aspects of SC-540; b) work attitude when dealing with customers and their staff; c) how to deal with conflicts that make it difficult to carry out an inventory correctly; d) how to act when trying to influence the result; e) how to act in situations where there is a direct risk of exposure to asbestos for residents/users; f) how the situations identified by the employee(s) are made known to those responsible within the company for registration and handling; g) the immediate notification, in case of reasonable suspicion, of the immediate risk of exposure to the competent authority (see also section 7.16.3); h) how the situations identified by the employee for registration and settlement are made known to those responsible within the company; i) what to do if the client does not follow an urgent advice for a risk assessment in accordance with NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 2991: 2005 (see section 7.16.3). 7.6.6. Fees The remuneration of inventory personnel may not depend on the number of inventories to be carried out and may never depend on the result of a inventory. Explanation: The aim of this measure is to limit the unwanted 'buying' of incorrect inventory reports as much as possible. 7.6.7. Medical examination/exposure registration The workers who risk exposure to asbestos should be given the opportunity to undergo occupational health examinations: Machine Translated by Google •. upon commencement of employment; •. as long as exposure continues at least once every three years. The employer or employee must request this themselves. The individual occupational health data of the employees must be stored in personal files. The records must be kept for at least 40 years after the end of exposure. The employer is obliged to offer the above-mentioned occupational health examinations to the employees. However, employees have the right to refuse to undergo an occupational health examination. This must be apparent from a personal written statement. Written proof of medical fitness (or waiver) must be demonstrable at the project site. 7.7. Facilities and equipment 7.7.1. Availability The inventory office must have appropriate facilities and equipment for all inventory work to be carried out. The facilities and equipment required for asbestos inventories are stated in section 7.14.4. Explanation: This obligation fits in with the general legal obligation of the employer with regard to information, instruction, risk inventory and evaluation, etc. (see Working Conditions Act art 3). 7.7.2. Access and authorization to use The inventory office must have clear rules for access and use of said facilities and equipment. 7.7.3. Suitability for use The inventory office must ensure that the equipment listed in SC-540 section 7.14.4 is always in good condition and ready for use. 7.7.4. Identification All quality-defining equipment and equipment must be marked. 7.7.5. Maintenance The inventory office must ensure that all equipment is properly maintained in accordance with the procedures and work instructions drawn up for that purpose. Machine Translated by Google Explanation: See the normative interpretation of outsourcing of maintenance in section 7.12. 7.7.6. Calibration The inventory office ensures that all equipment to be used, where applicable, is traceably calibrated prior to use in accordance with a calibration schedule drawn up in advance. 7.7.7. Interim checks In addition to the regular calibration program, equipment should also be checked prior to use when relevant. 7.7.8. Purchasing and outsourcing Where relevant to the services to be provided, the inventory office shall have procedures in place for: a) choosing qualified suppliers or companies from which personnel are hired; b) the issuance of appropriate purchasing documents; c) a purchase check of the delivered products or services; d) the correct storage of the delivered products. Explanation: An asbestos vacuum cleaner and personal protective equipment are available as quality-determining equipment for an inventory. These are carefully maintained, checked and inspected annually. Suppliers who supply such equipment are quality tested in advance. The article also applies to the purchase of services, such as laboratory research, service services, etc. Temporary personnel are preferably obtained from certified colleague companies and must meet all requirements as stated in this certification scheme par 7.12. Laboratory services and calibrations are exclusively outsourced to institutions that are accredited for the relevant operation(s). If available, maintenance of quality-determining equipment will be outsourced to a supplier or maintenance service certified for this purpose. Criteria for the temporary hiring of staff are described in section 7.12. 7.7.9. Automated equipment and computers When the institution uses computers and/or automated equipment when carrying out inspections, it must be ensured that: the computer software has been tested for fitness for purpose; procedures have been developed and established to ensure the integrity of the a) b) protect data; Machine Translated by Google the computers and/or automated equipment is adequately maintained c); d) procedures have been developed and established to securely store the recorded data. Explanation: In inventory, computers are important for the systematic recording of: •. (construction) drawings and plans; •. photos; •. descriptions of the observations during the inventory; •. other matters (analysis results, etc.). 7.7.10. Malfunctioning equipment The inventory office must have a described procedure for handling defective equipment. Defective equipment must be taken out of service by separation and/or clear labelling. The institution must verify whether working with defective equipment has influenced the inventories carried out. 7.7.11. Equipment data registration Relevant data of equipment used (such as identification, calibration and maintenance) must be recorded. 7.8. Inventory methods and procedures A complete asbestos inventory in accordance with SC-540 can be carried out in phases in accordance with par. 7.14. The end product is an inventory report in accordance with section 7.17. The asbestos inventory report and other documents relating to the asbestos inventory work must be provided with a project identification code. With the Ascert code of the certified, executing asbestos inventory company, the project identifier code uniquely identifies the asbestos inventory work and the asbestos inventory report based on it. The limitations of an asbestos inventory report must be explicitly included in the report, supported by arguments. 7.8.1. Notification of asbestos inventory work The company must report the period of the asbestos inventory work to the CKI before the start of the implementation (see Appendix A). 7.8.2. Inventory Methods Machine Translated by Google An inventory bureau must apply its methods and procedures in accordance with par. 7.14.5. 7.8.3. Execution Methods The inventory office must have a working procedure for each inventory project that leads to an appropriate inventory plan including a checklist (see par. 7.14). When applicable, this requires a sufficient knowledge of techniques to achieve representative sampling and to properly process and interpret measurement data. Explanation: This point therefore includes the technical description of the actual inventory process, the techniques used, etc. 7.8.4. Non-standard methods If the inventory agency is forced to deviate from this certification scheme, the alternative method must be suitable for the purpose and fully described. Explanation: In principle, SC-540 is always followed. In exceptional situations it may be necessary to deviate from this. In that case, this deviation must be fully motivated and described. 7.8.5. Documentation management All work instructions, standards or described procedures, registration forms, checklists and reference data relevant to the work of the inventory office must be kept up-to-date and readily accessible to staff. 7.8.6. Assessment of the contracts The inventory office must have a system for assessing contracts or assignments and guarantees that: a) The assigned work falls within the area of expertise and that the requirements can be met; b) the customer's requirements are well described and that deviating circumstances and exceptions are described in such a way that they are also readily apparent to the personnel carrying out the inventory; c) the quality of the assigned inventory is checked in accordance with the quality system; Machine Translated by Google d) completed investigation is subjected to a final inspection to determine that the investigation has been carried out in accordance with the requirements. Explanation: The wording of the order by the customer (b) or the wording of the offer by the company and the customer's agreement thereto cannot conflict with SC-540. Think of access to spaces, imposed restrictions with regard to destructive testing, cheaper variants, etc. 7.8.7. Registration of the inventory data Observations and other data obtained from the inventory must be stored in an appropriate manner to prevent the loss of important data. For specific requirements for recording and reporting, see section 7.17. Registration, archiving and processing of returned evaluation forms must be done carefully. 7.8.8. Data transfer and calculations All calculations and points where data transfer takes place must be properly checked. 7.8.9. Safety The inventory office must have described safety instructions for carrying out inventories, while also meeting the requirements in legislation and regulations. 7.9. Handling of inventory objects and material samples 7.9.1. Identification The inventory office ensures a unique coding of objects to be inventoried and samples taken, so that no misunderstandings can arise. Explanation: The unique coding applies to the buildings, constructions and objects and all subdivisions into floors, building or construction parts and materials. Recording on (digital) photos can be a useful tool in this regard. It is important that this requirement is also clearly communicated to, for example, laboratories that take samples of materials suspected of asbestos on behalf of the inventory bureau and that often use their own system. Avoid conflicts between the two systems that affect sample traceability. Machine Translated by Google 7.9.2. Deviations Any obvious discrepancy or irregularity brought to the attention of the inventor or noted by the inventor himself must be recorded prior to or during the inventory. If there is any doubt about the suitability of the object for inspection, or if the object does not meet the pre-specified characteristics, the customer is first contacted before proceeding with an inventory. Explanation: This applies, for example, to the inventory of areas that are on the drawing, but which appear not to be accessible for inventory on location and/or if there are circumstances that prevent the inventor from doing his work undisturbed. 7.9.3. Preparation The inventory office must determine whether all necessary preparations have been made to the object to be inventoried. Explanation: In the context of an asbestos inventory, the historical research, the collection of construction drawings and plans and other preparatory work are regarded as 'preparation'. 7.9.4. Leave the objects to be inventoried intact The inventory office must have a procedure in place and take measures to prevent the inspection object from being affected or damaged during the inventory. 7.10. Data management 7.10.1. Registration System The inventory office must record all observation results relevant to the purpose, in accordance with applicable rules and regulations. 7.10.2. Registrations 7.10.2.1. Exposure data The employer must record the exposure data of exposed workers by stating the nature, extent and duration of the exposure. This information must be communicated to the employee. The data must be brought to the notice of the works council or at the office in a form that cannot be traced back to individuals Machine Translated by Google the lack thereof to the employees concerned. The registry must be kept for at least 40 years after the last exposure. 7.10.2.2. Inventory data The data, recorded in the context of the inventories carried out, must contain sufficient information to be able to derive unambiguous inventory results. 7.10.3. Archiving All inventory reports must be kept in a safe place for at least 10 years with due observance of the confidentiality agreed with the customer, unless otherwise required by law. If the company is terminated, the data must be stored in an appropriate manner with effective retrievability. Explanation: In accordance with the law, information with important health aspects must be kept for at least 40 years. 7.11. Inventory Reports 7.11.1. Inventory Report The work carried out by the inventory bureau must be recorded in an inventory report, which is then sent to the client. The nature of the inventory, distinguished according to the Type-A or Type-B report, must be explicitly included in the report. The asbestos inventory report must include the explanatory document: Obligations of the Client (SC-540 Appendix G). 7.11.2. Content The inventory report must contain all the results of the inventory study and the conclusions (if any) derived from these results, including all data necessary for a correct understanding or interpretation. All this information must be reported unambiguously, correctly and accurately in accordance with the format drawn up in section 7.17. Any data supplied by subcontractors must be clearly marked as such in the report. 7.11.3. Approval Inventory reports must be signed or otherwise approved by an authorized person. The direct at the inventory Machine Translated by Google involved employees must be involved in the release check of the inventory report. Explanation: In most cases this will be the technical responsible (see par. 7.4.2). The signatory must therefore be able to assess the result professionally. 7.11.4. Improvements and additions Corrections or additions to a report must be recorded and substantiated with due observance of the requirements described in this chapter. 7.12. Outsourcing 7.12.1. Outsourcing of other services See paragraph 7.17. 7.12.2. Supplier Evaluation The inventory bureau must keep all data concerning competence, certification/accreditation, etc. of its suppliers in a register. 7.12.3. Assessment of the results When an inventory company outsources certain specialist tasks, it must have access to a competent and experienced person who can provide an independent assessment of the results obtained by this supplier. The final responsibility for the inventory report to be issued rests with the inventory office. 7.13. Collaboration An inventory bureau is expected to demonstrably actively participate in the exchange of experiences with fellow companies and to contribute to the process of improvement and standardization. 7.14. Requirements for asbestos inventory 7.14.1. Goal The purpose of an asbestos inventory is to fully map, identify and quantify all asbestos, asbestos-containing products, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction components (asbestos, asbestos-containing products, etc.) that are present in a building, object or place where an incident has occurred. occurred and asbestos was released. Inventory of asbestos, products containing asbestos, etc. in a Machine Translated by Google construction or object precedes its complete or partial demolition, the removal of asbestos, or the removal of asbestos after an incident. Also, based on the nature of the asbestos and/or the asbestos-containing products found, the way in which they are fixed in the construction and the environmental conditions, a classification is made in one of the three risk classes for removal, as described in SC 540 part I. section 3.3. 7.14.2. Up-to-dateness of the asbestos inventory report If the inventory report is older than three years during the preparation of the actual removal, then the inventory report must be checked for topicality. Changes to the structure or object must then be assessed for consequences for the presence of asbestos, products containing asbestos, etc. These must be registered and added to the inventory report before removal can take place. In case there are no changes, or changes without consequences, this must also be registered and added to the inventory report before removal can take place. Explanation: This period of three years has been introduced to indicate to the client that changes in the nature of the building due to renovations, etc. can have consequences for the presence of asbestos, products containing asbestos, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos- contaminated construction parts in buildings and objects. It is stated in SC-530 par 7.14.1 that the contract recruiting asbestos removal company must point out to the client that the asbestos inventory report is up-to-date. 7.14.3. Exceptions After an incident, such as fire or explosion, the inventory of the remaining structure or object can be carried out in accordance with this certification scheme. See also SC-540 Appendix H. However, if there is a spread of asbestos to paved or unpaved soil (top layer) in the event of fire and/or explosion, mapping the spread in the soil does not fall within the scope of the SC-540. Details about this are described in [lit.10]. When making an inventory of such a site, informative use is made of the measurement strategy and research method as described in the NEN 5707 standard. 7.14.4. Equipment and materials Inventory Type A In accordance with the Working Conditions Act [lit.1.], the employer is obliged to ensure safe working conditions for its employees. Machine Translated by Google Depending on the circumstances, the materials and aids listed below are required for a thorough and effective asbestos inventory. Certain attachments require periodic maintenance and/or calibration. • Project folder with • Tool set, work plan, consisting of: – workingNeedle-nose drawings,pliers etc. • – Full face mask/P3 combination pliers – filter with blower unit water pump pliers – (for research in Stanley knife – containment) • screwdrivers Half face –mask destructive (for (cross, flat) examination crowbar / crowbar sampling) – and • (claw) hammer – chisels Safety glasses • (stone, wood) – hollow Safety shoes / drill/cork drill – safety boots • cordless drill – Safety helmet • endoscope • Spray glue tape • Oxygen • researchmeter in Sample (with Duct bags • Latex crawl spaces) • and work gloves • Vacuum cleaner with Tape measure; other absolute filter • methods of Barrier distance tape/asbestos measurement tape • are first aid kit • allowed • Disposable mirror • Earplugs overalls••Camera Corner • Adhesive cloths (for Flashlight • Ladder / cleaning tools) stairs (maximum • Stickers with headroom • Waste 2.5 m due bag toOccupational asbestos logo health and safety regulations with asbestos stops 'working at height') for contaminated equipment, etc. The choice of tools and equipment depends on the objects to be examined. In special cases and/or to perform destructive testing, other tools and/or equipment may be required. A list of equipment and materials to be used must be included in the inventory plan. Inventory Type-B In the case of a type B inventory, the structure/object, whether or not in collaboration with a certified asbestos removal company (see par. 3.4.2), is selectively demolished / destructively examined in such a way that the presence of residual asbestos-containing Machine Translated by Google materials must be identifiable. The demolition/examination method and equipment must be such that no asbestos exposure occurs. Suitability and proper use of respiratory protection The DIA that carries out asbestos inventory work has and uses suitable personal respiratory protection equipment of the correct type and size. The suitability of the respiratory protective equipment of the DIA is assessed at least annually by means of a fit test according to the Operational Circular 282/28 - Fit Testing Of Respiratory Protective Equipment Facepieces (hereinafter HSE protocol). In the workplace it is demonstrated by means of the fit test certificate that the respiratory protection equipment of the DIA is suitable. The results of the fit test are also stored in the personnel file. The requirement of the fit test for the DIA only applies to the full face mask. The DIA that carries out asbestos inventory work has been demonstrably instructed in the correct use of respiratory protective equipment by means of participation in the online instruction program at www.vezelveiligheid.nl/ adembescherming. Employees who have a DIA personal certificate for the first time have followed part 1 of the instruction program at the start of the work. Part 2 of the instruction program is followed after 8 weeks, but no later than 12 weeks after the start of the work. The certificate of participation in the instructional program is available at the workplace and is kept in the personnel file. New employees, insofar as they have not yet followed the instruction program, have in any case followed part 1 of the instruction program at the start of the work. In that case, part 2 of the instruction program is followed after 8 weeks, but no later than 12 weeks after the start of the work. In this context, a new employee is understood to mean a person who has not performed any work for the certificate holder since 1 July 2014. Hired persons are equated with employees. 7.14.5. Inventory of asbestos, products containing asbestos, etc. 7.14.5.1. Introduction Asbestos inventory usually takes place in phases, because due to use or other causes, a comprehensive investigation of the structure or object cannot take place in one go. Ultimately, all asbestos, products containing asbestos, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos- contaminated construction components in a structure or object must be fully mapped, identified and quantified. Remark: A researcher has a best efforts obligation, depending on the extent to which a building is in use and the freedom that a client can have with a Type-A inventory. Machine Translated by Google offer. Suspended ceilings, panelling, cavity walls, coves, etc. can in many cases be opened without problems with clients or risk of emissions, this also applies to fixed floor coverings. In accordance with the characterization in SC-540 par. 3.4. the following distinction has been made. 7.14.6. Type A: Directly observable asbestos, products containing asbestos, etc. The main activity or subject of this certification scheme is the systematic and complete inventory of all directly observable asbestos, asbestos-containing products, asbestos- contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction components in a structure or object using hand tools (without or with slightly destructive testing). In addition, unobstructed and appropriate access to the areas is a precondition for being able to carry out the inventory. This inventory leads to a Type-A asbestos inventory report (see par. 7.17.2.). If this inventory leads to 'reasonable suspicion' of the non-immediately observable presence of asbestos, products containing asbestos, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos- contaminated construction components in a structure or object, then an additional inventory (Type-B) must be carried out. Explanation: On the basis of his expertise in recognizing and naming asbestos applications, the inventor comes to the assumption that materials containing asbestos may be present, which are only accessible with destructive testing. This finding is referred to as 'reasonable suspicion'. The finding of 'reasonable suspicion' should be stated in the summary of the report (see also section 7.17.2.2). In that case, the summary of the report must also include the following sentence about the licensing authority's working method: 'The permit issuer obliges in the environmental permit to provide the additional inventory (Type B)'. The type-A asbestos inventory report can serve as the basis for the application for an environmental permit. 7.14.6.1. Type G; inventory focused on the use of the building Owners or managers of buildings can voluntarily order an asbestos inventory of a building or object, aimed at controlling asbestos in the building. The purpose of such an inventory is to establish the integrity of use of the entire building and is referred to as Type-G asbestos inventory. A Type-G asbestos inventory is an extension of a complete Type-A asbestos inventory. The complete inventory of all directly observable asbestos, etc. in a structure or object means that all areas are examined. Explanation: Machine Translated by Google The floor, walls and ceiling of each room must be examined. If there is a crawl space and it is accessible for the researcher, it must be examined. In addition, the outer walls, the roof and chimneys as well as the building installations must be examined. In addition to mapping the applications containing asbestos, a Type G asbestos inventory includes a risk assessment with regard to the use situation and the drawing up of an asbestos management plan. The risk assessment and the asbestos management plan must comply with NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 2991: 2005. The asbestos management plan must also describe applications containing asbestos of which there is a 'reasonable suspicion', but which cannot be determined without a destructive investigation. The asbestos management plan must be periodically assessed for topicality. The frequency thereof must be described in the asbestos management plan, whereby the requirements as stated in Annex D of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 2991: 2005 are met. The standard reference BRL 5052 in the 2005 version must be read as SC-540 and BRL 5050 as SC-530. Explanation: By including applications containing asbestos in the management plan of which there is a 'reasonable suspicion', the risks of these possible applications have been managed to a certain extent (the condition is unknown). This prevents the need for (slightly) destructive testing, which is often undesirable in usage situations. A full risk assessment of these applications in accordance with NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 2991: 2005 is not possible. If the risk assessment shows that there is exposure to asbestos fibres, this must be reported immediately to the client and the area where the contamination occurs must be closed and prohibited for use. The asbestos- containing material or asbestos dust, which causes the contamination, must be removed and the area cleaned of asbestos fibres. 7.14.7. Type B: Non-directly detectable asbestos, products containing asbestos, etc. The reasonable suspicion of the non-immediately observable presence of asbestos, products containing asbestos, etc. in a structure or object, stated in the Type-A asbestos inventory report, leads to an additional inventory. In that case, non-directly observable asbestos, asbestos-containing products, etc. are detected by means of a destructive investigation prior to the structural demolition, whether or not in collaboration with the certified asbestos removal company (in accordance with SC-530) (see 3.4.3), whereby the structural engineer integrity of a building or construction is affected (example: asbestos cement pipework poured into the foundation). The destructive testing must be carried out under the SC-530 regime. The result leads to a Type-B asbestos inventory report as a supplement to the Type-A asbestos inventory report. This is determined by the asbestos inventory company Machine Translated by Google made available to the licensing authority (municipality) via the client or the holder of the environmental permit. 7.14.8. Type 0: Limited inventory prior to a risk assessment Outside the scope of SC-540, prior to carrying out risk assessments, in accordance with NEN 2991, in buildings, constructions or objects in inhabited/used condition that will not be demolished, it is sufficient to make a limited inventory, based solely on visual examination, of asbestos-containing materials. This inventory must be reported. Explanation: The performance of a risk assessment in accordance with NEN 2991, except for the provisions of 7.14.6.1, falls outside the scope of this SC-540. The result of a type 0 inventory can then serve as a starting point. Of course, a Type-O inventory is only carried out if no Type-A inventory is available for the relevant building, construction or object, while there are reasons to perform a NEN 2991 risk assessment in the short term. 7.14.9. Determining the classification in a risk class for the purpose of asbestos inventory The inventory of asbestos, asbestos-containing products, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos- contaminated construction parts in a structure or object is aimed at determining the exposure risks when removing them. The determining factors in this regard are, among other things, the nature of the asbestos, asbestos-containing product, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction component, the way in which it is applied and thus the method of removal and the protective measures. The determination of the risk class must be demonstrably documented based on the results of the inventory. The classification into risk classes is based on the Working Conditions Decree. In order to be able to make a correct classification, not only information is required about the asbestos-containing material (nature, composition, asbestos content, degree of weathering/ affection, method of attachment, etc.). The inventor should also be aware of the disposal techniques and methods available. After all, the combination of material properties and the techniques used during disassembly or demolition ultimately determine the concentration level of asbestos in the air during the asbestos inventory. Comments 1) The classification of the risk classes must take place in accordance with the applicable legislation and regulations on the basis of the parameters mentioned. See section 3.3.1. 2) The Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment has introduced an automated data file that can be used to determine the risk class classification. This involves an unambiguous and uniform determination of the risk classes and the transfer of data Machine Translated by Google with regard to the associated removal conditions and protection measures to an asbestos removal company. This data file is available under the name SMA-rt (see par. 3.4.6 and 3) 3.4.7). 4) The Inspectorate SZW uses SMA . in its supervision and enforcement activities rt. 7.14.10. Quantify and register For sheet materials and corrugated sheet, the amount must be stated in m2. If desired, you can convert to mass units (kg, tons). Bulk applications, such as sprayed asbestos, pipe insulation, etc. should always be converted to volume and/or mass units. In addition, the dimensions of all building or construction parts containing asbestos must be carefully indicated and registered on a floor plan. 7.14.11. Sampling and analysis The inventor must take at least one representative sample of each type of material classified as suspected of asbestos per research project. Even if the material is visually recognized as containing asbestos. The sampling must comply with the relevant requirements from NEN 5896: 2003. For materials in which the asbestos is inhomogeneously present, such as vinyl floor covering types, Internit plate, glazing sealant, etc., multiple samples should be taken at selectively different application locations. See also section 7.16.3.2: Requirements for sampling. The samples taken must be analyzed by a laboratory accredited for this operation by the RvA that works in accordance with NEN 5896: 2003 (see www.rva.nl). 7.15. Size of the project It is important that the scope of the project is clearly defined. In principle, an inventory applies to the entire building/object to be examined, unless an order has only been given to inventory a part of the building and/or object, for example a specific wing or floor. The inventory bureau determines whether such a division is not in conflict with the principles of this certification scheme. 7.15.1. Structural unit to be considered independently It is permitted to make an inventory of a structural unit to be regarded as independent. When dividing, it is important that the units are of such a size that all sources containing asbestos within the architectural or installation-technical unit are included. Inventorying very large architectural units in one go can lead to objections and have disadvantages. The solution then almost always lies in later bundling the partial inventories into a well-organized whole. Machine Translated by Google The asbestos inventory of the independent architectural unit must be fully mapped out, identified and qualified. In order to determine whether a partial inventory can be made, one should not only look at the extent to which the space is architecturally independent. It should also be checked whether the asbestos source in question is limited to that space. Examples: •. A room with asbestos-containing vinyl tiles is an independent architectural engineer unit in which the partial inventory can be limited to that room. An escalator containing asbestos runs through an open connection on three floors. All floors then belong to the unit to be examined. •. An air treatment system with asbestos-containing air ducts serves six floors, so that all of these floors fall within the unit under investigation. 7.15.2. Inventory of separate sources or construction parts Inventorying separate sources or construction parts is not acceptable. Dividing into units that are too small almost always encounters objections. It is, for example, not permitted to only inventory a facade construction, window sills or technical rooms, without paying attention to the other sources within the architectural unit. Example: In a large hall with a steel construction to which sprayed asbestos has been applied, there are shops that are let separately. If only some of the tenants order an inventory of the shop they lease, this leads to an incomplete inventory, which also forms an unreliable basis for a environmental permit or any subsequent risk assessment in accordance with NEN 2991. In such cases, the owner of the structure will therefore have to act as (main) client. 7.16. The asbestos inventory plan If an inventory office does not examine a complete building structure, object or construction, the chosen layout of the building section to be examined must be recorded with reasons in the asbestos inventory plan to be drawn up and the asbestos inventory report. 7.16.1. Information from the client for historical research The asbestos inventory company must request the client to provide the relevant documents and archives in which the application of asbestos and products containing asbestos is described. Explanation: Machine Translated by Google This may include construction drawings, archives of conversions or renovations, description of calamities or incidents, previously performed (partial) remediation, etc. In addition, the client must be requested to offer the opportunity to have (former) employees interviewed insofar as this is relevant to the investigation. 7.16.2. The systematic detection of asbestos, products containing asbestos, etc. The company must work with a checklist tailored to the structure or object to be inventoried. Desk research must have been carried out in advance, using specifications, drawings, building applications or comparable information. Results of desk research must be present at the research location during the research. When making an inventory, all spaces and construction parts, including, for example, ducts and ducts, chimneys, crawl spaces, spaces above the ceiling, etc. must be examined. In the structure and/or object, the materials to be examined must be divided into main groups. Explanation: Examples of a division into main groups are given below: Installations: • The checklist must show that it is examined how the installations are constructed: – Heating/climate installations; – ventilation (visualize the structure/construction of the ventilation ducts); – steam pipes and other pipes and conduits; – water; - sewerage; - electrical systems; – vertical transport (elevators, escalators, etc.); – (flue) gas ducts; – equipment drains (eg fume hoods). Equipment and • fume hoods; • Machine Translated by Google design: blackboards; • emergency power generators. fireproof • fire compartments: • constructions: vertical • horizontal • fire resistant constructions to adjacent buildings; • fire-resistant cladding supporting structures. Finishing and • stucco; • decorations: floor covering incl. glue layer;stone natural • substitutes; • all imitation stone-like materials; • partition walls, etc.; • joint sealant, sealing expansion joints. Façade constructions and • corrugated sheets; • water-resistantcladding; roof covering; • constructions: horizontal • vertical • water retaining and water vapor permeable layers in outer walls and roofs; • natural stone substitutes such as water sills and wall coverings, etc. • lost formwork in Asbestos containing asbestos used concrete structures; • during construction shims. auxiliary structures: Asbestos • asbestos dust derived contamination: from old remediation or erosion (cable ducts, suspended ceilings, etc.) on material or construction components; • asbestos dust originating from adjacent building parts or emission sources (via tyres, footwear or calamity) on Machine Translated by Google material or construction components. 7.16.3. Safety aspects 7.16.3.1. Introduction The inventor has the required PPE for the inventories. 7.16.3.2. Requirements for sampling and analysis To avoid exposure or contamination of the environment, the following precautions should be taken when sampling: •. wear protective clothing and the prescribed respiratory protection. Bee sampling materials in the manner described can suffice with a P3 half-mask mask and the regime of risk class 1 applies; •. shield the sampling site from the environment; •. use point extraction (asbestos vacuum cleaner) when the expected fiber emission during sampling cannot be prevented in any other way; •. impregnate the resulting fracture surfaces; •. the places where samples were taken must be traceable; •. clean the area carefully afterwards, pack any suspected material as containing asbestos; •. pack the samples in such a way that no asbestos dust can be released in case of careless handling during shipment or transport; •. not taking samples and thereby creating exclusions like as a result of the estimate that an unacceptable fiber emission will occur when sampling is not allowed; •. the inventor must be sure that there is sufficient sample material is taken; •. he must also critically assess the analysis result and substantiated description of the representativeness of the sampling. If there are doubts about the outcome of the analysis, a new sample should be taken, or a counter-analysis should be performed. 7.16.3.3. Inventory of risky materials When making an inventory of non-bonded asbestos or materials containing asbestos, there is a real risk of exposure. This applies in particular to situations where the balance is disturbed, for example opening ceilings, entering crawl spaces or technical rooms. In that case, adequate protective measures must be taken and the contamination of adjacent building parts must be prevented. In the case of (suspected) heavily contaminated areas with non-bonded asbestos-containing materials, the inventory must be carried out in containment. Machine Translated by Google 7.16.3.4. Serious contaminations that pose a direct exposure risk If a serious contamination with non-bonded asbestos-containing materials is found during the inventory, which poses a direct risk to residents / users of a building or construction, the client must be informed about this immediately. This leads to an incomplete report and to the urgent advice to immediately take organizational (precautionary) measures and to have a risk assessment carried out in accordance with NEN 2991. If a client refuses to take measures to protect residents/users against exposure to asbestos, other steps can be taken with the utmost consequence. 7.17. Report 7.17.1. Introduction The main activity of the asbestos inventory company is the inventory of asbestos- containing materials and/or secondary sources in a building, construction or object. With the help of the information obtained, the asbestos-containing materials can be removed. The asbestos inventory report is therefore of great importance for the careful and hygienically responsible removal of asbestos. This section indicates how the results of the asbestos inventory should be reported. The same model should be used for less extensive asbestos inventories. par. 7.17.4 provides an evaluation form that must always be included in the inventory report. In addition to a written version, it is customary to also offer the client a digital version of the report. The digital copy is secured, so that no changes can be made to it (usually a PDF file). If desired, tables, drawings and other appendices can be supplied in the original format (eg Word or Excel), so that a client can use them as the basis for an asbestos management plan. It must, however, be clearly stated to the client that all changes and/or additions made by him no longer fall under the responsibility of the inventory office, unless these data have been validated by the inventory office. This also applies to data exchange systems operating via the Internet. All digital systems must be adequately secured. 7.17.2. Inventory Report Type-A, Type-B or Type-G This includes the inventory of directly observable asbestos, products containing asbestos, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction parts in a structure or object. Hand tools can be used for the inventory (without or with slightly destructive testing). Machine Translated by Google The Asbestos Inventory Type-G report must be submitted in addition to what is indicated at Asbestos inventory Type-A, containing the following items: •. Risk assessment results *Reporting must comply with chapters 4 and 5 of NEN 2991: 2005 •. Asbestos management plan *Reporting must comply with Annex D of NEN 2991: 2005 If relevant to the structure or object, a summary is also provided of the presumably not directly observable presence of asbestos, products containing asbestos, asbestos-contaminated material or construction parts contaminated with asbestos in the structure or object, on which an additional inventory (Type B) will be carried out in the second instance. must become. This finding should be stated in the summary of the report. The Type-A inventory report can serve as a basis for the application for an environmental permit. This report must contain at least the following elements: 7.17.2.1. title page On which is stated: •. Name of the owner / client and the party (asbestos removal company, manager, project supervisor, etc.) acting on behalf of the client; •. Name of the executive inventory bureau with the certificate number; •. Name of the executive employees with identification code (Ascert code SLIDE) •. Unique project identification code; •. Description of the examined architectural unit, construction or object; Explanation: When there is a limited target space etc. ..... eg ..... •. Clearly and unequivocally indicate for which purpose the report is suitable: – To delete only in this report under type A inventoried asbestos-containing materials; – For the subsequent execution of a Type B investigation in the verification of the list of reasonably suspected asbestos present in the preceding Type A investigation; – To determine the integrity of use of the entire building with an asbestos inventory report Type-G; – For the renovation of a part specified in the introduction of the investigated structure; – For the renovation of the entire building. – For the demolition of the entire building •. Date of internal authorization. It is mandatory to include the classification below in addition to the title page. Scope of research Machine Translated by Google . Entire building or object . Portion of building or object . Representative sample (e.g. for condominiums, 10% for permit) . Supplement to representative sample . Unforeseen presence of asbestos Type of research . Asbestos inventory Type-A ÿ Complete ÿ Incomplete (NEN 2991:2005) serious exposure risk . Asbestos inventory Type-B . Asbestos inventory Type-G Risk assessment . Risk assessment for demolition and renovation (SMA-rt) . Risk assessment in use phase (NEN 2991: 2005) 7.17.2.2. Summary All relevant results of the research are briefly summarized here. The following must also be stated here: •. A numerical overview of the number of sources with risk class 1, 2 and/or 2A and any number of sources with substantiated deviations; •. whether there is reasonable suspicion of the presence of construction of concealed materials containing asbestos with reference to the relevant overview in the report; •. whether it is a 'complete' Type-A study, or an 'incomplete' Type A research. In the case of an incomplete Type-A study, the limitations and exclusions explicitly associated with this inventory must be indicated. See also section 7.14.6. 7.17.2.3. Description of the assignment •. A summary of the information and/or documents made available by the client; Explanation: If several inventory offices have successively issued a report for the relevant structure/object, these must be stated here, stating the originator (name and Ascert code), identification code and publication date. •. A description of the assigned work; •. An unambiguous and complete identification of the investigated building and construction parts, provided with place, address and date; •. The person or persons who carried out the inventory incl. the DIA's Ascert code; •. The type of inventory; •. Date of internal authorization. 7.17.2.4. Methods Machine Translated by Google A description of the research methods used. 7.17.2.5. Results •. Results of the preliminary research (historical research, desk research); •. A qualitative overview of all asbestos-containing materials found (type of product, type(s) of asbestos and content, application); •. An overview of the samples taken; •. An overview of the analysis results as supplied by the accredited laboratory; •. A complete quantitative overview of all asbestos-containing materials found, exact locations, the accessibility of those places, the method of attachment of asbestos-containing material, etc; these data serve as input for classification in one of the three risk classes; •. Places that have not been inventoried, but are included in the unambiguous and complete identification of the examined building and construction parts. 7.17.2.6. Classification into risk classes upon disposal •. For each type/application containing asbestos, indicate how it should be dismantled or demolished; •. Specify for the chosen removal method(s) per type/application material a substantiated summary of the removal conditions found with the associated risk class classification. •. The source-related output of the SMA-rt risk class determination should be additionally contain the following information: At the top of the document At the bottom of the document • Ascert code and name • Unique code of the from the document • Mention inventory office. • that the document Unique unbreakable project identification isand partsupplemented of the code (IDwith project) the asbestos inventory-ra identification of the pport (ID project); • asbestos source.time • The of date deviations Arguments (par. 3.4.7). for the to generate 7.17.2.7. Conclusions and recommendations •. A point-by-point summary of all conclusions and recommendations; •. Substantiation of the reasonable suspicion of the presence of materials containing asbestos hidden in the construction, stating the time of the Type-B examination (before or during the demolition); Machine Translated by Google •. Insofar as relevant: Recommendations for possible follow-up research in accordance with NEN 2991: 2005 (Risk assessment in non-demolition situations). 7.17.2.8. Appendices to the inventory report a) Construction drawings, plans and/or sketches in which the asbestos-containing materials are registered. If these have not been made available by the client on request, the asbestos inventory company will have to produce them with a view to an unambiguous description of the materials containing asbestos; b) Brief report of all efforts made with regard to desk research with clear and well-arranged source references; Report of the discussions with, among others, building managers in the form of: c) summary report; d) to what extent the desk research performed has provided sufficient input/data for the fieldwork. e) Conclusions regarding the information collected under b), c) and d); f) Photos; g) If relevant, digital information carriers with research data (CD ROM or DVD); h) Integral recording of a copy of the certificates of analysis showing indicated the unique project identification code; i) When the inventory reports use validation measurements in accordance with SC-548: version 01, date 15-09-2011/NEN 2939, the report thereof, provided with a unique project identification code, must be added to the inventory report; j) SC-540 Appendix G Obligations of the Client in accordance with Law and Regulations; k) Blank evaluation form for unforeseen asbestos in accordance with section 7.17.4; l) The original source-related output of the SMA-rt risk class determination. 7.17.3. Additional inventory report Type-B The Type-B asbestos inventory report is the result of the additional inventory of all reasonably presumed non-directly observable asbestos and asbestos-containing products, etc. that were detected immediately prior to the constructional demolition with a destructive investigation and where the architectural integrity of a building or construction has been affected (example: asbestos-cement piping poured into the foundation). The immediate reason for such an inventory is the determination, during the Type-A inventory (see par. 3.4), of the reasonable suspicion of asbestos and products containing asbestos in the structure or object that are not directly observable. The Type-B asbestos inventory report supplements the Type-A asbestos inventory report. 7.17.4. Evaluation form as a mandatory part of the inventory report Machine Translated by Google The authors of the successive versions of the inventory report 1. Asbestos inventory type A Name inventory agency Ascert code Report number Release date 2. Asbestos inventory type B Name inventory agency Ascert code Report number Release date 3. Asbestos inventory of unforeseen asbestos Name inventory agency Ascert code Report number Release date Description of unforeseen asbestos Description Place Quantity Asbestos Removal Company Name Ascert code Name Signature Sent to 1. 2. 3 4 5 6 7 By (name) date Initials Shipping list: 1= AIB type A; 2= AIB type B; 3= AIB contingency; 4 = municipality; 5 = owner; 6 = client 8. Assessment methodology The way in which the certification body carries out the assessments and checks is laid down elsewhere in the certification scheme as follows: Part I General provisions Chapter 4 Certification regulations: The certification regulations indicate how a candidate can acquire a process certificate. In addition to the procedural state of affairs, this includes the form, nature and frequency of the assessments and reporting thereof at both the office location(s) and the project locations. The decision whether or not to accept the certificate Machine Translated by Google grant in combination with the publication of the certificate with inclusion in the Ascert Register. Part I General provisions Chapter 6 Supervision This section indicates how the certification body has access to the activities of the certificate holder during the term of the certificate. The form, nature and frequency of the assessments at both the office location(s) and the project locations are stated. A checklist is available for the project assessments. Finally, it is indicated which measures the certification body takes in response to the findings observed and the handling thereof by the certificate holder. This provides for the option of premature withdrawal of a process certificate after repeated insufficient response from the certificate holder within the certification period. Finally, the decision whether or not to grant the certificate again is stated in combination with the possible publication of the certificate with inclusion in the Ascert Register. 8.1. Time spent on the assessments The indicated time commitment is a guideline; the time units include reporting. •. Annual assessment and recertification on site: 1 man day; •. assessment at project location: 0.5 man-day per assessment; maximum 2 reviews per day. 8.2. Combination with assessments for other certification schemes In the case of combining assessments, the CKI must be able to make plausible and demonstrable with the assessment report that the minimum requirements of SC-540 are examined during the certification period during assessment per location. Assessments at project locations are independent and must be carried out in accordance with the provisions of section 5.2.2. 9. The certificate 9.1. Certificate Details The certificate must contain at least the following information (see SC-530 Appendix E). Certificate holder details: •. Full company name •. Contact •. Location •. Chamber of Commerce registration number •. Relationship with demanding (field-specific) document identification and version designation. Machine Translated by Google •. Operating companies in the appendix (see section 4.3.4) •. Certificate holder's ascert code Data from the CKI: •. Name; •. Business location; •. Logo; •. Feature of the designation order Minister SZW. Other data certificate: •. The date of entry into force and the date until which the certificate is valid. •. Text: The certificate must state that the institution declares that the company concerned meets the requirements of the field-specific certification scheme; •. Signature authorized person CKI; •. Ascert logo and logo with the mention SC-540 •. Date 9.2. Use of the certificate The use of the certificate is bound by the Ascert Logo. 9.3. Ascert Certificate Register The CKI registers the current data in the system certificate every month. In accordance with the agreement with Ascert, the data is sent electronically to Bureau Ascert for the Ascert Certificate Register. The revocation of certificates must be immediately reported to Ascert by the CKI. This register is made accessible via the internet, within the legal frameworks. Part III. Attachments Part III of this certification scheme contains the annexes referred to in parts I and II. Appendix A. [Repealed.] Appendix B. Definitions (i) Informative character Concept Definition / Meaning Designated An institution that is entitled to a certification body by virtue of a ministerial Machine Translated by Google testing whether a company carries out its activities in accordance with a agreed certification scheme (eg asbestos inventory or asbestos removal). Sealing / shielding Applying / encapsulating / durable shielding or Impregnation release impregnation of asbestos to prevent fibers the Explanation: A sustainable encapsulation/impregnation ensures that in a confined space during the remaining years of use of a building or construction, asbestos- containing material, even under intensive conditions of use, no asbestos concentration in the air is created that significantly exceeds the Target value set by the Ministry of Infrastructure and the Environment, expressed as an 8-hour average concentration. Customer The natural or legal person to whom the asbestos inventory bed Drive or the asbestos removal company provides the service(s). Waste procedure For the description of the waste procedure see document SC-531: Machine Translated by Google version 01, date 15-09-2011. amphibole asbestos The fibrous silicates actinolite (Cas number 77536-66-4), amosite (Cas number 12172-73-5), anthophyllite (Cas number 77536-67-5), crocidolite (Cas number 12001-28-4) and tremolite (Cas number 77536-68-6), as well as products incorporating those fibrous silicates. Occupational Hygiene Criteria with regard to the facilities in the preparation criteria of and occupational executionhygiene of asbestos inventory or asbestos removal work . Asbestos The fibrous silicates actinolite (Cas number 77536-66-4), amosite (Cas number 12172-73-5), anthophyllite (Cas number 77536-67-5), chrysotile (Cas number 12001-29-5), crocidolite (Cas number 12001-28-4) and tremolite (Cas number 77536-68-6. Asbestos analysis Analysis by a laboratory accredited by the RvA for the relevant operation (see Machine Translated by Google www.rva.nl) of a material or air sample for the presence, type and percentage/concentration of asbestos. Building or Construction materials containing asbestos in which serpentine or amphibole asbestos is processed or present and of which the asbestos content is greater than or equal to 0.1% by weight (the lower limit of the method as laid down in NEN 5896: 2003). Explanation: Asbestos-containing materials are often incorrectly referred to as 'asbestos'. The designation used in SC-540 and SC-530 is asbestos, products containing asbestos, asbestos- contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction parts Asbestos inventory plan The schematic n representation of where, when, how, by whom and under what circumstances/ preconditions an asbestos inventory is done and what parts it consists of. Asbestos inventory work The systematic k inventory of all asbestos-containing materials in a further described (part of a) building, construction or object Machine Translated by Google resulting in an asbestos inventory report in accordance with SC-540 par. 7.17. Asbestos inventory report Report, differentiated port to type- A, type-B, type-O and complete type-G,asbestos in which the inventory result of work theis recorded in accordance with SC-540 par. 7.17. Asbestos-suspicious This is understood material to mean a material that is assessed as containing asbestos or 'possibly containing asbestos' on the basis of only a visual, and therefore subjective, assessment. Explanation: Only after sampling and analysis in accordance with NEN 5896: 2003, by an accredited laboratory, can the material be placed in the inventory report with objective certainty are designated as containing asbestos, stating the asbestos type and concentration class. Asbestos fiber An asbestos particle that is longer than 5 micrometers, has a diameter of less than 3 micrometers and a length/width ratio of more than 3:1 (Arbobesluit). In the Machine Translated by Google environmental quality targets for asbestos from the ministry of Infrastructure and the Environment, fibers with a length of less than 5 micrometers also fall under the definition of asbestos fibre. Audit Assessment of a (candidate) certificate holder for conformity with a certification scheme by an RvA accredited for this purpose, and/or by the Minister of SZW designated certification body auditor Name used for an expert assessor of a certifying Institution business manager Criteria for the criteria design, implementation, control and assurance of the asbestos inventory pro ces. Control The operational techniques and activities that become applied to ensure that the asbestos inventory is carried out in accordance with SC-540. Sampling plan The schematic representation of the places where samples are taken, the nature of the samples, the amount and other relevant data, including personal protective equipment and Machine Translated by Google measures for sampling to prevent the emission of asbestos. Rating Forming an opinion about a subject by examining/measuring or judging this subject on the basis of properties corresponds to the stated standard or reference. Assurance (health and safety and the whole of all environment) planned systematic and actions that are necessary to ensure that the asbestos inventory prevents the spread of asbestos to people and the environment, with due observance of the legally applicable standards and regulations. Construction That which is built or arises from construction work. A construction must comply to four criteria: • It must be of some size. Explanation: A simple tombstone is not of any size and therefore not a building. A funerary monument is of some size and therefore a building.) • It must be a construction. • It must be three-dimensional. • It must be localized. Machine Translated by Google Explanation A mobile fish stall that has been in place for six months is a structure. The same mobile fish stall that stands somewhere else every day is not a structure. Examples of a construction are: utility buildings, houses, barns, caravans, bicycle sheds, stables, miniature golf courses. lampposts, factory halls, transformer houses, viaducts, funerary monuments, industrial installations located fixed pitch, mobile homes and mobile fish stalls with a fixed pitch. Architectural unit A functional unit of a building, construction or object (wing, floor, technical room, etc.). Explanation: In the classification it is important that the units are of such a size that all sources containing asbestos within the architectural or installation-technical unit are brought. Examples: An escalator containing asbestos continues through an open connection at three Machine Translated by Google floors. All floors then belong to the te investigating unit. An air treatment system serves 6 floors, so that all these floors fall within the unit under investigation. Fire A fire is a combustion with fire that can spread unhindered and cause damage and/or danger. Within the scope of this certification scheme means fire including the release of asbestos fibres. Also known as asbestos fire indicated. calamity A calamity is the commonly used term for an unexpected event that can cause serious damage. In this certification scheme is this event linked to asbestos risks for the environment before commencing asbestos removal work. Construction Something by to construct is to arise. Explanation: A construction can mean a complete building, but in the context of an asbestos inventory becomes a construction Machine Translated by Google regarded as an independent part of a structure or object eg a suspension construction of a bridge, the foundation of a building, the supporting construction of a viaduct. This one is named separately because specific asbestos applications sometimes occur in such sub- constructions. containment Construction with which a work area where asbestos-containing materials are removed from the environment and in which a legally established level of negative pressure is maintained, to prevent the spread of asbestos fibers to people and the environment. Decontamination procedure For the description of the decontamination procedure see the documents SC-531A: Version 01, Date 15-09-2011 and SC-531B: version 01, date 15-09-2011 on www.ascert.nl under Documents. disassemble The removal of an asbestos- containing product or device as a whole without processing. Dismantling is a form of demolition. desk research Performing a desk research into the Machine Translated by Google construction history of the object. Expert Person who is in the Inventory Asbestos is in possession of a (DIA) personal certificate AsbestosExpert Inventory in accordance with SC-560. And thus demonstrates that meet the in Appendix A of the SC-540 Captured Competency Profile Expert Person who is in the supervisor owns a Asbestos removal personal certificate (DTA) Expert Supervisor Asbestos removal in accordance with Annex XIIIc . Expert Person who is in the Asbestos remover owns a (DAV) personal certificate Expert Asbestos remover level 1 or level 2 in accordance with Annex XIIIc. Accredited Laboratory that asbestos laboratory has a accreditation of the Council for Accreditation for the relevant operation. Separate accredit is made for, among other things, the following activities with regard to asbestos: • material analysis; • indoor air sampling in a existing situation; • analysis of indoor air samples (existing situation); • final check after asbestos removal in a containment, Machine Translated by Google glove bag (incubator bag) or outside situation in accordance with NEN 2990: 2005 • non-routine asbestos research (research & development or an R&D recognition). Note: A laboratory/ research facility that performs a final check perform asbestos removal must are accredited in accordance with NEN-EN-ISO/ IEC 17020: 2004 type-C (RvA- Inspection). The other activities (air measurement, material analysis, etc.) are assessed in accordance with NEN-EN- ISO/IEC 17025: 2005 (RvA Testing). In general, therefore, a laboratory that carries out a final check for both operations, must be accredited. Combinations are possible, whereby the NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17020: 2004 is leading with one or more RvA Tests accreditations Certified Company that meets the relevant asbestos inventory bed criteria drive from asbestos inventory in accordance with certification scheme SC-540 prepared by CCvD Asbestos and tested against the law and Machine Translated by Google regulations by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. Such a company is authorized on the basis of Article 11 of the Asbestos Removal Decree and the agreement with Ascert to use the Ascert logo (SC-065: version 01, date 15-09-2011 and SC-800: version 01, date 15- 09-2011). Certified Company that meets the asbestos removal company's criteria of asbestos removal, in accordance with certification scheme SC-530, prepared by CCvD Asbestos and tested against the law and regulations by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. Such a company is authorized to use the Ascert logo on the basis of Article 11 of the Asbestos Removal Decree and the agreement with Ascert. (SC-065: version 01, date 15/09/2011 and SC-800: version 01, date 15/09/2011). Glovebag (incubator bag) Non-accessible construction of limited size with which the asbestos-containing material to be removed is protected from the environment in a leak-free manner. The use of a glove bag is restricted to certified companies by or under the supervision of the DTA present at the Machine Translated by Google project site, SC-531D. Destructive testing Indirect in connection with detectable and non-directly presumably present asbestos observable, presumably present asbestos material of which asbestos with the use of equipment other than the tool kit as stated in SC-540 par. 7.14.4. the architectural integrity, prior to the architectural demolition of a building, object or construction, must be disturbed in order to to determine its presence. This research method is referred to as destructive testing and is described in SC-540 par 3.4.3. Explanation: The distinguishing criterion is the impairment of the architectural integrity. Drilling into a floor to detect the underlying asbestos-containing coating or the use of a hollow drill in a pipe insulation therefore does not fall under destructive testing and is deemed to be part of SC-540 par 3.4.2. to be carried out type-A research. Using the tool kit to provide access behind a Machine Translated by Google ceiling, without disturbing the structural integrity, to detect material containing asbestos is clearly a form of mild destructive testing and falls under type-A (SC-540 par. 3.4.2). Shower procedure See decontamination procedure Final check after Determination (visual asbestos removal inspection, sampling and analysis) performed in accordance with NEN 2990: 2012 that takes place after professional removal of asbestos in a containment or shielded space, to determine whether there is visually no asbestos- containing dust is more present in the room and whether the asbestos concentration in the air is below the legal release limit. If not in containment or protected area asbestos has been removed (outdoor locations), the visual inspection is considered a final check. The institution that performs this work is referred to as Final Assessment Institution (see par 2.1 definitions. Note: See also SC-530 par. 7.16 Final check and Machine Translated by Google final delivery. Incident Disturbing event, unforeseen event related to the creation of asbestos exposure risks See Sealing encapsulate /encapsulate/ impregnate etc. Inventory plan Description of the inventory process including: when, where, what, how, with what and by whom inspected; the critical points in the process and process control measures; the required documentation for a careful asbestos inventory (work instructions, specifications and registrations). Integrity Assembly of (architectural) structural elements that give the building its stability (eg foundation, load-bearing walls and columns. Quality manual The written record of the quality system. Quality system The organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures, processes and facilities for implementing measures to improve the quality of the to keep the asbestos inventories carried out at the required level. Machine Translated by Google Slightly destructive Immediately observable testing in connection with asbestos is with directly observable asbestos material of which asbestos eg using of the tool kit listed in SC-540 section 7.14.4. the presence can be determined. If the hand tools are used, the research method used is indicated as slightly destructive investigation and is described in SC 540 par 3.4.1 Explanation: The distinguishing criterion is the impairment of the architectural integrity. Using a sledgehammer to free a concrete poured asbestos pipe therefore does not fall under light destructive investigation and is deemed to be part of SC-540 par 3.4.3. type B research to be carried out. Environmental Hygiene Criteria with regard to criteria for the environmental in the preparation hygieneand facilities execution of the asbestos inventory. Sampling Taking samples from a defined lot in such a way that a representative picture of the Machine Translated by Google properties of that party. Object Device, means of transport, construction or installation, not being a building within the meaning of the Housing Act. Explanation: Objects are for example: • gas, water and sewer pipes that belong to an underground gas, water or sewer network located outside a structure; • heating appliances (when they are connected to a structure in an earth- and nail- tight manner, they are not an object, but are part of the structure); • asbestos cement flower boxes • no longer on ; construction products, such as asbestos cement corrugated sheets; • older household appliances in which heat is generated, such as hair dryers, toasters, etc.; • older hot plates; • mopeds, cars, trucks, trains and ships; • (semi-paved) roads, insofar as they are not located on a viaduct, etc. (a road on a viaduct is a structure); • sheeting of banks. Machine Translated by Google Asbestos-containing soil and asbestos-containing rubble granulate (BSA granulate) are neither a structure nor an object. Maintenance Performing periodic work within or on the skin and construction of a building, object or construction, and/or the installations present therein. Client The natural or legal person who carries out the inventory or asbestos removal work. Project location Location where the asbestos removal work or the asbestos inventory. renovation Performing major maintenance on a building, object or construction, whereby partial demolition can take place without losing the architectural integrity. Risk classification Classification of demolition or other work with or on asbestos, products containing asbestos, material contaminated with asbestos or asbestos- contaminated construction parts in one of the three risk classes in accordance with the Working Conditions Decree. Risk assessment (in Assessment of non- demolition situations) exposure risk Machine Translated by Google to asbestos, asbestos-containing products, asbestos- contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction parts in structures or objects (non-demolition situations) in accordance with NEN 2991: 2005. Demolition The total or partial demolition of a structure or object See Transit route decontamination procedure Equipment All technical aids necessary for carrying out an asbestos inventory or asbestos removal work . Lockout procedure For the description of asbestos material. of the lockout procedure SC-531C:see version document 01, date 15-09-2011. Validation study Investigation of the (for classification in a risk class) asbestos fibers during the performance of work with asbestos or materials containing asbestos for the purpose classify these activities in one of the three risk classes parts. The examination must be carried out under pre-work representative conditions in the breathing zone of the workers who do the work Machine Translated by Google to carry out. The execution takes place in accordance with NEN 2939 in which the method of sampling (Personal sampling) and the analysis technique to be used (SEM.RMA in accordance with ISO 14966) are also prescribed. Checking the measured values against the classification of concentration limits used in risk classes takes place with due observance of the NEN-EN 689 standard. Note Such an investigation needs to be performed only when it concerns hitherto unknown combinations of asbestos- containing materials, applications, remediation techniques, or strongly deviating environmental factors for which no validated measurement data are (yet) available in SMA-rt. H&S (safety and health coordinator) or legal person in charge of the Working Conditions Decree, Chapter 2, Section 5 (construction process) regarding safety and health tasks during the Machine Translated by Google study, design and elaboration phase of the design of a (construction) work/object. H&S (safety and health) plan includes: • a description of the work; • an overview of the natural or legal persons involved in the work on the (construction) site; • the name of the H&S coordinator design and implementation phase; • an inventory and evaluation of hazards in accordance with Article 5 of theWorking Conditions Act; • the way in which the cooperation between employers and any self-employed persons on the (construction) site is implemented, which provisions are made and how these provisions are supervised; • the way in which the cooperation and consultation between employers and employees on the (construction) site is implemented, and the way in which information and education of the employees takes place; • danger to third parties ( Article 10 of the Working Conditions Act ). H&S (safety and The file containing health) file information from Machine Translated by Google is important for the safety and health of employees who will later carry out work on the (construction) work/object. Release limit By the government value established for the asbestos concentration in the air that determines the release of a confined space after professional removal of asbestos or material containing asbestos. Work plan The written statement of the intended performance of activities relating to asbestos, stating the personnel to be deployed, the equipment to be used, the materials, equipment, to be handled work instructions, working methods and instructions. Workplace The (asbestos removal) demarcated/shielded and marked place where asbestos, asbestos-containing products, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction components it is removed in an occupational and environmentally sound manner. Machine Translated by Google Appendix C. Model application projects for initial certification (v) Mandatory character 1. General The asbestos removal company that has not yet been certified must submit an application to an authorized certification body (CKI) for an admission investigation for the Ascert Process Certificate Asbestos Inventory in accordance with SC-540. After the CKI has determined that the company meets the requirements according to the SC-540 certification scheme, excluding the practical requirements, permission can be requested for the execution of two asbestos inventory projects. The motivation for this regulation is that the company may only inventory products containing asbestos if the company is in possession of the Ascert Process Certificate Asbestos Inventory. On behalf of the company, the CKI will request written permission from Ascert for this. This request is accompanied by: •. The written statement from the CKI that the company meets the requirements in accordance with the SC-540 certification scheme, excluding the practical requirements; •. A more detailed description of the two projects. Based on the following criteria, Ascert must have given written permission for the application: •. the two projects must be distinguished from each other by different clients and locations, •. Completely completed application form. If the submitted descriptions meet the conditions, Ascert will grant written permission for the execution of the described projects. Ascert sends the permission directly to the certification body, which then forwards it to the asbestos removal company. The asbestos inventory company ensures that the Ascert permission is present at the work, so that it can be shown on first request. If the CKI concludes on one of the two projects that the asbestos inventory company does not meet the criteria that apply for the practical test, Ascert may, at the written request of the CKI, for the execution of one additional project to be assessed (with comparable work). ) give written permission. The further handling of the certification process is described in SC-540 par 4.3.7 NB When ordering the initial certification, the certification body must make clear, binding agreements with the asbestos inventory company, in the event that the company does not appear to Machine Translated by Google can meet the practical requirements and the intended projects cannot be handled in accordance with SC-540. 2. Request The certification body: ..... CKI number: ..... established in: ..... declares that the asbestos inventory company mentioned below meets the requirements, as stated in certification scheme SC-540, excluding the practical requirements and, in order to assess the implementation practice, requests permission for the implementation of the asbestos inventory projects below. The CKI also declares that the inventory plan meets the requirements in accordance with the certification scheme SC-540 par. 7.16.; Asbestos inventory company: Name Contact person Address Postal code City Registration Chamber of Commerce Telephone no Fax no. E-mail address ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... The two projects to be assessed are: Client Project 1 Client Project 2 Name: Contact person: ..... ..... ..... ..... Name: Contact person: ..... .... ..... ..... ..... ..... Address: Postal code: Address: Postal.....code: City: Phone number: ..... ..... ..... City: Phone number: Fax number: Fax number: Description project location: Description project location: Name: Address: Postal code: ..... ..... ..... ..... Name: Address: Postal code: ..... ..... .. ... ..... Place: Phone number: ..... ..... Place: Phone number: ..... ..... Fax number: Fax number: Execution date: Execution date: Send the original by e-mail to Bureau Ascert (info@ascert.nl). Handling by Ascert: Agree with execution: Presently, ....., the original PDF file has been emailed by Ascert to the Certification Body. 3. Consent To the asbestos inventory company: Name: Contact person: Address: Postal code: Place: ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... . .... Chamber of Commerce registration: Phone number: Fax number: E-mail address ..... (Sent by e-mail in PDF file to the certification body In accordance with the agreements, Machine Translated by Google recorded in the application document, we grant you permission to carry out the asbestos removal project(s) below at the following project location: Client Project 1 Client Project 2 Name: Contact person: ..... ..... ..... ... .. Name contactperson: ..... ..... ..... ..... .....Postal Address: Postal code: Address: ..... ..... code: ..... ..... ..... Place: Phone: Place: Phone: Fax Fax number: no: Description project location: Description project location: Name: Address: Postal code: ..... ..... ..... ..... Name: Address: Postal code: ..... ..... ..... ..... Place: Phone number: ..... ..... Place: Phone number: ..... ..... Fax number: Fax number: Execution date Execution date Name ..... The permission has been sent to the certification body Contact ..... E-mail address ..... Yours faithfully, Asbestos Certification Foundation Bureau Ascert ..... [Name] Appendix D. Model agreement cki and certificate holder (i) Informative character The certification body ..... established at ....., represented by ....., director, hereinafter referred to as the institution and the holder of the process certificate in accordance with SC-540, managed by the Ascert Foundation: Company name Chamber of Commerce registration Contact Address Postal Code Place E-mail address Machine Translated by Google Phone hereinafter referred to as certificate holder declare that it has agreed the following: Article 1. Rights to be derived from the Ascert Process Certificate Asbestos Inventory: 1) Certificate holder is entitled to receive the valid certificate issued use; 2) Certificate holder is registered by the institution in the Ascert Certificate Register. Article 2. Obligations: Certificate Holder 1) Certificate holder is obliged to continue to comply with the requirements in the Ascert Certification Scheme SC-540 2) Certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with assessments by or on behalf of the certification body; 3) Certificate holder is obliged to follow up on the withdrawn or invalidated certificate by no longer presenting itself as a certified company; 4) The certificate holder is not also involved in the company that removes asbestos. In the case of (co-)ownership of both the removal company and the inventory company or in the case of administrative functions in both companies combined in one person, it can be demonstrated to third parties that there is no mutual influence in the activities of removal and inventory; 5) Certificate holder is obliged to make changes in his circumstances that the certificate may be important to the certification body. Certification Body 1) The certification body ensures an appropriate time of assessment in the context of recertification. 2) The certification body is responsible for the direct inclusion of the process certificate in the Ascert Certificate Register. Article 3. Conditions for Ascert Process Certification Asbestos Inventory: 1) The payment obligations towards the certification body arising from this agreement have been met; 2) In the context of this certificate, the certificate holder will keep a register of complaints keep track of oneself; 3) The certificate is valid until the end date [= three years after certification date]. Article 4. Termination of the agreement: The certification agreement will be terminated by the certification body, with simultaneous withdrawal of the certificate, if: Machine Translated by Google 1) The Certificate Holder does not fulfill its obligations, or does not (any longer) meet the conditions; 2) The Certificate Holder is issued a ticket for unsafe conduct; 3) There are two well-founded complaints about the certificate holder within the certification period due to unsafe conduct; 4) The certificate is being abused. Article 5. Complaints Complaints and any requests for review must be handled in accordance with SC-540 par. 4.3 and par.4.4. Article 6. Liability The certification body is not liable for damage resulting from the use of the process certificate. Thus drawn up and signed in duplicate, The certificate holder: For the institution: Date: Date: Name: Name: Signature: Signature: ..... ..... Appendix E. Ascert process certificate asbestos inventory (v) Mandatory character Certificate Holder company name address e-mail contact person postal code and city registration Chamber telephone of Commerce telefax Declaration of issuance This process certificate is based on the Ascert Certification Scheme Process Certificate Asbestos Inventory SC-540, in accordance with ABC Certification BV Regulations for Process Certification of February 1997 issued by ABC Certification BV The following legal provisions are incorporated in the SC-540 certification scheme: Working Conditions Decree Article 4.54 a and 4.54 d Machine Translated by Google Working conditions regulation article 4.27 ABC Certification BV declares that there is a legitimate confidence that the process to be carried out by the certificate holder of inventory of asbestos, products containing asbestos and asbestos-contaminated material or construction parts contaminated with asbestos is in a structure or object, prior to the full or partial demolition of structures and/or objects, the removal of asbestos or the removal of asbestos after an incident, including the delivery of the asbestos inventory report in accordance with the requirements of the certification scheme. For ABC Certification BV Piet Alfabet Certification body ABC Certification BV – company name – address – email – – CI certificate number – zip code and – place website identification code – Ascert code: .0na – – telephone – fax e SZW date of first issue – Designation decision date of issue – expiry date For the validity of this process certificate, reference is made to the Ascert Certificate Register at www.ascert.nl This process certificate consists of two pages. Emphasis prohibited Sheet 1 of 2 Establishment Company name: Address: Postal code: E-mail: Contact person: Place: Phone: Chamber of Commerce registration: Telefax: Ascert name:code: Address: .0nb Postal Location code: Company E-mail: Contact person: Place: Telephone: Registration Chamber Ascert of Commerce: code: Telefax: .0nc Establishment Company name: Address: Telefax: Postal code: Place: Telephone: E-mail: Contact person: Chamber of Commerce registration: Ascert code: .0nd Tips for the client 1) When carrying out supervision by the CB, AI, and/or municipality, the client to grant the supervisor access to the project location. Machine Translated by Google The regular assessments by the certification body at the project location 2) always take place unannounced. 3) The result-oriented assessments at the project location, by means of the inventory report, in the presence of the DIA are always announced. 4) The client makes (re)construction and/or construction descriptions available to the asbestos inventory company. 5) If the period from the release date of the available inventory report up to the date of removal is more than 3 years, a demonstrable determination of the current reliability of the occurrence of asbestos in the structure or object must be available (see SC-540 par. 17.4.2). 6) If asbestos removal proves to be incomplete and/or incorrectly performed asbestos inventory, the client must inform the inventory company thereof after the asbestos removal company has established this and reported it to the client (see SC-530 par. 7.14.3); 7) In the event of complaints, the certificate holder must be contacted and in case of serious complaints with the certification body (see also the complaints procedure as described in certification scheme SC-540 par. 4.7). 8) For given inventory situations with unexpected major asbestos exposure risks, the client must follow the advice of the inventory company in an appropriate manner. 9) (See also SC-540 par. 7.6.5 and par. 7.16.3.4). This process certificate consists of two pages. Emphasis prohibited Sheet 1 of 2 Appendix F. Obligations of the client (i) Informative character 1. General The client has a legal obligation to provide information when it comes to the presence of asbestos in his building/object that he owns/controls. He has this duty towards the user of the structure/object and those who respectively maintain, renovate, demolish or carry out work in the structure/object. Asbestos removal is subject to a municipal permit. Depends on the permit an asbestos inventory report. Who can apply for a permit and thus become the holder of the permit? 1) The owner of a building; 2) On behalf of the owner of the building: the consultancy; 3) The user of a building. Explanation: a) The holder of the permit remains responsible for the municipality and is the contact point for reporting as remediation. If it is not complete and therefore not suitable for issuing an environmental permit, the municipality will speak to the applicant Machine Translated by Google of the permit. The latter then addresses the research bureau. This also applies to asbestos removal. b) If work is carried out in violation of the regulations, the municipality will address the permit holder in the first instance, and the asbestos remover in the second instance. The persons referred to under points 1 to 3 can be clients for the asbestos inventory, the removal of asbestos and the final assessment. He does not necessarily have to be the client for the final assessment. He can leave this to the disposal company, which is also logical. The client is the person who: 1) The order for an inventory is awarded to a company that is in possession of a valid certificate for asbestos inventory; 2) Apply for the environmental permit from the Municipality, implying the notification of the intention to demolish/remove; 3) The assignment for the final assessment of the performed asbestos removal is given to a laboratory or inspection body that is accredited for this; 4) The assignment for the asbestos removal is given to an asbestos removal company that is in possession of a valid certificate for asbestos removal; 5) Notifies the Municipality of the correct implementation dates and times at least one week before execution; The deposit slip and release certificate from the asbestos removal company 6) receives; 7) The Municipality will send a copy no later than two weeks after implementation of the results of the final assessment; 8) Receives and pays the invoices for the services rendered (1 to 4). The client can delegate the matters mentioned under 1, 2, 3, 5 and 7 to, for example, the asbestos removal company, but remains responsible for the presence of the correct papers (inventory report and environmental permit) at the work site. 2. Asbestos Removal Decree 2005 The responsibility of the client for the correct papers (inventory report and environmental permit) at work is legally based in par. 2, Articles 3 and 5 and Par. 4, Article 10 of the Asbestos Removal Decree 2005. The companies to be engaged by the client for asbestos inventory, asbestos removal and final assessment can only perform the work if they are in possession of the legally required certification or accreditation, respectively, stated in art. 4.54a, 4.54d and 4.55a of the Working Conditions Decree / Asbestos Removal Decree 2005.' 3. Asbestos Inventory Report Derived from Asbestos Removal Decree 2005, Stb. 704 dated 16-12-2005 and Stb. 87 dated 20- 02-2006 Machine Translated by Google Section 2 – Asbestos inventory Art. 3-1-b: paragraph b: the person who wholly or partially dismantles or disassembles (= the client) .... has an asbestos inventory report. Art. 3-2-b: Here too, the person who removes (or has removed) asbestos is referred to again (= the client) .... has an asbestos inventory report. Art. 5 Before the action is performed, the person who performs / has performed the actions of par. 3 (= the client) provides a copy of the inventory report to the person who performs the action (= the asbestos removal company). Conclusion: Art. 3 and 5 are very clear: The client has an inventory report and gives a copy of that report to the person who removes the asbestos. It is not stated how the client obtained this report. He just has to have it, so arrange it himself. See also art. 4.54a-1 to 5 and 4.54d-5 (addition to the Working Conditions Decree). Supplement to the Working Conditions Decree Article 4.54a. Asbestos inventory 1) Before an action as referred to in Article 4.54, first paragraph, under a, b or d, is started, the presence of asbestos or asbestos-containing products or crocidolite or crocidolite-containing products shall be inventoried in full and the results thereof shall be included in an inventory report. 2) The first paragraph applies if employees are or may be exposed to asbestos or products containing asbestos or crocidolite or products containing crocidolite. 3) The inventory and the inventory report, referred to in the first paragraph, are carried out or drawn up, respectively, by a company that is in possession of a certificate for asbestos inventory issued by Our Minister or a certifying institution. Machine Translated by Google 4) A copy of the inventory report is provided to the company, referred to in Article 4.54d, first paragraph, who performs the act referred to in Article 4.54, first paragraph, under a, b, or d. 5) The certificate or a copy thereof is present at the workplace and is shown on request to a civil servant as referred to in Article 24 of the Act. Article 4.54d. Asbestos removal 1) The acts referred to in Article 4.54, paragraph 1, with the exception of the actions, as referred to in Article 4.54b, parts b to i, are performed in accordance with a work plan drawn up in advance as referred to in Article 4.55 by a company that is in possession of an asbestos removal certificate issued by Our Minister or a certifying institution. 2) In a company as referred to in the first paragraph, a person as employed as referred to in the third paragraph. 3) The acts referred to in the first paragraph are performed by or under continuous supervision of a person who is in possession of a certificate of professional competence for the supervision of the removal of asbestos and crocidolite, issued by Our Minister or a certifying institution. 4) Insofar as the acts referred to in the first paragraph are also performed by a person other than the person referred to in the third paragraph, this other person is in possession of a certificate of professional competence for the removal of asbestos and crocidolite, which has been issued by Our Minister or a certifying institution. 5) Before commencing with the actions referred to in the first paragraph, the company referred to in the first paragraph shall be in possession of a copy of an inventory report as referred to in Article 4.54a, first paragraph. 6) The certificates, referred to in the first, third and fourth paragraphs, or copies thereof and a copy of the inventory report, referred to in Article 4.54a, first paragraph, are present at the workplace and, on request, are shown to a civil servant as referred to in Article 24 of the law. par. 4 – Construction works Art. 10: It is prohibited to demolish a structure without or in deviation from the permit of B&W. An inventory report must be submitted with an application for an environmental permit (art. 10j). The holder of the environmental permit must provide a copy of that permit to the company carrying out the demolition. Appendix G. How to act in the event of an incident (fire storm) (i) Informative character Soil definition Machine Translated by Google Solid part of the earth, soil and groundwater, with less than 20% debris. Raising layers and (semi) surfacing layers do not belong to the soil. Research soil necessary 1) When the visually not visible soil is suspected of asbestos because it has been stirred during remediation or during work to fight the fire/calamity. 2) If the ground cannot be visually inspected, for example due to the condition of the ground level. Soil testing must be carried out below the 90% efficiency, whereby: 2.1. inspection efficiency 90–100%: dry, not stirred and no vegetation 2.2. inspection efficiency 70–90%: clay, dry, loose and no vegetation 2.3. inspection efficiency 70–90%: moist and moderate vegetation 2.4. inspection efficiency 50–70%: clay, moist, stirred and/or moderate vegetation Only the suspect soil layer does not need to be examined. Remark The Soil Quality Decree and the underlying Soil Quality Regulation apply to conducting research into asbestos in the soil. It follows from this that in most cases soil investigations must be carried out by a recognized soil intermediary in accordance with the BRL SIKB 2000 and in the case of asbestos the investigation is carried out in accordance with the SIKB VKB protocol 2018. The latter is in accordance with NEN 5707:2003/C1:2006. If such an investigation shows that there is a serious case of soil contamination (asbestos concentration in the soil above the residual concentration standard / soil intervention value), the soil remediation must be carried out by a recognized soil intermediary in accordance with BRL SIKB 7000. Appendix H. Category classification of sanctions system for asbestos inventory table 5.5.3 (v) Deviations No. CKI sanction Business location SC-540 Cluster Layout cat. I cat. II Cat. III Cat. IV The company Comments – X certificate holder of the 1 Under suspension, both performed the recovery sanction if the order measure asbestos inventory w to hear activities or activities related to the inventory of asbestos while her Machine Translated by Google certificate is suspended. 2 7.1.1 – The complete X company structure has not been recorded in writing: • the administrative and ownership relationships, • the personnel content of the management structure • the employees and their certificates • the tasks and powers of the employees with regard to asbestos inventory 3 It 7.1.4 a X asbestos inventory company is part of an in The Netherlands is an active group, which also includes activities other than asbestos inventories activities are carried out, while the asbestos inventory work activities do not fall distinctively within an unambiguously responsible, independent unit within the group. 4 There is one within 7.1.2 a a X company there is an unauthorized combination of asbestos inventory work and asbestos removal work . 5 The company forms a 7.1.4 a X independent part Machine Translated by Google of the group and supplies its asbestos inventory only to (other parts of) the group, while there is no functional separation of responsibilities between the asbestos inventory staff and the other group employees and/or organizational independence is not guaranteed. 6 The company forms a 7.1.4 a X independent part of the group and supplies its asbestos inventory only to (other parts of) the group, while the company and/or the employees are or have been involved in activities related to asbestos inventories. are in conflict with the independence and integrity, such as (future) asbestos removal or carrying out final checks after asbestos removal (Final assessments) of projects to be inventoried / inventoried. 7 There is talk of a 7.1.2 b a X unauthorized combination Machine Translated by Google of shareholding by natural or legal persons in an asbestos inventory company on the one hand and an asbestos removal company on the other. 8 There is talk of the 7.1.2 c a X unauthorized combined performance of a board position at an asbestos inventory bed and an asbestos removal company. 8a There is talk of a 7.1.2 d a X unauthorized combination by natural or legal persons of shareholding in a asbestos inventory company with directorship in an asbestos removal company. 8b There is a 7.1.2 e a X unauthorized combination by natural or legal persons of directorship in an asbestos inventory company with shareholding in a asbestos removal company. 9 Within the same 7.1.2 i . a X have a project Machine Translated by Google shareholders and/or directors and/or employees of a asbestos inventory company carried out work on the removal of asbestos . 9a Within the same 7.1.2 y a X project, shareholders and/or directors and/or employees who were involved in drawing up the asbestos inventory report performed the final check after asbestos removal (final assessment). 10 Within the same 7.1.2 k a X project have shareholders, directors or employees within the concern of which the asbestos inventory company is part, carries out work on the removal of asbestos 11 Within the same 7.1.2 l a X project have shareholders, directors or employees within the group where the asbestos inventory bed Rijf is part of and who were involved in drawing up the asbestos inventory report, the final inspection after asbestos removal Machine Translated by Google conducted. 12 Within a same 7.1.2 m a X the project involves a 1st or 2nd degree blood/relationship or cohabitation relationship between a shareholder of the asbestos inventory company and a shareholder or director of the asbestos removal company. 12a Within a same 7.1.2 n a X project there is a 1st or 2nd degree blood/ relationship or cohabitation relationship between a director of the asbestos inventory bed company and a shareholder or director of the asbestos removal company. 13 A 7.1.2 f J X asbestos inventory company has carried out the asbestos inventory work it has contracted or has tasks not carried out in- house and outsourced to a non certified asbestos inventory company. 14 – The company features 7.1.6 X lack of adequate liability insurance Machine Translated by Google barrier. 15 The company has not 7.3.2 7.16.3.4 A – X certificate holder to the client is an expert on the immediately further field of asbestos. He recommendations made is from that obliged to urgent expertise (organizational and/or to report dangerous technical) situations. Precautions If he himself cannot take measures (out of use set, close, strike, should he mark, control, to inform the client of the remediation, further danger research, NEN 2991 propose and advise research) at the about the take encounter serious measures. Since asbestos infections this in itself being outside and/or situations where tasks like non-suture inventor is located, materials in is conditional risky conditions withdrawal be present, and acceptable. the te take measures immediately exposure risk consist of that in Machine Translated by Google the organization is likely to be secured will this one violation from now on is prevented. 16 – When you find X Also this notification obligation serious stems from the role asbestos infections from asbestos expert. and/or situations where The same applies. non-bonded materials in risky conditions be present, and immediately exposure risk is plausible, the certificate holder does not report this to the competent authority. 17 The tasks, 7.4.1 7.4.4 7.4.5 k X responsibilities and powers of the mandatory officers for the operational management for the careful, expert, occupational hygiene and environmentally responsible execution from asbestos inventories (job descriptions), including replacement, are not or not clearly laid down. 18 Not all mandatory 7.4.2 7.5.4 7.5.8 k X Machine Translated by Google 7.11.3 7.12.3 officials have been appointed: quality officer, management representative, internal assessor, technical manager. 19 The technical 7.4.2 7.5.4 7.12.3 K X The person with ultimate responsibility, quality officer, management representative, internal assessor is not qualified and/or independent and/or authorized. 20 The company does not carry 7.4.3 k X ensure effective supervision of the implementation of the entire asbestos inventory process in accordance with the quality and safety objective and of the quality manual and the SC-540. 21 The interpretation is missing 7.5.1 k X of the vision, objectives and policy in a quality system with regard to careful, expert, occupational and environmentally responsible execution from asbestos inventories (policy statement) and thus the formulation of the current business objectives, operational Machine Translated by Google quality and safety objectives, assessments for continuous improvement and testing whether this is supported within the company. 22 The company has 7.5.2 k X does not have a quality system that is tailored to the nature of the service, the size of the feed asbestos inventory work and the suitability of the report. The quality system is not k X suitable and effective 23 The company features 7.5.3 7.8.9 k X not about a complete Quality Manual The quality manual K does not X contain current maintained documents, procedures, work instructions, safety regulations, inventory plan, project-oriented RI&E (project RI&E) or Task Risk Analysis (TRA), forms, checklists and registrations 24 The company features 7.5.6 k X not over maintaining procedures for meeting the requirements of the SC-540 to guarantee the Machine Translated by Google control of the asbestos inventory pro ces. 25 The company has 7.5.7 k X not about systematic internal quality assessments at both the business location(s) and project locations to determine the extent to which the control of asbestos inventories is assured is effectively supported by implemented and maintained documentation and suitably appropriate business processes, and corresponds with the requirements from SC-540, the applicable laws and regulations and the company's own operations. 26 The company has 7.5.7 huh X does not have a described procedure(s) for analyzing the results of internal and external audits, deviations, registrations for improvement, etc., taking corrective measures and testing the effectiveness of corrective measures. 27 To decide, 7.5.9 7.12.2 huh X register and Machine Translated by Google collection of suitable data, including complaints, deviations and evaluation forms, to analyze the suitability and effectiveness of the assurance of control of the asbestos inventory for continuous improvement, does not take place. 28 Deviations from the 7.5.9 huh X carry out carefully, expertly, in an occupational and environmentally sound manner from asbestos inventories are not identified, recorded, corrected and verified. 29 It immediately 7.5.9 huh X analyzing deviations, .d. do not take place to determine the nature and importance, the causes and the corrective measures to be taken to eliminate the causes and consequences of non- conformities and to prevent recurrence. 30 the efficient 7.5.9 huh X determine and implement of corrective actions to address the causes and effects Machine Translated by Google of deviations and to prevent recurrence and/or to verify the effectiveness of the measures taken, do not take place. 31 The periodic 7.5.9 huh X analyzing business processes, applied resources, methods, etc., including deviations and complaints, etc., to determine the nature and importance, the causes and the preventive measures are not taken to prevent future causes and consequences of possible deviations. 32 The periodic 7.5.10 7.12.3 huh X analyze and assess (management review, management objectives, action plan) of the performance of the business processes, the officers and the corrective and preventive measures to achieve continuous improvement of effectiveness of the assurance and control itself of the responsible carrying out asbestos inventories does not take place. 33 The desk features 7.6.1 G X Machine Translated by Google not about employees with the required qualifications for the correct implementation of asbestos inventories in accordance with the SC-540 in own management and under own responsibility. 34 At the 7.6.1 asbestos G X inventory company not at least one employee qualified as a DIA on the basis of an employment contract is employed on a full-time permanent basis. 35 The persons in charge G X are doing from asbestos inventory work Not all of them have the Expert Inventory Asbestos (DIA) certificate. 36 Hired / hired 7.6.1 employees are not G X qualified for the correct execution of asbestos inventories in accordance with SC-540. 37 Employees completely 7.6.2 G X independently and without demonstrably continuous perform supervision tasks and functions in the performance of asbestos inventories, do not have the DIA certificate according to SC-560. 38 – The company does not have 7.6.4 X registrations and/or Machine Translated by Google mastery of the required and available personal skills, training (training, information, instruction, work consultation), awareness and medical suitability for responsible performance from asbestos inventories (performance assessments). 39 Persons involved an7.6.6 objective Thereand must be – X asbestos inventories independent research are (extra) rewarded by the persons on the basis of the inventory. A proceeds of additional reward based on performed of the outcome of the asbestos inventories research leads to unreliable research and/or the results thereof. and increases the risk on asbestos emission and exposure. In the event that a certificate holder (formal or informal) has a system for such rewards Machine Translated by Google (regardless of whether this is performed) or such rewards gives, this leads to unconditional revocation and suspension (order measure). 40 The company has 7.2 Also printing by third – X parties lack of measures leads to unreliable and/or procedures to complete the investigation. The employees structurally certificate holder must to be exempt from any proceedings to commercial, financial to counteract. Because or other forms of this pressure do not trouble themselves, which judge their will always occur and and/or the results and not active from the conclusions of the employer comes, can asbestos inventories suffice with being able to influence. conditional withdrawal. 41 Employees who 7.6.7 – X asbestos inventories have not been given the opportunity to become medical on a voluntary basis Machine Translated by Google tested for suitability for working with asbestos or wearing ABM The individual 7.6.7. 7.10.3 42 Exposure to occupational health – X sciences asbestos can still have consequences after long data and time exposure registry for the health of ies (including the workers. By the exposures in health contingencies data and the calamity situations) exposure of the concerned register it is employees are not possible that with archived up to and including complaints that after years at least 40 years after the doctor developed the last required information exposure. has to diagnose set and a to choose treatment. Conditional withdrawal is here acceptable. The certificate holder gets the resit to Machine Translated by Google a registration for the to set up the future, in which, if possible, data from the become past added. 43 The 7.6.7 7.10.2 7.10.3 – For X this 'exposure data' the same applies as for 42 (including exposures Subject to the conditions of . in the event of unforeseen the conditional calamity situations) withdrawal of the in any case added: inventors at • in the procedure is the recorded that the asbestos inventory work employees and the Works Council work will not be become from now on registered and/or notified; • brought the knowledge to the employees and the Works Council employee and/or the Works Council be informed about and/or these are not exposures in the at least until past. Archived 40 years after last exposure. 44 The company does not have 7.7.1 7.14.4 k X Machine Translated by Google established, which facilities and resources/equipment are necessary and suitable and/or suitable facilities and resources/ equipment are made available for the assurance of the control and continuous improvement of the asbestos inventory program ces 45 The company has 7.7.1 k X don't have a current business oriented Risk Inventory & -Evaluation (company RI&E). 46 The company has 7.7.1 k X not about a current one and complete Safety and health plan (H&S plan) Implementation phase, (partly) aimed at all safety, health, welfare and environmental care aspects of the responsible performing asbestos inventory work on a concrete project. 47 There are no clear 7.7.2 7.7.3 7.7.4 7.7.5 K X rules have been set 7.7.6 7.7.7 7.7.11 for the approval of 7.14.4 / the release of access to and use of a) facilities available and b) equipment and/or that these are on the Machine Translated by Google suitable use have been identified and/or that they have been checked for their safe and effective operation, calibrated (measuring equipment) and maintained where applicable. 48 There is no guarantee, 7.7.8 k X that the purchase and hiring of goods and services, prior to and upon acceptance/ delivery, meet clearly defined, specified requirements (product/ service specifications, certifications, accreditations, supplier assessments, WKA, supplier qualifications, list of approved suppliers, deviation reports, rejection and complaint records). 49 The company has 7.7.10 K/B/C/F X lack of established procedure for handling faulty equipment and examining the consequences of equipment that has been found to be defective: • on the quality of asbestos inventories carried out • and whether the defect is has resulted in an emission or exposure • Equipment failure X Machine Translated by Google is not taken out of operation until it is repaired • It is not investigated what the consequences of the defect X have been on the inventory • It is not investigated X whether the defect leads to an emission whether exposure has resulted 50 There are no 7.8.2 7.8.3 7.8.5 7.14 K X documents, forms and records available for assuring the control of the careful, expert, labor and environmentally responsible performance of a complete asbestos inventory on a concrete project (procedures, asbestos inventory plan, checklist). 51 For securing the 7.8.7 7.8.8 7.17 7.10.1 K X control of the 7.10.2 responsible execution of a asbestos inventory become the available documents, registrations or (evaluation) forms applied. 52 In case of deviation 7.8.4 7.9.2 If none of B/C/D/F X the argument becomes it Machine Translated by Google working methods in accordance with certificate suspended SC-540, are the (order measure) while alternative methods it is being investigated whether the not with arguments deviation substantiated was justified; The certificate will be also suspended (order measure) if the argument to brief is to determine whether the deviation is justified; The suspensions (order measure or sanction) run until the argument is given. if the deviation not was justified , is there a offense that according to the system becomes Machine Translated by Google completed. 53 The company does not have 7.8.6 7.9.2 k X provide for the pre- assessment, recording, approval and making operational of the requirements arising from the client, the applicable laws and regulations, SC-540 or its own business operations are required to fully and correctly carry out an asbestos inventory project. 54 It 7.9.1 f X Asbestos inventory project is not uniquely coded The associated samples are not uniquely coded. 55 X Deviations or 7.9.2 7.10.2 F/L(b) X irregularities, which affect the nature, completeness and/or security of the proposed asbestos inventory work activities are not recorded in the asbestos inventory report and/or not discussed in advance with the client. 56 It 7.9.2 7.9.3 L(b) X asbestos inventory work I'm not being prepared to improve the business processes, logistics and planning Machine Translated by Google set up in such a way that it is responsible for carrying out of a asbestos inventory. 57 The 7.10.3 – X Conditional asbestos inventory report revoke with if porting with condition in any inventory data case in accordance with the don't be at least archiving standards Archived for 10 years in a safe place, closed to third parties and effectively retrievable. 58 Reporting the 7.8.6 7.11.1 7.11.2 F X A asbestos inventory 7.12.3 7.17 asbestos inventory rap does not meet the port that not all required content like required data to report data contains, creates risks upon removal and then. The certificate serves unconditionally to be revoked and suspended (order measure) – X The report is not available 7.17 When segregating made available to actors, the Machine Translated by Google the client client the person are those the report to the remover and final assessor. If he ain't about it has, it can report not used become. 59 Asbestos inventory report 7.8.6 7.11.3 7.12.3 F X Ports have not been checked and approved for use by the client by 7.17 the technically responsible quality officer, management representative, internal assessor and/or this release check does not take place in consultation with the inventory employee(s). 60 Corrections on 7.8.6 7.11.4 7.17 f X or If a report needs to be added to a report, it should not be too substantiated and actually adjusted. become. In the report must be declared Machine Translated by Google that of it concerning element is deviated from. In a addendum to the report must be the become a deviation included and must be substantiated why is it deviated. Without this clear and full customization and motivation, exists the risk that there uncertainty occurs. This leads to the risk of errors and violations. A corrected X report does not lead to a clearly distinctive final report that has been re-checked and approved and released for use by the client. 61 The company does not hold 7.12.2 7.12.3 – X current files at Machine Translated by Google of the quality data and performance of suppliers / outsourcing, the results of entry checks, reviews and complaints, the assessments of strategic suppliers (supplier assessments, list of approved suppliers). 62 The implementation of the 7.14 f X asbestos inventory does not correspond to the applicable regulations. 63 The inventory plan 7.16 L(b) X does not match all applicable regulations. 64 The inventory plan 7.16 L(b) X does not correspond to the regulations and/or shows such serious defects / deviations that there is insufficient quality assurance and/or leads to directly risky situations. 65 When implementing 7.14 f X the asbestos inventory ie there is insufficient quality assurance, which leads to directly risky situations. 66 The research and the 3.4.6 3.4.7 7.14.9 f X It's just here Machine Translated by Google assessment of the, among other things, advice with regard to location- specific circumstances, working method. In the end including the considerations the remover will remove the alternative determine working methods, working methods, so that the lack of -circumstances this advice not directly protective measures to an unsafe and work sequence in the method. A combination with the conditional using the SMA-rt withdrawal is risk classification is justified. not concluded with an appropriate asbestos removal advice with acceptable asbestos emission. 67 The 7.15.1 asbestos f X inventory does not indicate what the boundaries are of the architectural unit to be examined, or the intended work/ remediation area. 68 The asbestos inventory 7.15.2 f X is limited to a source inventory. 69 There is no expedient 7.16 L(b) X inventory plan drawn up and/or available on location. It L(b) X asbestos inventory plate Machine Translated by Google n is not followed up The 70 investigation and the 7.16.2 f X inspections on the basis of the inventory plan and the checklist(s) with information from architectural and installation technical data does not take place in an appropriate manner. 71 With the 7.14.4 7.16.3.1 B X There will be a asbestos inventory 7.16.3.3 distinguished in does not become personal the reason the protection applied. resources do not become used. If the resources do not become used because it company not about the has resources or the resources not on the being a workplace is a unconditional withdrawal justified. In the event that the resources are available be places, but not be used is the lower sanction of Machine Translated by Google suspension justified. The suspension can be lifted as it drug is used and measures are struck to ensure that the remedy henceforth becomes used. The company does not have the resources or they are not on site The resources are not carried/ X used incorrectly 72 At the 7.14.4 7.16.3.1 B/C X asbestos inventory 7.16.3.2 7.16.3.3 the required PPE/ABM, decontamination procedures or fundamental source-oriented emission abatement working methods do not or to get wrong applied. 73 It 7.17 f X asbestos inventory report does not comply with applicable regulations. Machine Translated by Google Deviations No. CKI sanction Project location SC-540 par. Cluster Layout cat. I cat. II cat. III cat. IV Comments 1 The work has not been reported 7.8.1 I X (via the LAVS) to the CKI The notification period is 2 7.8.1 I X not taken into account 3 Project preparation 7.16 L(b) X has not taken place The project preparation has led to an asbestos inventory plan with the following deficiencies: • checking (and maintenance of) the suitability of the equipment, materials and tools; • up-to- dateness is not assured; • inventory is not possible are carried out undisturbed and completely • registrations and agreements about possible deviations are not known 4 The self-employed G X asbestos inventor is not qualified (personal certificate DIA, experienced DTA(-B) with CV, og); The Inventory 5 – X does not have proof of medical fitness for the Machine Translated by Google working under asbestos conditions with personal protective equipment and respiratory protection, The Inventory – X has its own statement in which it is substantiated not to do so. 6 There is at the work location L(b) X no asbestos inventory plan available 7 It L(b) asbestos inventory plan is not complete because of: • the project is not X uniquely registered; • when examining an X incomplete building, object or construction, the limitation has not been established; • choice for the X the classification made is not substantiated with arguments; • the study X site/room(s) has not been identified in such a way that completeness, traceability and reproducibility is guaranteed; • the principles from the X contract agreements and desk research are not/are not clearly fixed; • registrations of and agreements about X Machine Translated by Google any deviations are not / not clearly recorded. 8 Observations and 7.10 sketches/ f X drawings indicating the location and nature of asbestos are not recorded, registered or documented. 9 In the 7.16 L(b) X inventory plan are organizational and technical agreements with the client and third parties about safety aspects, measures, accessibility, demarcations, barriers, responsibilities, working hours, etc. (H&S plan Implementation phase, project RI&E) not established. 10 The Inventory k X does not have described procedures for primary personal cleaning and cleaning of tools / equipment 11 The inventory plan k X does not contain (references to) procedures for safely entering and exiting suspected contaminated locations, taking samples, source-oriented Machine Translated by Google emission-reducing methods, etc. 12 At the work location L(c) X not complete and current emergency plan with registration options available 13 The Inventory L(b) X does not work in accordance with the checklist(s) tailored to the project, as included in the inventory plan 14 The used f X research methodology does not lead to a inventory of all spaces and construction parts (incl. crawl spaces, shafts, ducts/ ducts, chimneys, spaces above ceilings / ceiling cavities, wall cavities, above/behind fixed cupboards, cellars, attics, attics, technical rooms, etc.) 15 Being at the job site B X no suitable equipment, materials and suitable aids or tools (not being protective equipment) are present or are not in good condition Machine Translated by Google maintained condition 16 The Inventory B X does not have (suitable) PPE/ABM, these are not present at the workplace or are not in a well-maintained condition 17 The work equipment B X have no identification code provided with a valid inspection and, where applicable, calibration The inspection/ B X calibration period of the work equipment has expired 18 In case of a 7.15.1 L(b) X independent architectural unit: The scope of the project is not clearly defined 19 If a structure or f X object does not need to be complete inventoried: Not all sources of asbestos within the architectural or installation engineering unit, as part of a structure or object, from which asbestos must be removed, are included in the inventory brought. 20 The inventory f X within a structural engineer Machine Translated by Google or installation technical unit is limited to a separate architectural or installation technical element / construction element 21 Not / is not clear L(b) X recorded, what the intended inventory activities are It is not indicated which f X type of inventory (type A or B) it concerns 22 The bee inventory f X Type A spaces, places or objects that have been found to be inaccessible are not immediately and clearly registered. 23 The limited f X inventory is not followed with the notification to the client that a follow-up is needed 24 An overview of the f X It may be that a reasonable suspicion inventory (right present, not directly or wrongly) restricted detectable asbestos is has been, but still not directly and provides information about clearly registered suspected presence of Machine Translated by Google asbestos. In that case must suspect this too be included for future employers and users. However, because these employers and users too own responsibility have is at the lack of these statement conditional withdrawal a sufficient sanction. 25 The inventory type f X B does not take place by means of destructive testing, including architectural construction parts and installation technical elements 26 The f X constructions and elements that have not yet been found to be accessible are not directly and clearly registered in Machine Translated by Google awaiting the necessary destructive examination or (demolition) work or the intended work. 27 Because of f X completeness of the asbestos inventory, there is no next final inventory phase place prior to the start of other demolition work 28 the destructive B/C Here is the penalty research does not find according to SC-530 place with due observance from (precautionary) measures in accordance with SC-530 29 One or more of the f X next by the inventor collected source data and location-specific circumstances, necessary for the determination of the risk class, are not recorded: – location (inside, outside situations) and relative size in relation to the location space; – nature, composition, bondage; - extent from weathering/aging; deterioration/damage; – method of confirmation – method(s) of removal – Machine Translated by Google accessibility, drainage options; – other relevant source or environmental characteristics 30 Not of all f X asbestos-suspicious sources are the quantities (size or weight or volume) indicated on the floor plan and/or registered? 31 Not of any if f X asbestos (suspicious) source is a representative sample taken 32 From materials in which f X the asbestos can be present inhomogeneously, samples are not spread over different places taken 33 The samples taken f X are not analyzed by a person for this transaction (NEN 5896) accredited laboratory 34 Sampling takes place f X not by a NEN 5896 accredited laboratory, or SC-540 certified inventory company or a corresponding SC-560 DIA Qualified/Certified Inventory 35 Samples become X Machine Translated by Google not performed in accordance with risk class 1 conditions 36 Will be the place of C X Not enough sampling shielding the /not enough instead of demarcated/ screened sampling increased of the environment the risk of spread of the asbestos fibers that release at sampling 37 Becomes true there C X fiber emission cannot be prevented in any other way, no point extraction is used 38 Become, where necessary B X There will be a by the local distinguished in circumstances, no the reason the protective clothing and resources do not become respiratory protection used. If the (PPE/ABM = at least P3 resources do not become half mask) used because it behave company not about the has resources or the resources not on the Machine Translated by Google being a workplace is a unconditional withdrawal justified. In the event that the resources are available be places, but not be used is the lower sanction of suspension justified. The suspension can be lifted as it drug is used and measures are struck to ensure that the remedy will be used from now on The company does not have the resources or the resources are not in the workplace The resources are in X the workplace but are not applied 39 Personal cleaning d X and cleaning of tools does not take place Machine Translated by Google 40 Fracture surfaces d X are not impregnated/ encapsulated/sealed 41 The sample location will be d X not carefully cleaned after sampling. the application locations f X from sources suspected of asbestos are not uniquely registered (photos, drawings) 42 The places of f X samples are not uniquely marked and recorded 43 Monsters don't become C X as a material containing asbestos, packed fibre- tight and uniquely marked 44 The way of packaging C X leads to fiber emission during handling, transportation or shipping. 45 During the performance C X destructive digestion methods do not prevent exposure to asbestos fibers and the spread of asbestos contaminants 46 Despite the suspicion C X from with non-bonded asbestos containing Machine Translated by Google materials contaminated spaces becomes the inventory not in a shielded workspace, or enclosed workspace under using a decontamination procedure performed 47 The client becomes – X A certificate holder not immediately and is an expert on the briefed about the field of asbestos. He presence of is from that non-suture expertise required asbestos, which leads to direct to dangerous transgressive report situations. exposure can If he doesn't lead. measures can meet, he should client of the danger to be informed propose and advise about the take measures. Since this in itself being outside tasks like inventor is located, is conditional Machine Translated by Google withdrawal acceptable. the te take measures consist of that in the organization secured will this one violation from now on is prevented 48 – See violation [47] point X 7.29 appropriate advice is not given (take organizational and technical measures, have a risk assessment carried out in accordance with NEN 2991) 49 The registrations of f X location data and observations are not such that, in accordance with SC-540, a correct asbestos inventory report can be prepared 50 It – X Exposure to exposure registry asbestos is still possible after a long time from the inventor time have consequences is not going to happen for the health of of the the employees. By the Machine Translated by Google inventory inspection health professional ash and padded data and the registrations correct exposure to kept up. register it is possible that at complaints that after years arise the doctor de required information has to diagnose set and a to choose treatment. Conditional withdrawal is here acceptable. The certificate holder gets the resit to a registration for the to set up the future, in which, if possible, data from the become past added. 51 The DIA that 7.14.4 X asbestos inventory Machine Translated by Google work is performed has not been instructed on the correct use of ABM via www.vezelveiligheid.nl/ respiratory protection and/ or is not wearing an appropriate ABM assessed on the basis of a fitness test in accordance with the HSE protocol. Appendix I-1 [Cancelled.] Annex I-2 [Cancelled.] Appendix J. General measures (v) It is well known that exposure to asbestos fibers is very dangerous. Asbestos fibers can cause damage to health and death. The core idea of the rules regarding asbestos is that it concerns people's lives and health. This risk of exposure means that when it comes to handling asbestos, very careful action must be taken. The government must be able to rely on companies and individuals involved in working with asbestos to act very carefully and to limit the risk of exposure to the lowest possible level. This means that it is required that they adhere to the rules that apply to working with and around asbestos. If the risk of exposure is not kept as low as possible or a person does not follow the rules, the government must take strict action to protect the health and life of people. The government has chosen to guarantee the accuracy of asbestos inventory companies and asbestos removal companies and the persons employed in these companies by means of a certification system. Only those companies and persons that have a certificate are allowed to perform activities with asbestos (insofar as the law makes such a certificate mandatory). It is essential that the government must be able to trust that certificate holders will comply with the rules and minimize the risk of exposure. A certificate holder who does not act in accordance with the rules betrays that trust and should in principle lose his certificate. This company can no longer be trusted to act diligently. Therefore, he loses his certificate. A certificate holder who Machine Translated by Google does not minimize the risk of asbestos emission or even causes asbestos contamination, has not acted with sufficient care and should in principle lose its certificate. It is not an actual exposure alone that is grounds for unconditional withdrawal. Only the risk of asbestos emission or the increase of this risk already means that a certificate holder who allows such a risk to arise, is no longer allowed to perform the work. After all, the aim of the regulations is to prevent emissions and exposure. To achieve this goal, the risk of emissions and exposure must be minimized. It is not acceptable that a certificate holder who increases risks only loses his certificate if the risk is realized and people have been exposed. The withdrawal of the certificate is quickly justified when the interests involved are weighed up. When weighing the interests of people that their health and lives are not endangered by exposure to asbestos fibers and the interest of the company to be able to carry out its work, the interests of people's health and life always take precedence. The fact that the revocation of the certificate will lead to the end of the activities is, in view of the interests, proportional. The end of the activities is therefore an accepted consequence and not a reason not to revoke the certificate. Not even in those limited cases that this leads to the end of the company. The possibility of a second chance or continuing to work without conditions may only be used if this is acceptable, i.e. the violation has not led to a high risk of exposure and it is sufficiently guaranteed that the life and health of people will no longer be endangered. Repetition of breaking the rules and allowing (the risk of) an asbestos emission to arise will certainly lead to the withdrawal of the certificate. Recovery sanctions The foregoing means that the core of the sanction system is that a (legal) person who does not work in accordance with the rules is no longer allowed to perform the work. The basic principle is that such a (legal) person loses the certificate. It has been decided not to immediately withdraw the certificate in the event of a first deviation. The certificate holder is given a second chance. The resit consists of the certificate being suspended, causing the certificate to lose its validity. If the certificate holder has taken sufficient measures, the suspension will be withdrawn. However, there is a difference in the seriousness of deviations, which means that there are deviations where it is acceptable that the certificate retains its validity while the certificate holder takes the measures. The certificate will be revoked if the certificate holder does not take sufficient measures within the term. As mentioned, a certificate holder who continues to commit violations will lose his certificate regardless of the seriousness of the violations. In the sanctions system, a distinction is made between four remedial sanctions: 1. unconditional withdrawal 2. suspension Machine Translated by Google 3. conditional withdrawal 4. warning to 1 the certificate becomes withdrawn without a resit; the certificate to 2 loses its validity until the deviation has been removed and is sufficient demonstrated that the violation will not be repeated; the certificate to 3 becomes withdrawn if certain measures have not been taken within a specified period. The certificate holder can continue to work during that period, but will lose his certificate without further decision if the measures taken have not been taken before a certain date; to 4 the certificate holder the deviation is pointed out, but this deviation does not (yet) affect the validity of the certificate. Furthermore, section 5.5.2.3 describes how in the event of repeated non-conformities, the remedial sanctions increase in severity up to the withdrawal of the certificate. Annex I lists the remedial sanction to which a certain deviation leads. Suspension as an order measure Machine Translated by Google In addition to the remedial sanctions, suspension is provided as a disciplinary measure whereby the certificate is suspended with regard to a location, a project or work. Here, suspension is not imposed as a recovery sanction, but the certificate holder is prevented from continuing to work while the sanction procedure is running. The unconditional withdrawal and suspension (remedial sanction) are not immediately imposed if the deviation is found. First, a procedure is followed. Only at the end of this procedure does the CKI make its decision and the certificate loses its validity (or not). In principle, the certificate is valid during this procedure and the certificate holder is allowed to perform the relevant work. Due to the suspension as a remedial measure, the certificate holder is not allowed to continue working at the relevant location, project or work during the procedure. The disciplinary measure suspension must be used if continuing to work by the certificate holder is not acceptable. Suspension is, for example, appropriate if an asbestos emission has taken place or the risk of an emission has increased significantly. As a result, the certificate holder has endangered the life and health of people. Even in cases where such a situation may exist, but this has yet to be fully investigated, there may be grounds for suspension. If the CKI can reasonably judge that there has been a danger to the life and health of people, and that the certificate will be revoked or suspended unconditionally (remedial sanction), suspension (orderly measure) is appropriate. The risk that the certificate holder has endangered the life and health of people is too great to allow the certificate holder to continue working. In the event that after the procedure it appears that the situation was not so serious or that no unconditional withdrawal or suspension (remedial sanction) is imposed, the suspension (orderly measure) has nevertheless been correctly imposed. The fact that it could reasonably be judged by the CKI that life and health were endangered means that the suspension as a disciplinary measure was justified. used to be. When asking whether suspension should be used as a disciplinary measure, the CKI will have to consider whether allowing this certificate holder to continue working is justified in view of the importance of people (employees and others) not to be exposed to asbestos fibres. The subdivision of the deviations indicates when suspension (orderly measure) must in any case be applied. Performing activities at the relevant location or project during a suspension, or performing the relevant activities for which a certificate is required that has been suspended, will lead to unconditional withdrawal. The suspension must, however, give the certificate holder the opportunity to remove any danger that has arisen and to safeguard the situation. Category classification Machine Translated by Google In the certification schemes, deviations are divided into categories to which one of the aforementioned remedial sanctions is attached. Category I – unconditional withdrawal Category II – suspension Category III – conditional withdrawal Category IV – warning The basic principle in classifying the deviations is that violations that lead to exposure or increase the risk of exposure fall under category II. Other derogations will fall under category III, with exceptions to category II and IV. If the certificate holder performs the certified activities (or related activities) while the certificate is suspended (both recovery sanction and disciplinary action), the certificate will be revoked unconditionally. Acting in the spirit of a standard A standard protects certain interests. It is sometimes argued that that interest can be protected in another way. This is not important. The competent authority has determined that the interest is represented in the prescribed manner. It is not up to a certificate holder to ignore this and determine its own measures. There is a deviation and this leads to the imposition of the remedial sanction. These levels have been further elaborated in the so-called escalation ladder. Annex K. Breakdown of the deviations (v) The abnormalities can be divided into a number of types or clusters of abnormalities. Below is a general description of the cluster of violations and the sanction they should lead to. What about open concepts such as 'sufficient' or 'sound'? considered, has been entered in, for example, the regulations, the schedules or in the list of deviations. Within the clusters, reasons will be given for a number of standards as to why violation of these standards leads to a specific sanction. The clusters are listed below. Within these clusters, a number of types of non-conformities are discussed with the prescribed sanction and motivation. It is also prescribed when suspension (orderly measure) must in any case be imposed. The fact that suspension (orderly measure) is not prescribed does not mean that a suspension (orderly measure) should not be imposed. In each specific case, the CKI will have to assess whether suspension (orderly measure) is appropriate. It is possible that the certificate holder is so quick with his recovery measures that the conditions already exist Machine Translated by Google for the withdrawal of the suspension (remedial sanction) has been paid before this sanction has been imposed. In that case, a suspension of 0 hours will be imposed. A. Violation of norms guaranteeing independence and objectivity This type concerns provisions that safeguard the independence and objectivity of the various actors within the process. The following phases are followed in asbestos work: 1) the assignment 2) inventory of asbestos 3) removing asbestos 4) the final assessment There are therefore different (legal) persons: the client, the asbestos inventory company, the asbestos removal company and the final assessor. Various people are active within and behind the legal entities and companies. If a (legal) person plays a role in different phases in the process, the independence and objectivity in the various phases are compromised. Practice has shown that an important factor behind violations lies in the fact that the same (legal) persons appear in different phases of asbestos work. Provisions are included in the schemes that create 'divisions' between these actors, by prohibiting double roles of the various actors (and their people). These partitions are based on situations encountered in practice by, for example, the Inspectorate SZW and CKIs. If the prohibited regarding objectivity and independence are violated, this leads to conditional withdrawal of the certificate. A violation of such a provision does not directly lead to exposure or increase the risk. Deviations belonging to this cluster will in principle be classified in category III. Violation of this may be a contributing factor to another violation that led to exposure or increased this risk. If this is the case, this other violation will already lead to a more severe sanction. If provisions have been violated that see to it transparent Machine Translated by Google to determine what the roles of the natural and legal persons are at a client, asbestos removal or asbestos inventory bed Rijf and the final grader, this also leads to conditional withdrawal. After all, without this transparency, it cannot be assessed whether the provisions regarding independence and objectivity have been met. If the certificate holder makes it impossible to properly check a provision, this will lead to the same sanction as that imposed for violation of the standard to be checked. B. Violation of Standards to Prevent Employee Exposure This group of provisions concerns the prevention of workers being exposed to asbestos fibres. When asbestos is removed, asbestos fibers are released in risk classes '2 and 2A'. This follows from the nature of this risk class. The person who actually makes an inventory will also often be exposed to asbestos fibres, for example when it comes to making an inventory of non-bonded asbestos or of asbestos-containing material that is damaged or weathered. The worker will therefore be exposed to asbestos fibers and must be protected against it. This concerns, for example, measures such as: •. sufficient personal protective equipment (PPE) in the workplace; •. the PPE meets the inspection requirements; •. the PPEs are well maintained; •. the PPE works; and, •. the PPE is worn and used. If not all employees wear the correct PPE and the company does not have sufficient (properly) functioning PPE will lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (orderly measure). Machine Translated by Google The company has proceeded to inventory or remove asbestos, while it cannot meet the standards. If the resources are not there, life and health are decisive: work is not allowed. If there are not enough (properly) functioning PPE in the workplace, but the company does have one: suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (order measure). After all, it makes little difference to the employee whether the company does not have the PPE or whether they are not at the workplace. In either case, he cannot use them. In that case, the employer must not allow the work to commence. If he does so and the employee works without PPE, the same applies as for the previous category. If not all employees wear PPE and use it correctly, but there are sufficient proper PPE in the workplace: conditional withdrawal and suspension (orderly measure). The employer itself has provided the means. The problem is in the application. The employer must find out how the violation arose (why did the employees not wear the PPE) and take measures to prevent a recurrence. Which measures these are depend on the situation and the reason the PPE was not worn. Only addressing the employees/supervisors will in general be insufficient. Measures will also have to be taken from the employer. If the PPE does not work properly, the certificate must be suspended Machine Translated by Google (remedial sanction) and suspended (orderly measure). The employees are put to work unsecured, while they think they are safe. If the PPE has not been properly maintained or has not been replaced in time, but it does work, the certificate must be be conditionally withdrawn. The workers are protected, but the risk that the PPE will stop functioning due to lack of maintenance puts them at risk. If the faulty maintenance or lack of control leads to the PPE no longer working safely, on the basis of this violation the certificate will be conditionally revoked. C. Violation of standards to prevent the asbestos from spreading outside the immediate place where it is being remediated This group of provisions ensures that asbestos fibers are prevented from escaping the immediate space/place where the asbestos is removed or the inventory is made. The way in which the spread of asbestos fibers should be prevented depends on the method of inventory or removal of the asbestos. This method is determined by the law, the schedules and the details in the work plan. There is also the possibility that asbestos fibers may be released during the inventory of asbestos, for example in the case of non-bonded asbestos or through sampling. The spread of asbestos must also be prevented here. Examples of such obligations are: •. resources must be available at the workplace to make an inventory of asbestos in accordance with the regulations. This concerns means such as: deco unit, negative pressure equipment, means for containment, glove bags, container, bags, etc.; •. obligations for the correct use of these resources: there is sufficient negative pressure, the decontamination procedure is carried out correctly, there is sufficient supervision of these obligations; •. the negative pressure must be checked and recorded regularly; •. obligations to collect and dispose of the asbestos fibers during the work; •. the containment contained; Machine Translated by Google •. what should be taped is taped. If provisions of this type are violated, there is a risk of an asbestos emission. Not only employees, but also third parties, such as local residents and passers-by, can be exposed. Furthermore, it is difficult to determine and completely purify the contaminated area in the event of an asbestos emission. If not all necessary resources are used or if the company does not have these resources, this will lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (orderly measure). The same applies here as if the company does not have sufficient PPE. The certificate holder is engaged in asbestos work for which he cannot comply with the law. He certainly did not do everything to minimize the risk of an asbestos emission. If the resources are not there, life and health are decisive: there is no work. This is even more true here, as others than the workers are also at risk of exposure. The lack of resources in the workplace to prevent the spread of the asbestos fibers also leads to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (order measure). Again, it does not matter to individuals whether the company has the resources or not. If the resources are not in the workplace, they are not used. If the containment is not applied or applied in accordance with the rules, there is a high risk of emissions. Machine Translated by Google Suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (orderly measure) are then appropriate. A containment that is not contained will not prevent the spread of asbestos fibers. As a result, not only employees, but also others can be exposed. If the pressure of the containment is not measured in accordance with the rules, the certificate must be conditionally revoked. Measuring checks whether the containment works. If this is not measured, there is a risk that (due to unforeseen circumstances) the negative pressure will become too low. The risk of emission then arises. However, the fact that there is no measurement does not mean that there is direct exposure. Conditional withdrawal is acceptable. D. Violation of standards regarding workplace clean-up, waste, asbestos, etc. This group of provisions ensures that the place where asbestos fibers have come is left uncontaminated. In essence: cleaning up; make sure no asbestos fibers remain. Examples of such obligations are: •. pack and dispose of the removed asbestos as soon as possible in the correct packaging; •. clean the places where asbestos may have come; •. clean the PPE and other equipment; •. perform a visual inspection; •. have a final check carried out; •. ensure that the objects in the room cannot become contaminated (remove, tape, etc.); •. if a sample has been taken, ensure that any source that may have arisen is identified shielded; and, •. if a source has been released through destructive testing, make sure it is shielded. If material containing asbestos or contaminated material unprotected Machine Translated by Google is located outside the workplace and is not bonded (including weathered or damaged), this should lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (sanction measure). The certificate holder has disclosed a source of contamination. This concerns both unpackaged material and material in open/damaged packaging. If the asbestos-containing material or contaminated material has not been packed in the correct packaging, this should lead to conditional withdrawal if the material is undamaged. There is no source of contamination yet and the risk of contamination is not great enough for this lower sanction to be acceptable. If the asbestos-containing material improperly packaged and unattached or weathered or is damaged, the certificate must be suspended (repair sanction). The suspension should also be taken as a disciplinary measure. Machine Translated by Google If the packaging is damaged, there is an immediate source of contamination. If it is not indicated that it concerns asbestos, the material will be handled less carefully. This increases the risk of damage. There is also a risk that the material is processed incorrectly, causing it to end up in the living environment. The certificate holder must find out how this violation arose, remove it and take measures to ensure that the violation will not be repeated. Then the suspension (remedial sanction) can be withdrawn. If there is (potentially) asbestos-contaminated material outside the is located where asbestos is or has been removed and this is not fiber-tight protected, this should lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (orderly measure). If material was not shielded fibre-tight in a room where asbestos fibers could be released, there is a great risk that this material is contaminated. If it is subsequently taken outside the protected area, the asbestos fibers are expelled and an emission or in any case a risk of exposure arises. Items such as filters and water can also become contaminated and must be disposed of in such a way that no fiber emission is possible. E. Violation consisting of incorrect removal or removal in too low a risk class On the basis of the working conditions legislation, the asbestos must be removed in the risk class of the inventory report and the corresponding measures must be taken. However, the work must be carried out in a higher class if the actual nature of the work or the condition of the asbestos requires this. This exception from the actual situation does not apply if the risk classification in the report is too high. The risk class classification in the asbestos inventory report forms the lower limit. If, according to the asbestos inventory report, the activities must be performed in risk class 2, for example, they must be performed in risk class 2. Even if the work can actually be performed in risk class 1. Machine Translated by Google The fact that an asbestos inventory report is unclear or insufficient does not mean that the remover must compensate for this. He must refuse to carry out the work until there is a proper report. A remover will always have to assess on the basis of the situation encountered whether he should not work in a higher class than indicated in the report. In that case, an additional and re-approved inventory report will be required. If an asbestos removal company does not operate in accordance with the measures that belong to the risk class prescribed by law, this will lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (public order measure). The risk class is the basis for the measures to be taken. The law is clear with regard to which risk class must be worked in. If the certificate holder does not take the measures that belong to this risk class, the certificate must be suspended. If the asbestos remover does not have a proper asbestos inventory report, his certificate must be suspended (remediation sanction) and suspended (orderly measure). An asbestos remover may not start his work without a proper asbestos inventory report. A disposer operating without a proper report risks exposure and emissions. It is his choice to work with a faulty report and at his own risk if he commits violations as a result. In the event of a faulty report, the remover must cease his activities and wait until the client provides a proper report. If he nevertheless starts to remove asbestos, this should lead to suspension (remedial sanction and order measure). Machine Translated by Google If (a copy of) the asbestos inventory report is not present at the place where asbestos is removed, this should lead to conditional withdrawal. The information provided by the asbestos inventory report is necessary in the workplace. The information from the report should also be included in the work. If this information is not available, this leads to an increase in the risk of exposure. However, the availability of the information in the workplace does not always require the asbestos inventory report to be in the workplace. The absence of the report does not necessarily lead to exposure or increase the risk. It is acceptable that this deviation leads to conditional withdrawal. With this violation, too, the lack of information caused by the report being away from the workplace may have already led to a violation leading to conditional withdrawal. The foregoing also applies to an unclear copy of the report. F. Violations related to the inventory of the asbestos The basis for safe removal of asbestos is the asbestos inventory. This allows the remover to know what it will encounter and to plan and execute the removal. Furthermore, the remover will deliver the structure or the relevant part thereof free of asbestos, so that the contractor will not find any asbestos during his work and the user will not find any asbestos during use. In an inventory, all the asbestos present must be inventoried. The asbestos inventor will not be allowed to limit his investigation without reason. If work has to be carried out at a certain place, the inventor will have to make an inventory there. If the inventory is not complete, there is a risk that the remover or the contractor unexpectedly encounters asbestos during his work. Often this is already damaged by the time it is discovered that it is asbestos, so that asbestos emission and exposure to asbestos fibers has already taken place. It is precisely the intention that these kinds of surprises are prevented by a full and in-depth investigation by the inventor. The report must state all relevant information about the asbestos, such as the nature of the asbestos, the concentration of asbestos in the material and the condition of the material. Each piece of asbestos must also be identified uniquely in the sense that the remover can link the data in the report to the situation he finds. After all, the remover must be able to find the asbestos and know what he is dealing with. Machine Translated by Google The following defects with regard to the asbestos inventory must lead to the suspension: (remedial sanction and disciplinary measure) of the certificate: • the asbestos inventor has not examined the entire location, building (part), structure or object where will be worked; • he has not carried out any destructive testing in situations where demolition/renovation/ conversion etc. will take place; • not all asbestos has a unique characteristic; • is not made of all asbestos material taken a sample; • not all asbestos is indicated in the report with all the necessary information, such as location, degree of concentration and condition of the material, etc. If the report is not complete or does not contain all the data, it does not fulfill its primary function. In addition, an incomplete report leads to a risk of exposure to asbestos fibres. The asbestos remover must be able to rely on the completeness and accuracy of the report. A distinction is made between a type A asbestos inventory (directly observable asbestos) and a type B asbestos inventory (non-directly observable asbestos). We can only speak of a complete asbestos inventory report if all asbestos on the site, in the structure or object has been inventoried (insofar as work will be carried out there). If only the observable asbestos was considered during the inventory, it is usually not possible to speak of a complete asbestos inventory report. Machine Translated by Google Such an incomplete report cannot be regarded as a violation by the certificate holder if it was only his assignment to conduct a type A investigation. The certificate holder will have to clearly indicate the limitations of the research in the report. He will also have to point out the risks of such a limited report in the report. Classification in a risk class that is too low leads to suspension (remedial sanction and disciplinary measure). The inventor must determine the risk class on the basis of his research. The risk classification is often already determined by the nature and condition of the asbestos found. The asbestos remover and other employers must be able to rely on the inventory report. Practice shows that many removers and other employers rely on the classification in the report. This means that a classification that is too low leads to insufficient measures being taken. This is especially important if risk class 1 is incorrectly defined indicated. Since an incorrect risk classification increases the risk of asbestos emission and exposure, a lower sanction is not acceptable. If the disposer deviates from the method described in the report, he will have to determine for himself whether this has consequences for the risk classification. The risk class classification from the report still applies as the lower limit. G. Violations of Employee Competence/Knowledge/Certification Standards Pursuant to the working conditions legislation, the work must be performed under the constant supervision of a DTA officer. The work should be performed by persons with a DAV certificate. These certificates guarantee that asbestos removal work is carried out by persons with sufficient expertise and knowledge. If there is insufficient knowledge and expertise, there is a risk that asbestos fibers will be released and spread as a result of (unintentional) errors. DTA-er The DTA's role is to continuously monitor the asbestos removal work. The DTA-er is the employer's representative at the workplace. He must identify emerging problems, solve them or provide feedback to the employer. He must also prevent unforeseen situations from leading to problems. He must also ensure that employees comply with the rules and do not endanger the safety of themselves, their colleagues and other persons. With all Machine Translated by Google There is a danger that due to routine, human laziness, misjudgment of the risks or 'just as quick' thinking, there is a danger that the employees act unsafely. It is then crucial that the DTA person is there and prevents them from doing so. The consequence of this role is that if he is not there, the work will not be performed during his absence. If the work is so extensive that one DTA person cannot supervise everywhere, several must be present at work. If there is no certified DTA person present at work and he is not arranged, the certificate must be suspended (remedial sanction and disciplinary measure). The fact that no certified DTA has been arranged means that the employer has planned the work in violation of the law and schedules. Given the importance of the DTA person to supervise the employees and to act in the event of (unforeseen) problems, this means that the certificate must be suspended (remedial sanction and order measure). If the certified DTA-er does not continuously supervise (i.e. is not present where asbestos removal work is carried out), this should lead to suspension (remedial sanction and disciplinary measure). The DTA person must monitor continuously. If the work takes place without a DTA, an important link in safety is missing. Working without this link should lead to the suspension of the certificate. The difference with the previous category is that a DTA employee was arranged, but he was not present during the work. This is not important. If there is no DTA at the asbestos removal work, it does not matter whether or not a DTA was arranged. He's not there so he can't supervise. If the asbestos removal work is so extensive that one Machine Translated by Google DTA-er cannot be present at all activities, there is not a DTA-er present at all asbestos removal activities. This violation also applies. The certificate holder must arrange a sufficient number of DTA staff, so that a DTA staff member is present for all asbestos removal work. If the certificate holder does not employ a certified DTA person on the basis of an employment contract, this must lead to conditional withdrawal. The fact that the employer does not employ a DTA does not mean that no DTA supervises the work. Conditional withdrawal is acceptable. If the fact that no DTA person is employed means that there are no or insufficient DTA employees at the work, the certificate will be suspended (remedial sanction and disciplinary measure). After all, there are not enough DTA staff present. DAV-er In the event that uncertified persons carry out asbestos removal work, this should lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (orderly measure). Asbestos is so dangerous to workers and others that any person actually performing asbestos removal work must have and maintain minimal training. This is guaranteed via the DAV certificate. The DAV person must know what the risks are, what the role of the security measures is, when he has to engage the DTA person. In short: he must know what he is doing. The consequence of carrying out asbestos work by uncertified persons must be that this is terminated and that measures are taken to prevent recurrence. Until then, work is not allowed. This means that both must be suspended and Machine Translated by Google disciplinary measure such as that the sanction of suspension must be imposed until it is sufficiently guaranteed that an uncertified person does not perform asbestos work again. DIA-er In the event that unqualified persons asbestos inventory work carrying out activities, this should lead to suspension and suspension (orderly measure) In view of the importance of a proper asbestos inventory report, the inventor should have sufficient knowledge and expertise. H. Violation of standards related to analyzing the work, the company etc. and learning from experience It is important to learn from anomalies and incidents and near anomalies and - incidents. It is a continuous process to continue to guarantee safety on the basis of experience. This prevents deviations and incidents, increasing safety and compliance with the rules. The certificate holder must also regularly analyze its business operations to see whether it functions sufficiently and whether no improvements can be made. If there is a structure within which learning takes place, learning is real. This constantly raises the question whether learning can be done. In an ad hoc learning system, learning is diluted and moments that can be learned are not identified. This concerns, for example, the following types of standards: •. the inventor and asbestos remover must have a structural have a learning system (recorded and verifiable); •. the inventor and asbestos remover must apply this system; •. if (near) deviations or (near) incidents occur, the inventor and the asbestos remover must pay demonstrable attention to this. In this context, he should ask questions such as: how could this have happened? What have been the consequences? How will this be prevented in the future? These rules are independent of the obligation to rectify a deviation and incident as soon as possible. This learning looks to the future. In general, will Machine Translated by Google Violation of the above 3 types of standards will lead to a warning. Violation of these provisions increases the risk of emissions and exposure during concrete activities to a lesser extent. It is acceptable to give the certificate holder time to undo the violation by, for example, setting up and applying a learning system or applying an established learning system. I. Notification obligations The regulations contain a number of obligations to report activities. The background to these notification obligations is that the relevant authority can carry out an inspection. Such an inspection may consist of conducting an on-site investigation, but may also involve, for example, requesting documents, such as the asbestos inventory report, to check its correctness and completeness. The aim is to achieve effective supervision. If the activities are not reported in time, the certificate holder can prevent an inspection and thereby hide violations. Failure to report work (in time) must be lead to a conditional withdrawal. A first violation of this is not so serious that it is not acceptable that the certificate holder is given a second chance. During the period of the conditional withdrawal, the certificate holder must take measures to prevent that notification is not made or is reported too late. Of course, all activities must be reported in a timely manner during this period. It is possible that only after the expiry of the stipulated period it becomes apparent that activities have not been reported during this period. This is then treated as a second violation in the escalation ladder. J. Carrying out the work yourself It sometimes happens that an asbestos inventor or remover subcontracts the inventory or removal work in whole or in part. The problem with this is that it often becomes unclear who is responsible for what. This lack of clarity increases the risk that measures will not be taken, because the persons involved believe that someone else will take the measures. Machine Translated by Google If the certificate holder not accepted or assigned work (fully) carries out and outsources it yourself to a non-certified company, the certificate be conditionally withdrawn. Not performing the work yourself does not directly lead to exposure or increase the risk. Conditional withdrawal is acceptable. The company that outsources remains fully responsible itself in the event of hiring or outsourcing. She will be (partly) addressed if a company to which (part of) the work has been outsourced makes a mistake. If there is a violation by the company to which work has been outsourced, this is considered a violation by the outsourcing certificate holder. This is irrespective of whether the person to whom the outsourcing is carried out is certified. This can lead to the outsourcing company being penalized more severely than the company to which the outsourcing is done, because the outsourcer is repetitive. In the event of further outsourcing, the above applies to the entire chain. Suppose that asbestos remover A outsources part of the work to asbestos remover B, who in turn outsources part of it to asbestos remover C. If C commits a violation, this is considered a violation of both A, B and C. If circumstances prevent the certificate holder from performing the work, he can also resolve this by returning the order. He can also hire employees or hire resources to be able to do the work anyway. K. Organization of the company The regulations contain many provisions regarding the organization of the company. For example, the company must have certain officers appointed, certain procedures must be drawn up and there must be a quality system. The importance of such rules is often wrongly underestimated and regarded as unnecessary bureaucracy. A good organization, however, leads to better quality assurance, the prevention of ad hoc solutions and the prevention of deviations. If the company Machine Translated by Google does not have mandatory officers, procedures, records or systems or if the procedures, records or systems are not sufficient, this will generally lead to a conditional withdrawal. Most of the rules are clear and easy to follow. The fact that the certificate holder has not followed the rules means that the government cannot rely on this person/company. Given that the non-existence or unsoundness of these elements does not directly lead to exposure, conditional withdrawal will suffice. L. Preparation of work This type includes the standards that relate to the preparation of the work. This concerns the drawing up of a work plan, consultation with other companies at the workplace, the instruction of the employees, the inspection of the employees, etc. The variation under this type is also large in terms of the seriousness of the violation, given the risk of exposure to asbestos. Only a few topics are explained here. a) Work plan The work plan lays down how the removal of asbestos will be tackled. This forces the remover to think about the work and the possible problems. The method does not have to be invented gradually, but has been devised and determined in advance. Since it is clear how work will be done, it can also be ensured that the necessary resources are available. If this preparation is skipped, the risk of asbestos emission and exposure increases. Practice has shown that if there is no plan or if this is insufficient, the employees will come up with solutions themselves or continue working without taking the necessary measures. This often leads to the release of asbestos fibers or exposure. Failure to draw up a proper work plan/ project plan should lead to: conditional Machine Translated by Google withdrawal and suspension (order of order). An asbestos remover who does not draw up a sound plan chooses not to do so. The government cannot rely on such a person/company. Conditional withdrawal is sufficient, because the lack of a plan does not necessarily lead to exposure or an increase in risk. If the work plan is not at the workplace, this should lead to conditional withdrawal. The same applies if the work plan is not at the workplace. After all, a plan that is not present where it is to be carried out may as well not have been drawn up. If a proper work plan is not followed, this should lead to conditional withdrawal. A work plan that is not followed may as well not have been drawn up. b) Inventory plan In the asbestos inventory plan, the inventor lays down what must be inventoried and how this must be done. This prevents the inventory from being incomplete. Failure to draw up an inventory plan should lead to conditional withdrawal. Machine Translated by Google An asbestos inventor who does not draw up an inventory plan chooses not to do so. Conditional withdrawal is sufficient, because the lack of a plan does not necessarily lead to exposure or an increase in risk. If the plan is not in the workplace, this should lead to conditional withdrawal. The same applies if the plan is not in the workplace. After all, a plan that is not present where it is to be carried out may as well not have been drawn up. If a proper inventory plan is not followed, this should lead to: conditional withdrawal. A plan that is not followed may as well not have been made. c) Instruction The training that employees receive is, by definition, general. They will have to be instructed about the concrete working method in the company. The subjects on which the employees should be instructed are many and varied. The employees must in any case know the work plan. They must also be given instructions on how to use the concrete resources with which they work. It should also be clear who they should contact in case of problems. For most deviations from the instructions, warning are an acceptable sanction. overlap Machine Translated by Google It is possible that a standard falls under more than one cluster. In that case, the most far-reaching sanction will be chosen. After all, this follows from the seriousness of the violation. Special circumstances It is possible that in a specific case special circumstances arise that are reason to deviate from the lists, because application of the list in the specific case leads to disproportionate consequences. Special circumstances are circumstances that are not very common. If special circumstances already exist, this will not easily lead to disproportionality. The importance of people's lives and health and that the government must be able to rely on the certificate holder means that in the vast majority of cases the consequences of the sanctions are proportionate. The company's interest in operating undisturbed, making money or continuing its business is not an interest that warrants deviating from the list. Annex XIIIb. belonging to Article 4.27 Field-specific certification scheme for the Asbestos Removal Process Certificate Certification scheme for the removal of asbestos, asbestos-containing products and asbestos-contaminated material or construction components contaminated with asbestos prior to demolition, renovation or maintenance in structures and objects and after an incident Document: SC-530 Content PART I GENERAL PROVISIONS 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 2.1 General definitions 2.2 Field-specific definitions 2.3 Documents 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1 Description scheme Machine Translated by Google 3.2 Active parties 3.3 Risk analysis and infringement criteria 4. Certification Regulations 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Procedures 4.4 Decision on the certificate 4.5 Validity period of the certificate 4.6 Validity conditions 4.7 Complaints 4.8 Objection procedure re 4.9 Norm Interpretation 5. Supervision 5.1 Access 5.2 Frequency of supervision 5.3 The manner in which the supervision is carried out 5.4 Report of findings 5.5 Sanctions for detected deviations 5.6 Cost of research PART II STANDARDS 6. Subject of certification 7. To demand Administrative requirements 7.1 Asbestos removal company or concern 7.2 Relationships/combinations of asbestos removal company and/or concern within the asbestos chain 7.3 Work area and technical ability 7.4 Liability insurance Machine Translated by Google 7.5 Delivery/contract terms Requirements for the control and assurance of asbestos removal 7.6 General demands 7.7 Documentation requirements 7.8 Controlling registrations 7.9 Executive responsibility 7.10 Management review 7.11 Resource management 7.12 The careful, occupational and environmentally hygienic removal of asbestos 7.13 Measurement, analysis and improvement Requirements for asbestos removal 7.14 Preparation 7.15 Execution of asbestos removal at the project location 7.16 Final assessment after asbestos removal 7.17 Disposal of asbestos- containing material Assessment methodology 8. 8.1 Time spent on the assessments 8.2 Combination with ratings for other certification schemes 9. The certificate 9.1 Facts 9.2 Use of the certificate 9.3 Ascert Certificate Register PART III ATTACHMENTS Machine Translated by Google APPENDIX A NOTIFICATION FORM ASBESTOS INVENTORY AND REMOVAL (V) APPENDIX B DEFINITIONS FIELD SPECIFIC (I) APPENDIX C MODEL REQUEST PROJECTS FOR INITIAL CERTIFICATION (V) APPENDIX D MODEL AGREEMENT CKIE AND CERTIFICATE HOLDER (I) APPENDIX E ASCERT PROCESS CERTIFICATE ASBESTOS REMOVAL (V) APPENDIX G MODEL WORK PLAN (V) APPENDIX H CATEGORY LAYOUT ASBESTOS REMOVAL SANCTION SYSTEM TABLE 5.5.3 (V) APPENDIX I GENERAL MEASURES (V) APPENDIX J SUBSTITUTION OF THE DEROGATIONS (V) Part I. General Provisions Part I of this certification scheme contains general principles and provisions for certification by CKIs and conditions under which certificates must be issued. Additional information is provided in the text for support and clarification in the form of Explanation, Note and Appendix. 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme SC-530 has been drawn up by the Central Board of Asbestos Experts. This concerns the careful, occupational and environmental hygiene removal of: •. asbestos; •. asbestos products; •. asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction parts. Recorded in an asbestos inventory report cf SC-540 Prior to •. demolition; •. renovation; •. maintenance in buildings and objects; Machine Translated by Google •. after an incident. The result is a location where the asbestos has been removed according to the requirements. It concerns the Ascert Process Certificate Asbestos Removal. This has been established by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. 2. Definitions 2.1. General definitions Term or abbreviation: Meaning The for a certificate: applies to the(legal) certification personbody whofor Applicant the issue of a certificate. Note: Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. ADK: asbestos expert Asbestos removal work • the removal of : asbestos, asbestos-containing products and/or asbestos- contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction components, described in more detail in the asbestos inventory report and the work plan; • the disposal site after the final assessment and before delivery by the asbestos removal company free from sources with secondary asbestos fiber emission. Assignment: Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. For the work field asbestos functioning Foundation Machine Translated by Google Asbestos Certification (Ascert), formerly SCA. Rating: Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the information issued by the Minister of SZW adopted WDA&T, under which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates to give. When adopting the WDA&T by the Minister of SZW is aligned as much as possible with international systems and standards. Category I, II, III or There are four levels IV: on which in case ofcertificate of the deviant behavior holder The following sanctions may be imposed on the company: – Category I Unconditional Revocation – Category II Suspension – Category III Provisional Revocation with a 3-month notice – Category III Warn These levels are further detailed in SC-530 par. 5.5.2.2) Central Board of the Board, Experts section (CCvD): from and/facilitated by Ascert, which Machine Translated by Google interested parties in a particular sector or industry offers the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field- specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Certificate: A certificate in the meaning of article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Commodities Act . In addition a certificate should be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant accreditation standards. Certificate holder: (right) Person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate for his company. Certification process: All activities through which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations: Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification system: Set of procedures and Machine Translated by Google resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, which leads to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and Calibration or Inspection Body Conformity Assessment (CKI): g bodies such as certification bodies, user inspection inspection services, bodies and testlaboratories, institutes. CKI person: CKI by the Minister designated by SZW on the basis of Annex XIIIf for the granting of personal certificates Expert asbestos remover level 1, Expert asbestos remover level 2 or Expert asbestos removal supervisor based on Annex XIIIc CKI process: CKI by the Minister designated by SZW under WDA&T SC-502 for the granting of process certificates based on WSCS SC-530 and/or SC-540 a) a group of companies that are (to a significant extent) jointly Concern: managed and act as a unit; or b) legal entities linked through shareholding. Check: Periodic Review Machine Translated by Google by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). DAV: Expert asbestos remover level 1 (DAV-1) and Expert asbestos remover level 2 (DAV-2) DTA: Expert supervisor asbestos removal Final assessment institute By the RvA, NEN-EN-ISO/ IEC accredited inspection 17020: body that ing: 2004 the performs type-C, final assessment (inspection, sampling and analysis) after asbestos removal. IenM: Ministry of Infrastructure and Environment. Internal assessor: Officer in charge of internal assessment and peer review Client: Client in the sense of Article 1.1, second paragraph, preamble and under c and d of the Working Conditions Decree. a building in the sense Project: of Article 1.1, second paragraph, preamble and under b of the Working Conditions Decree, whereby the boundaries formedofby thethe project entireare assignment of the Machine Translated by Google client. Risk analysis: Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in work field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. SC-502: Field specific document for Designation and Supervision of the Certification Body and for Asbestos Removal Companies (AVB) and Asbestos Inventory Companies (AIB). Document number SC-502. SC-530: Field-specific certification scheme for the Process Certificate Asbestos removal. Document number SC-530. SC-540: Field-specific certification scheme for the Asbestos Inventory Process Certificate. Document number SC-540. Supervision: Gathering the information about the question whether an act or thing complies with the requirements, the subsequent formation of a judgment and, if necessary, intervene as a result. Supervision and enforcement (Government) institutions: charged with supervision and enforcement on asbestos removal such as certification body Machine Translated by Google and (designated by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment), the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate, the Human Environment and Transport Inspectorate, municipalities, environmental police, etc. Field specific Term used by SZW certification scheme for a (WSSC): certification scheme accepted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. Field specific Term used by SZW document for for a document designation and supervision in which, on the one hand, the (WDA&T): standards have been established to which CKIs must comply meet to be designated by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment and, on the other hand, the conditions within which designation takes place. ZBO: Independent administrative body 2.2. Field-specific definitions SC-530 Part III Appendix B contains an additional list of field-specific definitions. 2.3. Documents The documents below play a role in the text of this certification scheme. [1] Working conditionswe legal t [2] Working conditions are legally closed [3] Working conditions legal regulation [4] Asbestos removal order legal Machine Translated by Google from 2005 [5] expired cancelled [6] Legal Asbestos Products Decree [7] Report TNO-MEP R informative 2004/523 Risk-based classification of work with asbestos [8] Covenant Ministry normative of SZW and the Asbestos Certification Foundation dated March 8, 2006. Government Gazette 7 August 2006, no. 151/page. 7 Protocol [9] normative Validation measurements for the development of SMA-rt (SC-548); CCvD Asbestos [10] Information sheet Informative Approach Asbestos Fire 2006. VROM Inspectorate. Available at www.vrom.nl [11] rural informative Implementation methodology Asbestos inventory decision 2005; VROM and LOM. A guide for municipalities. Senter Novem June 2007 [12] NEN 2990: 2012; Air – normative Final check after asbestos inventory [13] NEN 2991: 2005; Air – normative Risk assessment in and around buildings or structures in which asbestos-containing materials are incorporated. [14] NEN 5896: 2005 nl; normative Sampling and analysis of asbestos in raw construction and demolition waste and recycled granulate Machine Translated by Google [15] NEN 5897 / NEN 5707 informative Asbestos in rubble and demolition waste [16] NEN 5707: 2003 nl; informative Soil – Inspection, sampling and analysis of asbestos in soil [17] General protocol for normative the validation of asbestos risk classification systems (Ascert SC-549: version 01, date 11/15/2011); [18] Aedes Protocol normative Removal Asbestos-containing materials in mutation and complaint maintenance 2007 [19] NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 19011: normative 2002; Guidelines for performing quality and/or environmental management system audits [20] NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17020: normative 2004 and; General criteria for the functioning of different types of institutions that carry out inspections. [21] NTA Asbestos in informative water bottoms [22] Draft NEN 2939: informative 'Workplace atmosphere – Determination of the concentration of respirable asbestos fibers in the air when working with or in the direct environment of asbestos or products containing asbestos, using microscopic Machine Translated by Google techniques.' [23] NEN-EN 1822-5:2000 and; normative Air filters with a high efficiency (HEPA and ULPA) – Part 5: Determining the efficiency of the filter element. [24] CROW 132; Working in or informative with contaminated soil and contaminated (ground) water 3. Field-specific characteristics In order to safeguard the public interest – health and safety of and around the workplace – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for the assurance of quality/safety in the removal of asbestos, products containing asbestos and asbestos-contaminated material or construction components contaminated with asbestos prior to demolition, renovation or maintenance in structures and objects and after an incident resulting in a location where the presence of asbestos meets the legally established acceptance level. Prior to the removal of asbestos-containing material after an incident (fire / storm), the indicated step-by-step plan must be followed. See, for example, the 2006 Asbestos Fire Action Plan Information Sheet. SC-530 does not apply to asbestos in soil. 3.1. Description scheme The field-specific certification scheme for the careful, occupational and environmental hygiene removal of asbestos, 'SC-530', has been proposed by Ascert and by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment – including the adjustments in the context of tightening the requirements ) Report SZW Repair wscs and wda&t with appendices dated 10 May 2011.) – established by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Decree or Working Conditions Regulation. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. Comments or comments about this document can be submitted to the CCvD Asbest p/a Stichting Ascert, info@ascert.nl. 3.2. Active parties The following are particularly active within the Asbestos Certification Foundation: •. Central Board of Asbestos Experts; •. Workroom Asbestos; •. Central Examination Board; Machine Translated by Google •. The certification bodies; listed on www.ascert.nl under CKIs; •. The certificate holders; listed in the Ascert Register (see www.ascert.nl). 3.3. Risk analysis and detriment criteria 3.3.1. General Due to its good properties, asbestos has been widely used in the past, for example in buildings and homes. When inhaled, asbestos fibers can penetrate deep into the lungs and eventually cause peritoneal cancer, lung cancer and asbestosis (dust lungs). It is estimated that about 700 people die every year from this in the Netherlands. The time lag between exposure and getting sick can be decades. Together with SZW and VWS, I and M are responsible for asbestos regulations. During activities related to the removal of asbestos, there is a risk that asbestos fibers will enter the breathing zone of employees. The number of fibers during the activities is divided into three separate risk classes: Risk class 1: when there are concentrations of asbestos fibers as described in Articles 4.44 and 4.46 of the Decree; Risk class 2: when there are concentrations of asbestos fibers as described in Articles 4.46 and 4.48 of the Decree; Risk class 2A: in the case of the concentrations of asbestos fibers as described in Articles 4.46 and 4.53a of the Decree. 3.3.2. Risk analysis level of asbestos removal In order to prevent the issue or maintenance of a certificate on unjustified grounds, it is necessary to define risks and take measures. These aim to eliminate the risks related to asbestos fiber emission/contamination. The measures come in two forms and can consist of distance from the source or of technical measures, such as direct measures to eliminate the risks and thus prevent asbestos fiber contamination. In addition to the measures, there are also so-called management factors. These management factors cannot in themselves eliminate the central event, but influence the quality of the measures. Once the measures have been defined, they must be set up and maintained. The latter sets requirements for the asbestos removal company and its employees. Once the measures have been installed, inspection and maintenance of the measures is necessary. The direct cause of asbestos fiber contamination is by definition one or more failing measures. Central event Emerging risks Measures Management factors par. In SC-530 Asbestos fiber emission 1. Not controlled 1 Independence 7.2.1 SC-530 Machine Translated by Google asbestos removal 2. disposal company Asbestos fiber emission from asbestos inventory bed 2 Disposal company row 7.2.1 independence from final assessment institution Appropriate work preparation 3 Appropriate work plan 7.12 Acceptance of work plan 4 7.14.7 Execution in 7.14.4 5 accordance with 7.15 work plan 6 Appropriate response to 7.13.3 deviating situations Final assessment 7 correct 7.16.3 7.16.5 performed and correctly reported Final check correct 8 7.16.6 performed and correctly reported 9 10 Correct disposal of 7.17 asbestos waste 11 Validity conditions 4.6 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the field-specific scheme. This includes the application procedure, the conditions with regard to certification, the issuance and withdrawal of certificates, procedures for carrying out initial and periodic assessments, handling complaints and any request for review thereof. 4.2. Certification procedure The candidate certificate holder submits an application to a CKI (see www.ascert.nl), in accordance with these certification regulations, to carry out the certification procedure. The CKI then provides information about the state of affairs in the handling of the application. Machine Translated by Google 4.3. Procedures Various processes are followed in the context of the initial certification of the asbestos removal company. The CKI must: •. to be designated by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment to carry out the concerning inspections; •. to have concluded a cooperation agreement with the Ascert Foundation. In addition, the CKI is obliged to inform the applicant in writing about the rules, conditions and procedures related to issuing, revocation, etc. of the certificate. Without any form of discrimination against the applicant. As part of the certification process, the following procedures are followed: •. Handling the initial certification application •. Apply for/certificates at another, or more than one, CKI •. Admission assessment process •. Multiple branches/branches •. Initial assessment •. Completing or aborting the initial assessment •. Permission for work at the project location •. Time spent on initial assessment •. Report This is further elaborated below. 4.3.1. Handling application for initial certification A CKI must handle an application for the certificate in accordance with regulations drawn up by it. The CKI is obliged to inform the candidate in writing about the rules, conditions and procedures laid down therein related to the processing of the application for the certificate. 4.3.2. Applying for a process certificate The following conditions apply to the application: the applicant, whether or not part of a group, must submit the application a) to handle independently; b) If there is a certification history on the subject of Asbestos removal, the candidate must provide the certification body with the complete assessment reports and correspondence over the past three years. The CKI must first check the application whether the candidate has not already had a certificate from another CKI and whether it has been suspended or withdrawn. If the certificate is suspended or revoked, the CKI must not accept the application and refer the candidate back to their original CKI.; Machine Translated by Google c) an application for a certificate for a company whose certificate is already if this was not withdrawn at the request of the certificate holder up to 12 months earlier, will not be processed; d) an application for a certificate for a (legal) person whose certificate was withdrawn up to 12 months earlier, whether or not at the request of the certificate holder, will not be processed. If a certificate holder states that he will surrender his certificate, this is an application to revoke the certificate. The certificate is only revoked if the CKI has made a decision on the application (and has withdrawn the certificate). The notification (application) must be made in writing or electronically. The request to revoke a certificate cannot be made verbally. The period of 12 months of sub c and d runs from the date of the decision of the CKI in which the certificate was revoked. Applicants for an Asbestos Removal certificate must declare with an application that there is no actual continuation of a company. In order to be able to assess whether the core activities of a company (a restart) will be continued, relevant facts and circumstances will be examined. In any case, these are: – the name and trade names of the company and legal entity; – the registered office, actual location and contact details of the company; – the persons involved (shareholders, this also includes family associations up to and including the third degree), the (actual) directors and persons who perform board activities, personnel to be deployed (DTA, DAV, support; both in permanent employment and through temporary employment); – the customer base; – whether orders from the other company have been taken over; – whether assets of the other company have been acquired; – or (intervention) investigations are ongoing or have been completed by the supervisory authorities. Based on the analysis of the above points, a certifying institution determines whether or not the application will be honored. The more of the above-mentioned points provide relevant facts, the greater the reason to refuse an application or to withdraw an issued certificate. It is possible that at the time of issue of the certificate it is not established that the (core) activities of the company (restart) have been continued. If, on the basis of relevant facts and circumstances not yet known to the certified body, it is established that the core activities of the (old) company have been continued, the certificate must be revoked by the certification body. . The basic principle is also that company certificates are only issued to legal entities or companies without legal personality (sole proprietorship, VOF, CV and partnership) that participate independently and under their own certificate in the trade in asbestos removal. A certified company may not offer the opportunity to continue its asbestos removal activities as included in Annex XIIIb Machine Translated by Google to another company or its employee(s) whose certificate has been or is in danger of being revoked. It is only permitted to take people and resources from the owner of an existing Asbestos Removal process certificate to the owner of another Asbestos Removal process certificate, if the relevant first-mentioned certificate has not been or is in danger of being revoked due to non- compliance with the statutory working conditions obligations and the requirements based on Annex XIIIb. It is up to the certifying body to determine whether or not this is the case. 4.3.3. Limited duration admission assessment The course of the admission assessment, from the first assessment at the project location to the decision on whether or not to grant the certificate, is capped at 4 months. If the overrun is attributable to the applicant, the candidate's assessment results will expire. 4.3.4. Distinction in categories of companies A distinction is made in: a) independent companies, registered with the Chamber of Commerce b) companies, registered with the Chamber of Commerce, which are part who form part of a group and hereinafter referred to as a participating company, each independently apply for the process certificate from the same certification body. The process certificate is made out in the name of the applicant company and included in the Ascert register, with the same Ascert code for all companies in the group, and a subcode for each participating company. A participating company applying for the asbestos removal process certificate: 1°. has no board members who are also board members at subsidiaries or sister companies of that participating company or the parent company of that participating company with the asbestos removal process certificate; 2°. is located at a different location than a subsidiary, sister company or the parent company with the asbestos removal process certificate; and 3°. can achieve at least 880 packing days per certification year. 4.3.5. Initial assessment The purpose of the assessment to be performed by the CKI is to determine whether all requirements in the SC-530 are met. The assessment consists of: A. Assessment of the It is examined whether documentation certification what scheme according to the in writing Machine Translated by Google must be, has actually been recorded in its own quality documentation (quality manual and related documentation). B. Assessment of the implementation After it has been established that meets the the documentation requirements, the implementation of the documented system is examined. This one assessment consists of the components referred to under B.1 and B.2 and is based on agreements made between the CKI and the (candidate) asbestos removal company. B.1 Assessment of the At the site(s) of the site(s) it is examined whether the candidate or parts of the asbestos removal company's quality system comply with that. can be examined at the site, in conjunction with the entire quality system, meet the requirements as stated in the certification scheme SC-530 and the candidate's quality documentation. B.2 Assessment of project locations per branch/branch. is assessed projectatlocations at least two whether the practical implementation of the asbestos removal complies with the certification scheme SC-530 and its own Machine Translated by Google quality documentation. In the opinion of the CKI, the structures or objects from which asbestos must be removed must be sufficiently representative in nature and size to allow the to be able to properly assess implementation aspects of the SC-530. For example, at least one project in containment to be assessed. 4.3.6. Application and permission for work at the project location For the duration of the assessment at two project locations where the assessment by the CKI takes place, a candidate is equated with a certified asbestos removal company, or in the event of an additional assessment at three project locations. The applicable conditions are that: •. A written application has been submitted to the CKI for the acquisition of the certificate; •. The candidate meets the requirements set out in SC-530, insofar as the assessment referred to in section 4.3.5A is concerned. After it has been demonstrated that the aforementioned conditions have been met, the CKI prepares the application for each project location that will be included in the assessment of the candidate. Based on the following criteria, Ascert must have given written permission for the application: •. The two projects should be distinguished from each other by: different clients and inventory locations, various asbestos inventory companies and inspection institutes/laboratories for the control after asbestos removal; •. Completed Application Form SC-530 Appendix C; •. Unqualified statement from the CKI that the work plan complies with the provisions of SC-530; •. Indication of the asbestos inventory company (incl. Ascert code); •. Indication of the identification code of the asbestos inventory report; •. CKI's unqualified statement that the inventory report complies with SC-540 including source- related and traceable risk classification. 4.3.7. Completing or aborting the initial assessment Machine Translated by Google The assessment can only be completed if the candidate has carried out at least 2 complete asbestos removal works that meet the requirements of the SC-530. There should be a distinction between work in containment and open air The assessment will be terminated without the certificate being issued if: •. the result of the assessment at the location, referred to in section 4.3.5.B.1, does not meet the requirements even after a second assessment at that location; •. the result of the additional on-site assessment, as referred to in section 4.3.6, does not meet the requirements; •. the candidate carries out work at one or more project locations for which no prior permission has been obtained from Ascert. If the candidate whose assessment has been interrupted wishes to acquire the certificate again, all steps of the assessment must be completed again. 4.3.8. Time spent on initial assessment The indicated time commitment is a guideline. The time units include reporting. •. quality documentation and pre-assessment: 0.5 man day; •. implementation on site: 0.5 man day; •. assessment at project location: 0.5 man-day per assessment; max. 2 reviews per day. 4.3.9. Report The recorded observations and findings covering all requirements at initial assessment and all requirements over the certification period are reported to the candidate in accordance with the guidelines in the current version of ISO 19011. Based on SC 530 Annex C 'Application for permission for work on project location', the asbestos removal works are registered with Ascert with the data about the candidate. 4.3.10. Use of the certificate The use of the certificate is bound by a right of use granted by Ascert to the Ascert Logo 4.4. Decision on the certificate The decision regarding the issuance of the certificate is taken by an officer of the CKI who is qualified and appointed in accordance with the quality system of the CKI, as certificate decision- maker, and the procedures in accordance with section 4.3 and who was not involved in the initial assessment. On the basis of the outcome of the initial assessments, the auditor will prepare a report within the stipulated period and issue an opinion on whether or not Machine Translated by Google issuing the certificate. This advice, together with the recorded results of the assessment, is submitted to the certificate decision maker within the specified period. 4.5. Validity period of the certificate The certificate is valid for a maximum of three years, unless withdrawn in the interim. 4.5.1. Recertification Unless the certificate holder has indicated in writing that it does not wish to continue the certificate, the CKI must have completed the annual assessments at the branches/establishments in the last year of the current certification period no later than three months before the expiry date of the certificate. 4.5.2. Recertification after withdrawal If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal (see section 5.5.4), the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. The period between withdrawal and submission of the application for a new certificate is 12 months. The withdrawal does not apply to 5.2.3. The same procedure must also be followed for a company whose certificate has been revoked as for initial certification. The period between withdrawal and submission of the application for a new certificate is 12 months. 4.6. Validity conditions The following conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. a) The certificate is inextricably linked to the asbestos removal company, registered with the Chamber of Commerce. In the event that the company ceases to exist, the certificate will be issued immediately b) withdrawn; c) Demonstrable compliance with the provisions referred to in the risk analysis par 3.3.2 and intended to eliminate the risks mentioned there; d) A candidate who previously held a valid certificate and whoever has had the certificate withdrawn cannot submit a new application within the period of 12 months after the date of withdrawal. 4.7. Complaints 4.7.1. Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both the certified companies and the users of certificates. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place; Machine Translated by Google •. The complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, assessing and investigating the complaint; the manner of tracking and recording the complaint and subsequent actions; and how it is ensured that corrective actions are taken; •. The decision on the response to the complaint should be made by person(s) who are not involved in the subject of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. •. It must be determined in consultation with the client and the complainant whether and to what extent the complaint and its resolution are made public. 4.7.2. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. The regulations of the CKI determine the further handling of these complaints. If the additional assessment shows that the complaint is justified, it will be charged as an additional assessment. If it turns out that the complaint is unjustified, the additional assessment will be regarded as a regular (project) assessment, which will replace the next assessment planned in the future. 4.7.3. Complaints procedure 4.7.3.1. Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each complaint (shortcoming, improvement proposal). 4.7.3.2. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in a letter, fax or e-mail. If a complaint is received in the form of a letter, fax or e-mail, it is immediately (immediately after registration in the incoming mail) taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she will immediately receive a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint, records it on the complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the shortcoming form in the owner box and informs the complaint handler in writing of the complaint. The complaint handler Machine Translated by Google informs the complainant in writing (letter, e-mail, fax) of the receipt of the complaint. 4.7.3.2.1. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the petitioner; creates a file for the purpose of monitoring progress and including the handling of the complaint by the company/person at the next assessment. 4.7.3.2.2. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the person submitting the complaint will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form in the improvement proposal box. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is entered on the complaint form in the appropriate box. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form in the follow-up investigation findings box. The quality manager archives the complaints handling documents. 4.8. Objection procedure 4.8.1. Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. 4.8.2. Method 4.8.2.1. General – A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final opinion, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. Machine Translated by Google – In its correspondence, the CKI informs the interested party of the possibility to lodge an objection against a decision by means of the following clause: ' Pursuant to the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can: a notice of objection may be lodged with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date of dispatch. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested to enclose with the request a copy of the contested decision and any other documents relating to the case.' – The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: a. name and address of the applicant; b. date; c. a description of the contested decision; d. the grounds of the objection. – The notice of objection is declared inadmissible: a. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default; in cases other than those mentioned under a, if not used b. of the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism. – The notice of objection is further declared inadmissible if, at the not applicable of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. – The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. – The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision against which it is objection is addressed. 4.8.2.2. Procedure – The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms receipt within two weeks, referring to the application of these regulations. – The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. – The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. – The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to until the decision and must, in principle, take place within four weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. – The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. The hearing will take place at a time to be determined by the CKI within normal office hours. – Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. Machine Translated by Google – Hearing will be waived if the notice of objection is manifestly not is admissible or manifestly unfounded, has meanwhile been met with the notice of objection, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. – The person or persons hearing convinces themselves or at the the correct procedures have been followed in reaching the decision, and takes note of the arguments of the stakeholder(s) in each other's presence. – A report is made of the hearing. The report is attached to the decision on the objection. – The person or persons who hear also provide advice to the CKI. 4.8.2.3. Decision on notice of objection – The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks from the day after the day on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. – The decision period can be extended once by six weeks. After that you can the period may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. – If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. – The CKI will communicate the substantiation and motivation of its decision to the interested party. – The quality manager is informed of the outcome of the procedure. – The certification coordinator archives all relevant documents. 4.8.2.4. administrative judge – If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. – The CKI will point out the notice of objection to the interested party in its decision on this possibility. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD ensures unambiguous interpretation of the standards. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then different interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. 5. Supervision Under this certification regime, the asbestos removal company is legally obliged to undergo periodic inspections. The purpose of the periodic inspection is to guarantee the continued safety of asbestos removal and the associated quality management system of the asbestos removal company as much as possible. Machine Translated by Google Notification of an asbestos removal work and thus the transfer of the relevant data must be made using the National Asbestos Tracking System (LAVS) from the moment of entry into force. 5.1. Access It is indicated below how the certificate holder must grant access and/or make information available to enable supervision by the supervisory and enforcement (government) institutions, including the CKI, the RvA and the SZW Inspectorate. 1. The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with assessments at the office as well as at project locations, by or on behalf of the supervisory and enforcement (government) institutions, including the certification body, the Council for Accreditation and the SZW Inspectorate. 2. The certificate holder is obliged to make changes in his circumstances that may be important for the certificate to the certification body. 3. The certificate holder is obliged to provide the details of a to disclose asbestos removal work for on-site assessment to the supervisory and enforcement (government) institutions. 4. Reporting an asbestos removal work and thus the transfer of the relevant details of an asbestos removal work must be provided using the Web portal of the Inspectorate SZW (see Appendix A). 5.2. Frequency of supervision After the certificate has been issued, the CKI performs the following periodic assessments for the certificate holder during the certification period. 5.2.1. Assessment at the location There is at least one assessment at the site per year. Part of this assessment is the file assessment of at least four asbestos removal projects. If an asbestos removal company has one or more branches/branches in addition to the main location, then in addition to the one assessment per year at the main location, one assessment per branch/establishment will also take place. 5.2.2. Project location assessment During the term of the certificate, periodic assessments are made at project locations. The frequency of the periodic assessments at the project location is determined on the basis of the number of project days from the previous year (see table 5.2.2). The following applies: a) The assessment will take place unannounced. b) In addition to the number of project days Machine Translated by Google ) In addition to the project day, there is also the packing day. Half a pack day is three hours (shift) removing asbestos with a suit / mask by one asbestos remover (DAV) at an asbestos removal work.) There must be at least 7 registered and performed asbestos works per year. c) One project day (part of) asbestos removal work is understood to mean a calendar day (part) during which asbestos is removed, cleaned up and/or packed on the same project with a suit/mask, regardless of the number of asbestos removers who also carry out the project on this (this) calendar day (part). d) The determination of the number of project days is subject to asbestos removal work not counting: – work for, for example, construction of a containment and removal of asbestos- containing waste to the landfill; – rainy days on which people do not work; – breaks and absenteeism of employees. e) If the asbestos removal company can demonstrate that the company has one or carries out a few large removal orders, the minimum six assessments (see table 5.2.2.) can be carried out for various subprojects. However, subject to the condition that, in the opinion of the CKI, these are sufficiently representative in terms of size and complexity to be able to assess the implementation aspects of the SC-530. Table 5.2.2: Assessments to be performed per year at project location per certificate holder Number of project days per Total number of years of assessments on project location per period of 12 months after certificate issuance 6 35–140 141–240 7 241–440 8 441–640 641–840 9 10 841 and more 11 Explanation of table •. The minimum size of the total asbestos removal work must be at least 35 project days, spread over at least 7 projects under risk class 2 and 2A; •. With a minimum of 35 project days, spread over a minimum of 7 projects, 6 asbestos removal projects are unexpectedly assessed; •. The sample of unexpected assessments of on-site asbestos removal projects by the CKI increases to a possible frequency distribution of approximately 1 per month (for 841 project days or more, 11 asbestos removal projects per certificate holder are assessed by the CKl); •. The time required for the unexpected assessment by the CKl per asbestos removal project has been set at a minimum of 0.5 man-days; Machine Translated by Google •. Depending on the size of the asbestos removal project, the CKl is free to agree more time with the certificate holder for this assessment of such a project. 5.2.3. Periodic assessment at project location temporarily not possible If, due to circumstances, the number of assessments at the project location indicated in table 5.2.2 over a period of 12 months cannot be carried out, the missing numbers must still be carried out in the immediately following period of 12 months. The CKI will record such a measure in writing in the file. This measure can only be applied once in 4 consecutive 12-month periods. 5.2.4. Reporting by CKI on the assessment The results of the assessments by the CKI are reported to the asbestos removal company in the interim in accordance with the guidelines in NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 19011: 2002. 5.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out This section indicates how the CKI fills in the assessments. The manner in which is derived from the prepared risk analysis. 5.3.1. Time spent on periodic assessment and recertification The indicated time commitment is a guideline; the time units include reporting. •. Annual assessment and recertification on site: 1 man day; •. assessment at project location: 0.5 man-day per assessment; max. 2 reviews per day. 5.3.2. Combination with assessments for other certification schemes In the case of combining assessments, the CKI must be able to make plausible and demonstrable with the assessment report that the minimum requirements of SC-530 are examined during the certification period during assessment per location. Assessments at project locations are independent and must be carried out in accordance with the provisions of 5.2.2. 5.4. Report of findings 5.4.1. Reporting to the CH In accordance with the guidelines in the current version of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 19011: 2002, the CKI prepares a report of its findings during the interim audit. This report is made available to the certificate holder. He or she can file a complaint against this (see par. 4.7). Machine Translated by Google 5.4.2. Reporting to CKI person If, in the opinion of the CKI process, the deviations established under SC-530 section 5.5.2 are attributable to employees with a DTA/DAV personal certificate, the CKI process will immediately and directly report the relevant deviation report to the person issuing the personal certificate. institution. 5.5. Sanctions for detected deviations If it appears that a certificate holder and the processes to be prepared and executed under his responsibility do not or no longer meet the requirements or standards in the professional field- specific certification scheme, the CKI must impose establishing the sanctions theprescribed deviations in andthis the scheme. application When of sanctions, the CKI must apply table 5.5.3 (Appendix H). 5.5.1. General Reference is made to Annex I for the general framework of sanctions for nonconformities found. 5.5.2. Escalation ladder 5.5.2.1. Introduction If it is established by a certification body designated by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment that a certificate-holding asbestos removal company commits a deviation in accordance with the provisions included in table 5.5.3 (Appendix H), then the certification body will issue the certificate of the certificate holder. conditionally withdrawn or suspended or the certificate holder receives a warning. After revocation of the certificate, the former certificate holder can only submit an application for a new certificate after 12 months. For the company too, an application for a new certificate can only be submitted after 12 months. The period of 12 months starts from the day following the day on which the decision to withdraw the certificate enters into force. After the establishment of a Cat III deviation, the certificate holder must have introduced an internal corrective measure within 2 months, after which the CKI must have definitively assessed this measure within one month. Within the period of 3 months, the deviation can be closed, in a positive sense (Cat III removed) or negatively (increased from Cat III to Cat I). If, in a group situation with several independent companies, which are under a process certificate from the same CKI, the certificate of a company is (un)conditionally withdrawn or suspended, the CKI will immediately subject all other certified companies to a check on those subjects for which there is a deviation. which led to the sanction. 5.5.2.2. Breakdown of deviations Machine Translated by Google For the substantiation of the subdivision of the sanction per deviation, reference is made to Annex J. 5.5.2.3. weighting When applying the provisions referred to above under par. 5.5.2.1 and 5.5.2.2, the following reinforcements are applied: •. If during an audit or investigation three or more non-conformities, not being deviations from Category I, from one category are found, these three or more deviations are considered to be one deviation from the adjacent, higher (heavier) Category; •. If a deviation from Category II, III, or IV has been identified six times within a period of one year, then the sixth deviation is considered to be a deviation from the adjacent, higher (heavier) Category. This means that for each deviation from Category II, III, or IV, it must be determined whether a deviation from Category II, III, or IV has been established five times in the year preceding this deviation. •. If at a certain moment several facts are found that fall into different of the categories mentioned under paragraphs 5.5.2.1 and 5.5.2.2, then the fact from the most serious category will determine the sanction to be taken by the certification body. 5.5.3. Elaboration per category in test points The four categories to which in the initial and/or periodic assessment of the (candidate- )certificate holders are imposed, including the subdivision in the deviations, detailed and included in table 5.5.3 (Appendix H) 5.5.4. Sanction procedure The decision regarding a sanction with regard to the asbestos removal process certificate due to deviations found by the CKI is based on its own investigation or on investigations by supervisory and enforcement authorities (Inspectie SZW, Human Environment and Transport Inspectorate, (Environmental) Police, Municipalities). 5.5.4.1. CKI .'s own research The CKI will have to determine whether there is a Category I, II, III or IV deviation or whether there is no deviation. To do this, it must establish facts. The frameworks for this are: •. Periodic monitoring (office and project locations) (see SC-530 Chapter 5) •. Complaints in accordance with SC-530 par.4.7 If it is concluded with a Category I or II deviation that a certified DTA/DAV is not competent, the CKI process will draw up a deviation report with its findings and conclusion. The CKI process sends a copy of this to the relevant CKI person. Machine Translated by Google 5.5.4.2. Research by government agencies If investigations by supervisory government institutions lead to an official report, report of findings or a fine report, it can be determined directly on the basis of Appendix H whether one or more deviations exist. If necessary, further investigation is carried out by the CKI. It is also possible that the CKI only receives a notification from the supervisory government institutions. In that case, the CKI (if a sufficiently clear and substantiated notification) will have to conduct its own investigation. In the case of reports by government agencies, the CKI must inform the government agency concerned what has been done with the report. 5.5.4.3. Sanction After the CKI has established, on the basis of the established facts through its own investigation or that of a supervisory government institution, that there is a deviation from category I, II or III, the course of events is discussed as described in section 5.5. .4.4. 5.5.4.4. Opinion procedure If a Category I, II, III or IV deviation has been established, the CKI will send a notification of (un)conditional withdrawal or suspension to the certificate holder. This notification states that the CKI intends to (un)conditionally revoke, suspend or issue a warning. It motivates why, which amounts to justifying why there is a , II, III or IV deviation. Furthermore, it gives the certificate holder the opportunity to respond to this intention within two weeks by category I via a so-called opinion. After the CKI has received the opinion or the two weeks have passed without an opinion being received, the CKI will assess within one week whether it should proceed with the intention. If it is still demonstrated that there is a non-conformity, the CKI will impose the sanction. It may be that the facts have been contested to such an extent that it is no longer established that there is a category I, II, III or IV deviation or that further investigation is necessary. This further investigation must be completed within 4 weeks. The certificate holder will be informed of this in writing. If the CKI is of the opinion that there is still a category I, II, III or IV deviation, it will (un)conditionally revoke the certificate or suspend the certificate, or issue a warning. included why there is a Category I, II, III or IV deviation. The CKI reports category I, II and III deviations to the Inspectorate SZW. Category II or Category III deviations always result in an additional assessment by the CKI at the office or project location. Machine Translated by Google 5.6. Cost of research The costs arising from an investigation that is carried out in response to a notification or in response to the possibility of a deviation will be borne by the certificate holder. This also applies to the costs of extra supervision that must be carried out because a deviation has been found. Part II. Standards Part II of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to a certificate or declaration for products in a field. Described is successively: •. the subject of certification (see chapter 6); •. the substantive requirements that apply to the certificate (see chapter 7); •. the way in which compliance with the requirements is assessed and reported (see chapter 8); •. requirements to be set for the format of the certificate (see chapter 9). Additional information is provided in the text for support and clarification in the form of Explanation, Comment and Elaboration. These additions are of an informative nature. 6. Subject of certification This field-specific certification scheme SC-530 has been proposed by SCA and established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment, including any adjustments, by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The subject of certification concerns the process of removing asbestos, asbestos-containing products and asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction components prior to demolition, renovation or maintenance in structures and objects and after an incident, including the delivery of the asbestos removal work in accordance with the requirements of the certification scheme. resulting in a site free from sources of secondary asbestos fiber emission 7. Requirements The health of those directly involved in an asbestos removal work is not endangered if, in accordance with the instruction of the manager/owner of the structure/object, for complete or partial removal, the requirements laid down in this certification scheme are met. Administrative requirements 7.1. Asbestos removal company or concern Machine Translated by Google The asbestos removal company must have recorded the entire group/holding structure, managerial relationships, ownership relationships, certificates present in the field of asbestos, both professionally and personally, the personnel content of the management structure, the purpose and nature of the company and its services in full, up-to-date and in writing. and signed by all directors of the company (in accordance with the Chamber of Commerce) submitted to the CKI. The asbestos removal company must be registered with the Chamber of Commerce or sister organizations within the European Union. Government bodies, such as municipalities, police and defense, may be in possession of a process certificate, but do not need to be registered with the Chamber of Commerce. 7.2. Relationships/combinations of asbestos removal company and/or concern within the asbestos chain 7.2.1. Company level a) Performing combinations of: 1. asbestos removal work and asbestos inventory or; 2. asbestos removal work and final assessment ) Final assessment body: inspection body accredited by the RvA that performs the final inspection after asbestos removal.) (final inspection after asbestos removal) within a company is not permitted. b) Combined shareholding by natural or legal persons in: 1. an asbestos removal company and an asbestos inventory company or; 2. an asbestos removal company and final assessment body is not Allowed. c) Combined performance of a board position by natural or legal persons in: 1. an asbestos removal company and an asbestos inventory company or; 2. an asbestos removal company and a final assessment institution 2 is not allowed. d) The combination of shareholding by natural or legal persons at an asbestos removal company with a directorship in an asbestos inventory company or a final assessment institution is not permitted. e) The combination of directorship by natural or legal persons in an asbestos removal company with a shareholding in an asbestos inventory company or a final assessment body is not allowed. f) An asbestos removal company must accept or supply the carry out assigned asbestos removal work themselves. It may only outsource this work to another certified asbestos removal company. A violation by the outsourced company is considered a violation by the outsourcing company. In the sanction procedure against the outsourcing company, the violation is treated as if it had been committed by the outsourcing company. 7.2.2. Project level Machine Translated by Google a) Within the same project it is not allowed that shareholders, directors or employees of the asbestos removal company, which is responsible for asbestos removal activities, perform work on the asbestos inventory and/or the final inspection after asbestos removal. b) Within the same project, it is not permitted for shareholders, directors or employees within a group of which the asbestos removal company, which is responsible for asbestos removal activities, is part, to carry out work on the asbestos inventory and/or the final inspection after asbestos removal. c) Within the same project it is not allowed that shareholders, employees or directors of the asbestos removal company, which is responsible for asbestos removal activities, supervise the implementation of the project or supervise it. d) Within the same project, it is not permitted for shareholders, employees or directors within a group of which the asbestos removal company, which is responsible for asbestos removal activities, is part, to supervise or manage the implementation of the project. e) Within the same project it is not allowed that shareholders, employees or directors of the asbestos removal company, which is responsible for asbestos removal work, carry out the final inspection after removal. f) Within the same project it is not allowed that shareholders, employees or directors of one group of which the asbestos removal company, which is responsible for asbestos removal activities, is a part, carry out the final inspection after removal. g) It is not allowed that an asbestos removal company and a Asbestos inventory company carry out work within the same project if there is a 1st or 2nd degree blood relationship or cohabitation relationship between a shareholder of the asbestos removal company and a shareholder or director of the asbestos inventory company. h) It is not allowed that an asbestos removal company and a the final assessment body must carry out work within the same project if there is a 1st or 2nd degree blood relationship or cohabitation relationship between a shareholder of the asbestos removal company and a shareholder or director of the final assessment body. i) It is not allowed that an asbestos removal company and a Asbestos inventory company perform work within the same project if there is a 1st or 2nd degree blood relationship or cohabitation relationship between a director of the asbestos removal company and a shareholder or director of the asbestos inventory company. j) It is not allowed that an asbestos removal company and a the final assessment body must carry out work within the same project if there is a 1st or 2nd degree blood relationship or cohabitation relationship between a director of the asbestos removal company and a shareholder or director of the final assessment body. Machine Translated by Google Only a certified company may carry out the project and the work. If it wants to hire people for this, it can. But the certified company remains responsible. 7.3. Work area and technical ability The asbestos removal company must have managed documentation that and nature of the company's services have been established. 7.4. Liability insurance The company must be adequately insured for its services. 7.5. Delivery/contract conditions The asbestos removal company must have available up-to-date delivery /contract conditions. Requirements for the control and assurance of asbestos removal 7.6. General demands In accordance with the requirements of this certification scheme, the asbestos removal company must set up, document, implement and maintain the control and assurance of the asbestos removal, as well as continuously improve its effectiveness. These processes must be controlled by the asbestos removal company, in accordance with the requirements of this certification scheme. 7.6.1. Obligations for asbestos removal 7.6.1.1. Obligation of asbestos inventory report The removal of asbestos, asbestos-containing products and asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction components from a structure or object or after an incident is the subject of this certification scheme. An obligation is the presence of an inventory report (see SC-540). This has been made available by the client, with an environmental permit based on it for demolition in accordance with the Asbestos Removal Decree. As an employer, the certified asbestos removal company remains responsible at all times for risk management and thus for safe working conditions. 7.6.1.2. Delete in accordance with inventory report The inventory report gives the risk class during disposal in combination with the disposal methods, the means of removal and the protective measures. It Machine Translated by Google asbestos removal company must act in accordance with the inventory report (see also SC 530 par. 7.12.4.1 2nd and 3rd bullet) 7.6.2. Expert supervision when working with asbestos In accordance with the Working Conditions Decree art. 4.54d, paragraphs 5 and 6, asbestos removal activities must be performed by, or under the constant supervision of, a person who is in possession of a certificate of professional competence for supervising work with asbestos: the DTA personal certificate in accordance with Annex XIIIc. 7.6.3. Working with asbestos In accordance with the Working Conditions Decree art 4.54d paragraph 7, asbestos removal activities must be performed by a person who can demonstrably possess a certificate of professional competence for the removal of asbestos: the personal certificate DAV-1 or DAV-2 in accordance with Annex XIIIc. 7.7. Documentation requirements The company must have and maintain procedures for controlling all documents related to the requirements set in this certification scheme for the assurance and control of the asbestos removal process. All operational documents have been assessed for suitability and efficiency by a designated and authorized person and subsequently released for issuance. This applies to both new and amended documents. Document control should result in: •. The presence of current documents in those places where the assurance and control of the asbestos removal process is established; •. A clear and accessible register for keeping the document file, including additions, changes and the nature of the changes. Retention period •. At least 40 years of archiving of all individual occupational health experts details of the employees directly involved in the removal of asbestos, stating the nature and duration of the work, as well as the degree of exposure (recorded in the logbook); •. Files of completed projects must be at least 5 years old kept; •. The original certificates of a final assessment after asbestos removal must be archived for at least five years; •. Other documents in accordance with legal regulations. SC-530 must be present at the company's location. 7.8. Controlling registrations Machine Translated by Google It must be determined which records must be kept in order to provide evidence of an effective operation of the control and assurance of the removal of asbestos. Records must remain legible, easily recognizable and retrievable. A documented procedure should be established to define the controls necessary for the identification, storage, protection, retrieval, retention period and destruction of records. 7.9. Management responsibility 7.9.1. Management involvement The management must provide proof that it is involved in the control and assurance of the careful, occupational and environmental hygiene of asbestos removal and in the continuous improvement of its effectiveness by: a) to continuously make known within the asbestos removal company the importance that the requirements of the client are met and that the requirements in the certification scheme are met, including the associated legislation and regulations; b) to establish the policy with regard to the careful, occupational hygiene removing and environmentally sound asbestos; c) to ensure that targets have been set with regard to the control and assurance of careful, occupational and environmental hygiene removal of asbestos; d) carry out management reviews or have them carried out; e) ensure the availability of resources. 7.9.2. Client satisfaction To increase client satisfaction, management must ensure that: •. the requirements with regard to the asbestos removal work due to the client are recorded in the work plan, derived from the inventory report, among other things; •. the client is given the opportunity after delivery to evaluate the project and, if necessary and if possible, to implement improvement actions. 7.9.3. Policy With regard to the careful, occupational and environmentally hygienic removal of asbestos, the management must ensure that the policy: a) also includes the purpose of the asbestos removal company; b) includes the continuous improvement of the effectiveness of the control and assurance of asbestos removal; c) provides a framework for setting and assessing the objectives with relating to the careful, occupational and environmental hygiene removal of asbestos; d) is made known and understood within the asbestos removal company; e) is assessed for continued suitability. Machine Translated by Google 7.9.4. Responsibility, authority and communication 7.9.4.1. Responsibility and authority The management must ensure that the responsibilities and authorities are defined and made known within the asbestos removal company. 7.9.4.2. Management representative Top management shall appoint a member of management who, regardless of other responsibilities, shall have the responsibility and authority to: a) processes necessary for the control and assurance of the to establish, introduce or arrange for the removal of asbestos, and to have it maintained (or have it maintained); b) report or have reported to management on the performance of the control and assurance of the removal of asbestos and any need for improvement. Remark: The responsibility of a management representative may include collaborating with external parties on matters relating to the control and assurance of asbestos removal. 7.9.4.3. Dta responsible for the end product For each asbestos removal work, the management must appoint the DTA, who is responsible for the establishment of a correctly released and delivered location after the asbestos removal work has been carried out. 7.9.4.4. Internal communications The management must ensure that appropriate communication takes place with regard to the suitability and effectiveness of the control and assurance of the removal of asbestos. 7.10. Management review 7.10.1. General The management must assess the control and assurance of the removal of asbestos at least once a year. The result must be used by the management to express its care and involvement in the control and assurance, so that it is continuously suitable, appropriate and effective. This assessment should also include examining opportunities for improvement, as well as the need for changes in the control and assurance of asbestos removal, including policies and objectives with regard to careful, occupational and environmental asbestos removal. Records of management reviews must be maintained. Machine Translated by Google 7.10.2. Input for the assessment The input for the management review should include information on: a) results of internal assessments; b) results of external assessments by the certification body, Inspection SZW and others; c) feedback from clients; d) the results of asbestos removal work related to care, occupational hygiene and environmental hygiene; e) the findings with the asbestos inventory reports, recorded in the evaluation forms; f) status of preventive and corrective actions; g) follow-up actions from previous management reviews; h) changes that may affect the control and assurance of removing asbestos; i) recommendations for improvement. 7.10.3. Output of the assessment The output of the management review should consist of the decisions and measures related to: a) improving the effectiveness of the control and assurance of the asbestos removal and associated processes; b) improving the asbestos removal process; c) resource needs. 7.11. Resource management 7.11.1. Making resources available The asbestos removal company must determine what resources are needed and ensure that these resources are in place to: a) the control and assurance of the removal of asbestos in accordance with SC-530 in te implement and maintain and continuously improve its effectiveness; and b) increase client satisfaction by meeting client requirements. 7.11.2. Staff 7.11.2.1. Competence, awareness and training The asbestos removal company must: a) determine what skills the staff needs that carries out work that affects the careful, occupational and environmental hygiene of asbestos removal; b) provide training or take other measures to comply with it; Machine Translated by Google c) assess the effectiveness of the measures taken; d) ensure that staff are aware of the relevance and importance of the activities and how it contributes to achieving the objectives with regard to the careful, occupational and environmentally hygienic removal of asbestos; and e) maintain appropriate records of education, training, skills and experience of the Expert Asbestos Remover DAV-1 and DAV-2 and Expert Asbestos Removal Supervisor in accordance with Annex XIIIc, whereby the use of a DAV-1 only takes place if the asbestos removal company provides adequate mentorship. 7.11.2.2. Medical examination/exposure registration The workers who risk exposure to asbestos should be given the opportunity to undergo occupational health examinations: •. upon commencement of employment; •. as long as exposure continues at least once every three years. The individual occupational health data of the employees must be stored in personal files. The records must be kept for at least 40 years after the end of exposure. The employer is obliged to offer the above-mentioned occupational health examinations to the employees. However, employees have the right to refuse to undergo an occupational health examination. This must be apparent from a personal written statement. Written proof of medical fitness (or waiver) must be demonstrable at the project location. 7.11.2.3. Internal reviewer The internal assessor must demonstrably possess: •. general knowledge of the health risks associated with asbestos, legislation and regulations, certification schemes, personal protective equipment, the asbestos inventory and asbestos removal process, etc. With the Ascert Diploma Asbestos Expert ADK (see SC-570: version 01, date 15-11-2011) this requirement can be met; •. knowledge of the own quality system. 7.11.2.4. Suitability and proper use of respiratory protection The DTA-er and DAV-er who carry out asbestos removal work have suitable personal respiratory protection equipment of the correct type and size and use this during the asbestos removal. The suitability of the respiratory protection equipment of the DTA-er / DAV-er is assessed at least annually by means of a fit test in accordance with the Operational Circular 282/28 – Fit Testing Of Respiratory Protective Equipment Facepieces (hereinafter HSE protocol). At the workplace it is demonstrated by means of the fit test certificate that the respiratory protection equipment of the DTA-er / DAV-er is suitable. The results of the fit test are also stored in the personnel file. Machine Translated by Google The DTA-er and DAV-er who carry out asbestos removal work have been demonstrably instructed in the correct use of respiratory protection by means of participation in the online instruction program at www.vezelveiligheid.nl/adembescherming. Employees who have a DTA or DAV personal certificate for the first time have followed part 1 of the instruction program at the start of the work. Part 2 of the instruction program is then completed after 8 weeks and at the latest within 12 weeks after the start of the work. The certificate of participation in the instructional program is available at the workplace and is kept in the personnel file. New employees, insofar as they have not yet followed the instruction program, have in any case followed part 1 of the instruction program at the start of the work. In that case, part 2 of the instruction program is followed after 8 weeks, but no later than 12 weeks after the start of the work. In this context, a new employee is understood to mean a person who has not performed any work for the certificate holder since 1 July 2014. Hired persons are equated with employees. 7.11.3. Business equipment and assets The asbestos removal company must determine, make available and maintain the company equipment and equipment that are necessary to enable careful, occupational and environmental hygiene to remove asbestos. This in accordance with the requirements of the client. Company furnishings and equipment include, where applicable: a) buildings, workspace and associated facilities; b) process equipment: see table 7.11.3 below; c) support services (such as transport, communication, etc.). The asbestos removal company must clean the means that are used for the removal and transport of asbestos-containing material after use in such a way that there are no sources with secondary asbestos fiber emission or to package and dispose of them (see also SC-530 par. 7.15.10 to 7.15.12). Table 7.11.3 Process equipment No. Work equipment Inspection basis, or Inspection period criteria Work equipment All inspections (and +/– 1 month repairs) to be carried out by a service representative for that part qualified Machine Translated by Google mechanic. must comply with the CE-mark ER-89/686/ EEC Electrical device, 1. Inspection according to NEN 12 months incl. all electrical devices mentioned below 3140. Extinguishing agent 2. Inspection according to NEN 12 months 2559 and NEN-EN 671-1 t / m 3. 3. Scaffolding, ladder and Inspection according to NEN-EN 12 months other climbing equipment 2484, EN 131-1 to 5, NEN 2718. 4. Personal Maintenance, treatment 12 months of protective equipment and and check: • check and maintain before and clothing (PPE) after each use for functioning cf. Working Conditions • Act, Article 3 ; keep/ store in a suitable place designated for that purpose; • air filter requirements submit to be in accordance with NEN- EN 143, 144, 12942. 5. Harness belt, lanyard Inspection according to NEN-EN 12 months and anti- fall device, 354, 355, 358, 360 to lifeline, brake chute 363. 6. Ambient air (non-) Inspection for fit, 12 months depending on damage, respiratory protection headbands, visor, (ABM, O-ABM) breathing capacity, resistance inlet and outlet valves, regulator, pull protection coupling, air hoses, air flow (min. 120, resp. 160 l/min. pp with dependent ABM and min. 300 l/min. pp plus 150 l/min. for each additional person at 6 – 8 Bar at Machine Translated by Google independent O-ABM), battery, endurance test battery (6 h) and motor unit according to NEN-EN 132 to 144 and NEN-EN 12942. 7. Mobile Check on: • 12 months Legionella decontamination unit according to a specific management plan; • final assessment of at least the 'dirty' space with visual inspection and at least one air measurement by an RvA. Inspections and Testing accredited laboratory; • the proper functioning of the partitions between the three compartments; • negative pressure ventilation with a minimum ventilation rate of 2x6 of the contents of the wet cell (minimum 20 Pascal in the 'dirty' room), whereby the ventilation takes place in a zigzag and diagonally from top to bottom (or vice versa) from the clean to the 'dirty' room; • gas and heating inspection according to GIVEG; • facility that collects water contaminated with asbestos and is filtered with an appropriate water filter (system), ending with a filter stage with a 5 micron pore diameter; • the car in accordance with the requirements of the Rijksdienst voor Wegverkeer. 8. Water management system Check on: • 12 months Legionella according to a Machine Translated by Google specific management plan (for boiler/flow-through systems, optional for full empty/ dry-run systems); • heating system functionality; • facility that collects water contaminated with asbestos and is filtered with an appropriate water filter (system), ending with a filter stage with a 5 micron pore diameter. 9. Asbestos vacuuming system • HEPA filter needs 12 months comply with NEN-EN 1822, filter class H13 or H14; • Replace HEPA filter if the leak tightness in the machine is not satisfactory (to be carried out with a photometer), or the volume flow rate of the machine has been reduced to 75% or less of factory value due to filter contamination; • efficiency test. 10. Underpressure monitor/meter Calibration according to DIN 12 months 16086 11. Negative pressure ventilation machine • HEPA filter must be 12 months ine (including those that comply with NEN-EN from 1822, filter class H13 decontamination units, or H14; the filter must be equipped with suction installations / metal trolleys in overpressure cabins and dry substances on the loadable side) protective strips/grid; • Replace HEPA filter if the leak tightness in the machine is not satisfactory (to be performed with a Machine Translated by Google ohotometer), whether the volume flow rate of the machine has been reduced to 75% or less of the due to contamination of the filter factory value; • Check on the occurrence of air displacement at the maximum permissible air displacement for the relevant filter {in m 3 / h = filter surface (m 2 ) x 3600 (sec./h) x permissible filter speed (m/sec)}; • efficiency test and inspections according to NEN 50110-1; • functionality control stepless regulation, hour counter, etc., where applicable. 12. Pressurized cabins / • Capacity tests 12 months machines in accordance with NEN-EN 1822 1 to 5; overpressure of• the cabin must have an 100-300 Pascal rule (50 Pascal for machines from before 1997); • hydrocarbon measurement < 5 ppm with a measurement period of at least 60 seconds; • air output between 40 and 120 m3/h; • check the location of the exhaust, so that no gases can be drawn in; • check that the air drawn in can only pass through the filters flocking in; • Machine Translated by Google check automatic start-up, optical and acoustic signalling; • on the machine with pressurized cabin, a filter log is present, which indicates which filters are present and whether they were changed on time. 13. Packaging of Asbestos-containing asbestos-containing material, asbestos waste and asbestos-contaminated waste that is present outside the containment, the shielded workspace, the glove- bag location, or in open air conditions outside the cordoned off and marked, direct disposal location, at least double and airtight and fibre-tight with a sound, punch and tear-resistant foil (polyethylene of min. 0.2 mm thickness) must be packed. 7.12. The careful, occupational and environmentally hygienic removal of asbestos 7.12.1. Planning an asbestos removal job The business processes required for the performance of a specific asbestos removal work must be set up by the asbestos removal company in conjunction with the control and assurance of careful, occupational and environmentally hygienic asbestos removal. When planning an asbestos removal job, the asbestos removal company must, as appropriate, ensure the following: Machine Translated by Google a) Objectives with regard to the careful, occupational hygiene and environmentally hygienic asbestos removal and other requirements for a specific asbestos removal work. b) drawing up a project-oriented Risk Inventory & Evaluation (RI&E) and H&S Plan Implementation phase based on this ) H&S Plan Implementation phase includes information about responsible parties, responsible persons, method of external and internal communication and instructions, present safety and health risks with the measures to be taken against them, further operational agreements and evaluation aimed at all safety, health, welfare and environmental care aspects for responsible asbestos removal on a concrete project.) and project work plan including standard procedures and working methods, protocols, etc. from the company's quality manual. Explanation: – This RI&E must pay attention to: – working safely at heights; – measures against the risk of falling and falling objects; – working safely with chemicals, solvents, etc.; – noise protection; – protection against carbon monoxide; – protection against extreme temperatures; – protection against high-frequency vibrations; – working safely with machines and work equipment; – applying all necessary appropriate personal protective equipment; – environmental protection; – source-oriented emission-reducing work; – the obligation to actually use these alternatives if sufficient alternative techniques and methods are available. c) preparing documents (including RI&E, H&S Plan, project work plan) and the making available resources specific to an asbestos removal work. d) the required specific verification, validation, surveillance, testing and testing activities and the delivery criteria for an asbestos removal work. e) registrations necessary to provide proof that a completed asbestos removal work meets the requirements of care, occupational hygiene and environmental hygiene and other requirements (see section 7.8). f) registration in the evaluation form of the findings related to the asbestos inventory report made available by the client. The output of this planning must match the way of working in the asbestos removal company. Remark: Machine Translated by Google A document that specifies the control and assurance of asbestos removal and the means to be used for a given asbestos removal work may be referred to as a quality plan. 7.12.2. Processes related to the client 7.12.2.1. Determination of requirements for asbestos removal work The asbestos removal company must determine the following: a) requirements specified by the client, among other things, laid down in the asbestos inventory report, including the requirements for removal to a licensed facility; b) requirements from legislation and regulations with regard to asbestos removal work; c) how to act towards the client in the event of removal more asbestos is found than is described in the asbestos inventory report; all additional requirements set by the asbestos removal company d) established. 7.12.2.2. Assessment of requirements for asbestos removal work The asbestos removal company must assess the requirements for an asbestos removal work. This assessment must be carried out before the asbestos removal company commits itself to the client for the execution of any asbestos removal work (eg tendering, acceptance of contracts, acceptance of changes to contracts). Records of the results of the assessment and measures resulting from the assessment must be maintained (see SC-530 par.7.8). When the requirements for the asbestos removal work are changed, the asbestos removal company must ensure that relevant documents are changed and that those directly involved are informed about the changed requirements. 7.12.2.3. Communication with the client The asbestos removal company must set up effective communication with clients regarding: a) the information about an asbestos removal work; b) order handling, including changes; c) feedback to clients including information related to unforeseen asbestos found (see SC-540); d) the presentation of the final delivery report and its acceptance by the client. 7.12.3. Purchasing and hiring staff 7.12.3.1. Purchasing Process Machine Translated by Google The asbestos removal company must ensure that purchased products and/or services meet the specified purchasing requirements. The asbestos removal company must evaluate and select suppliers based on their ability to provide a product and/or service in accordance with the asbestos removal company's requirements. Criteria for selection, assessment and reassessment should be established. Records of the results of assessments and any necessary actions arising from the assessment must be maintained. 7.12.3.2. Purchasing data Purchase data must describe the product and/or service to be purchased, including: a) requirements for approval of the product and/or service; b) requirements for qualification of personnel; and c) requirements from the control and assurance of asbestos removal. The asbestos removal company must guarantee the suitability of specified purchasing requirements before disclosing them to the supplier. 7.12.3.3. Hiring staff The personnel hired in are wholly under the responsibility of the certificate holder in accordance with the quality system. In particular, this certification scheme must be complied with with regard to: a) the ability; b) the working method, insofar as it is relevant for the hired staff. The responsibility for the hired personnel with regard to RI&E and the health aspects lies with the certificate holder. If applicable, the agreements regarding hired personnel for the asbestos removal work must be present at the project location. 7.12.4. Asbestos removal Chapter 7.14 of this certification scheme contains the requirements for the asbestos removal process. 7.12.4.1. Asbestos Removal Control In addition to the work plan, a H&S plan for the implementation phase must be drawn up in accordance with the Working Conditions Decree. The company must ensure that the activities stated in the work plan are carried out under controlled conditions. Controlled conditions are understood to mean: •. The presence and application of work regulations related to: – checking the conformity of an inventory report with SC-540 Chapter 7.17 – information to third parties about hazards and risks; Machine Translated by Google – organization work organization with the powers laid down in it and responsibilities of all those involved in the asbestos removal process; – arranging and maintaining the workplace to prevent the uncontrolled and undesired spread of asbestos to people and the environment during the removal of asbestos; – use of resources/equipment; – the packaging and identification of the asbestos-containing . to be disposed of material; – the presence of asbestos in other places in the structure/ object than was indicated in the asbestos inventory report; – control measurement, also of deployed resources, after removal and delivery; – removal of asbestos. •. the presence of source measures; •. application of occupational hygiene strategy when taking measures; •. the criteria for the release of processes, personal protective equipment and equipment for the purpose of the asbestos removal work; •. the regulations in the Working Conditions Decree for personnel with regard to occupational health aspects; •. the available information about the personnel with regard to personal certificates DTA, DAV-1 and DAV-2; •. The company must demonstrably comply with the occupational and environmental hygiene criteria. Appropriate records of asbestos removal activities (in accordance with work regulations), of the resources used, of the equipment and of all persons involved must be carefully kept in a project-related logbook. 7.12.4.2. Property of the client The asbestos removal company must handle client property with care when it is managed or used by the asbestos removal company. The asbestos removal company must identify, verify, protect and preserve property of the client that forms part of the asbestos removal work. If any property of the client is lost, damaged or otherwise deemed unfit for use, this must be reported to the client and records must be kept. 7.12.5. Controlling monitoring and measuring equipment For the monitoring and measurement of the negative pressure values in the containment, the asbestos removal company must determine which monitoring and measuring equipment is required to be able to provide proof that asbestos is being removed in accordance with the requirements in this scheme. Machine Translated by Google The asbestos removal company must take appropriate measures if it appears that the required values have not been used during the asbestos removal. Records of the results of verification must be maintained. 7.13. Measurement, analysis and improvement 7.13.1. General The asbestos removal company must have appropriate means to demonstrate that: a) the asbestos removal work meets the requirements; b) the control and assurance of the removal of asbestos meets the requirements; c) the effectiveness of the control and assurance of asbestos removal is continuously improved. 7.13.2. Monitoring and measurement 7.13.2.1. Client satisfaction Using a customer satisfaction form, the asbestos removal company must give the client the opportunity to make known its experiences with the asbestos removal company's working method for each asbestos removal work. And whether, according to the client, it has complied with the client's requirements and the SC 530 certification scheme, including the associated laws and regulations. 7.13.2.2. Internal review The asbestos removal company must carry out internal assessments at least once a year to determine whether the control and assurance of the asbestos removal: a) corresponds to the requirements of the SC-530 certification scheme: version 01, date 15-09-2011 incl. the associated legislation and regulations and the internal requirements with regard to the control and assurance of the removal of asbestos; b) effectively implemented and maintained. An assessment program should be planned, taking into account the results of previous assessments. The assessment criteria, scope, frequency and methods must be defined. The objectivity and impartiality of the assessment process must be guaranteed by the choice of assessors and the performance of assessments. Assessors are not allowed to conduct assessments on their own work. The management responsible for the review should ensure that action is taken without undue delay to eliminate detected misstatements and their causes. Follow-up activities should consist of the verification of the measures taken and the reporting of verification results. 7.13.3. Controlling abnormal asbestos removal work Machine Translated by Google The asbestos removal company must ensure that if work is not carried out in accordance with the requirements of care, occupational hygiene and environmental hygiene, this is determined and brought under control in order to prevent exposure to asbestos. The control and related responsibilities and authorities to deal with possible asbestos exposure due to deviations must be established in a documented procedure. The asbestos removal company must deal with asbestos removal deviations in one or more of the following ways: a) by taking measures to remedy the observed anomaly; b) by authorizing its use, release or acceptance with the consent of a local competent authority; c) by taking measures to ensure the originally targeted asbestos exposure level. Records of the nature of deviations and any subsequent action taken, including approvals obtained, must be maintained. When deviations are corrected, it must be re-verified to show that it meets the requirements. When deviations are discovered after delivery, the asbestos removal company must take measures aimed at the consequences or possible consequences of the deviation. 7.13.4. Analysis of data The asbestos removal company must determine, collect and analyze appropriate data to demonstrate the suitability and effectiveness of the control and assurance of the asbestos removal. And to assess where continuous improvement of the effectiveness of the control and assurance of asbestos removal is feasible. This should include data from monitoring and measurement and other relevant sources. The analysis of data should provide information related to: a) client satisfaction; b) meeting the requirements of care, occupational hygiene and environmental hygiene when removing asbestos and other requirements; c) options for preventive measures; d) suppliers. 7.13.5. Improvement 7.13.5.1. Continuous improvement The asbestos removal company must continuously improve the effectiveness of the control and assurance of the removal of asbestos by using: policy and objectives with regard to careful, occupational hygiene a) and environmental asbestos removal; b) assessment results; c) analysis of data; d) corrective and preventive measures; e) the management review. Machine Translated by Google 7.13.5.2. Correcting measures The asbestos removal company must take measures to eliminate the cause of deviations to prevent recurrence. Corrective actions should be tailored to the consequences of the nonconformities that occur. A documented procedure should be established to define the requirements for: a) assessing deviations (including complaints from clients); b) determining the causes of deviations; c) assessing the need to take steps to ensure that misstatements do not recur; d) determining and implementing the necessary measures; e) registering the results of the measures taken; f) assessing the corrective actions taken. 7.13.5.3. Precautionary actions The asbestos removal company must establish measures to eliminate the causes of possible future deviations, in order to prevent their occurrence. Preventive measures must be tailored to the consequences of possible future problems. A documented procedure should be established to define the requirements in front of: a) determining possible future misstatements and their causes; b) assessing the need to take measures to prevent deviations from occurring; c) determining and implementing the necessary measures; d) recording the results of the measures taken; e) assessing the preventive measures taken. Requirements for asbestos removal 7.14. Preparation 7.14.1. Job acquisition When acquiring the order, the asbestos removal company must point out to the client: 1) that an asbestos inventory report in accordance with SC-540 before removal of asbestos from buildings and objects mandatory ) Subject to the exception permitted by law.) is. 2) If the inventory report is older than three years, the inventory report must be checked for topicality (see SC-540 par 7.14.2). 3) that in the case of a structure within the meaning of the Housing Act, a environmental permit for demolition required Machine Translated by Google ) Subject to the exception permitted by law.) is. 4) that if the removal of obstacles and/or household effects is not an efficient and effective action, the obstacles and/or household effects present in the areas where asbestos removal is provided must be covered. ad 1: In case it is a construction within the meaning of Under the Housing Act, the environmental permit for demolition is requested by the client from the competent authority of the relevant municipality. As for the asbestos removal work no environmental permit for demolition has been issued by the competent authority and the company nevertheless carries out the asbestos work, the work can be stopped by that municipality. ad 4: In particular when replacing asbestos-containing corrugated sheets, roof/wall panels and the like of sheds, sheds, workshops, buildings, etc. in rented premises, the lessor/client is obliged to ensure that its tenants are cleared in a timely manner. The lessor/client is authorized, in the event of the lessee's refusal, to allow such spaces at the expense of the lessee. Machine Translated by Google evict. 7.14.2. Assignment final inspection after asbestos removal If the client requests the disposal company to do so, the company must instruct an RvA- accredited final inspection body on behalf of the client for the purpose of carrying out the final inspection. Explanation: The (re)sending to the client of the report of the final measurement of the final assessment body is done by the asbestos removal company. 7.14.3. Relevant external documents The company must obtain the following relevant external documents for the execution of the work: •. an inventory report including the risk class classification and disposal conditions (see SC-540 par. 7.17), made available by the client; – If the inventory report does not meet the required topicality in accordance with SC-540 par. 7.17, the asbestos removal company must report this to its client. – Under the condition that the asbestos inventory report meets the requirements, the asbestos removal company can complete its work preparation and start the implementation. Remark: The asbestos removal company may be confronted with an inventory report that does not comply with SC-540 and the underlying laws and regulations. In that case, there is a risk of unimpeded progress due to the supervision by the competent authority. •. a complete copy of the environmental permit for demolition. In the event of a commissioning housing corporation in the context of mutation and complaints maintenance, the company must have copies of the umbrella permit or an environmental permit for demolition and associated notifications in accordance with the 'Protocol Removal of Asbestos- containing materials in case of mutation and complaint maintenance'. Explanation: As clients, housing corporations can apply for an umbrella permit for common activities in the municipalities where they work. In the umbrella permit, the municipality grants the housing association a permit to remove asbestos-containing materials from its property in the event of mutation and complaint maintenance, under Machine Translated by Google condition that the housing association adheres to the procedure described in the Protocol for Removal of Asbestos-Containing Materials for Change and Complaint Maintenance and on condition that the housing association reports the address details of the relevant homes to the municipality in good time before the removal begins. A copy of the umbrella permit with the notification is equivalent to an environmental permit. The requirement that an asbestos inventory of all directly and not directly observable asbestos or products containing asbestos, etc. has been carried out, remains fully applicable. The housing associations do not act differently in this regard than in the case of an environmental permit for demolition. 7.14.4. Work plan The company must draw up a complete work plan and check it internally, resulting in a work plan with the status 'suitable for execution'. The following principles apply here: 1e The work plan includes the measures to be taken to comply with the (disposal) conditions and protective measures (including protection factor for the full face mask) in relation to the indicated risk class stated in the inventory report; 2e Delete according to the inventory report, including any adjustments; 3e The work plan also includes the implementation requirements from the environmental permit for demolition. The best existing technology should be used. 4e The places where asbestos are removed are clearly demarcated, shielded and Machine Translated by Google marked; 5e The equipment and material to be deployed is geared to the risk classes stated in the asbestos inventory report and meets the requirements. The material is provided with a valid inspection identification; 6e Before the start of the asbestos remediation, it is inventory report listed non-asbestos contaminated freestanding inventory removed from the work area or sound and airtight taped; 7e For multi-day work, a ('clean') zone has been set up and is kept clean where employees can eat and drink; also is one toilet facilities available that are kept clean; 8e During the execution of the remediation work and during the final inspection, a decontamination unit present; 9e This decontamination unit is preferably linked to the work area. If coupling the decontamination unit to Machine Translated by Google the working area is not possible, the reason for this is in the work plan established; 10 e In a containment situation When removed under risk class 2, the negative pressure is continuously measured and with each shift the observed negative pressure value registered in the log; 11 e In a containment situation, when removed under risk class 2A 'the underpressure' continuous measured and continuously recorded. The registrations are recorded in the log; Any ventilation system 12 e present in a containment situation is switched off and covered; The containment will be 13 e arranged in such a way that no fiber is spread outside the containment can take place during the asbestos removal work. During that period, the negative pressure must be maintained; even when there are no activities, such as at night. If a containment is applied, are decided and Machine Translated by Google screened spaces have been tested for the correct negative pressure, for which the following requirements apply: a. a containment is constructed in such a way that it can withstand a negative pressure of 20 Pascal; b. a containment is shielded from the surrounding spaces in such a way that asbestos fiber emission to that becomes spaces prevent, even when the negative pressure disappears; c. the extraction capacity per hour is six times the volume of the containment; d. a negative pressure of at least 20 Pascal is maintained during the removal; e. there is a decontamination unit at the containment coupled, unless there is insufficient space for this and this is work plan is documented with reasons; and f. a two-stage waste sluice is linked to the containment, unless there is insufficient space for this and the non-use is specified in the work plan. Only when it is demonstrably technical does not prove feasible to meet the requirement set out in part d, can be motivated Machine Translated by Google deviate from that requirement. 14 e The extracted air is filtered with a pre-filter to retain coarse (asbestos) fiber particles and with a HEPA H13 or H14 filter (in accordance with NEN-EN1822-1 to 5:2002) to retain fine (asbestos) fiber particles; The removal of 15 e asbestos is dismantled where possible; 16 e To the removal source, an effective dust extraction is applied; 17 e The material to be removed is removal impregnated or moistened; if this creates a risk of asbestos exposure, this measure will be waived; 18 e Polluted with asbestos water is collected and filtered with a pre-filter to retain coarse (asbestos) fiber particles and with one or more filters with a final filter < 5 m. 19 e When removing asbestos-containing materials that adhere to located on the outside of a structure or object, it is not necessary to Machine Translated by Google compartmentalization and keeping the space under negative pressure. Points 9), 12) and 13) are then not mandatory. However, the other points mentioned always apply and are followed. 7.14.5. Reporting the asbestos removal work Before the start of the implementation, the company must enter the period of the asbestos removal work (see SC-530 Appendix A) in the registration system Web portal Inspectorate SZW. The report is automatically forwarded via the Web portal Inspectorate SZW to: •. the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate; •. the certification body of the asbestos removal company; •. the licensing municipality within which the asbestos removal work will be carried out. Explanation: The starting time to be specified is the time at which the asbestos removal is started. The end time to be specified is the expected time of completion of the work area in accordance with NEN 2990: 2012. Changes in dates and/or times (both of the commencement and termination of the work) must be reported immediately to the aforementioned authorities. In the event of an emergency, the work may be carried out immediately. The notification must be made within 24 hours after the start of the work. The notification form (SC 530 Annex A) must state the reason (substantiated with facts) of the urgent remediation as a result of the calamity. If there is a main contractor and a subcontractor, the executing party will report the asbestos removal work. If no environmental permit for demolition has been issued by the relevant municipality for the asbestos removal work and the company carries out the asbestos work anyway, the work can be stopped by that municipality. In accordance with the Working Conditions Decree article 14.47c, first paragraph. If the notification as referred to in Article 4.47c, first paragraph, of the Working Conditions Decree is made in writing, it is considered to be timely if the notification of the information referred to in this Article is made in writing, no later than five Machine Translated by Google working days before the start of the work. Notwithstanding this, in the event of an emergency, a notification with a deadline of two working days before the start of the work will suffice. If the notification is made electronically, it is considered timely if the notification is done no later than two working days before the start of the work. If asbestos is unexpectedly found during demolition or in the event of an emergency, an immediate report will suffice. If the latter means that the notification must take place outside office hours, it must be made immediately at the start of the next working day. 7.14.6. Valid personal certificate The required personnel, DTA'(s) and DAV'(s) must be in possession of a valid personal certificate that can be demonstrated at the workplace, included in the Ascert register. 7.14.7. Acceptance work plan by DTA The company must have the DTA review and accept the prepared project, documented in the work plan. This DTA is charged with the implementation and/or delivery of the project (see par. 7.9.4.3). If applicable, the agreements regarding hired personnel for the asbestos removal work must be present at the project location. 7.15. Execution of asbestos removal at the project location 7.15.1. Check before the start of asbestos removal work The DTA must carry out the following checks before the actual start of the asbestos removal work at the project site: •. whether the work plan is complete, including the work relevant documents; •. whether the description of the work in the work plan corresponds to the situation found at the project location; •. whether the assignment or the situation found at the project location deviates from the work plan and/or if the work plan is not complete; •. whether the observed shortcoming(s) lead to a appropriate work plan, so that the work can be started. 7.15.2. Working outdoors at low temperatures When performing asbestos removal work outdoors at low temperatures using open air powered full face masks, health and safety factors other than just the 'exposure to asbestos fibres' factor must also be taken into account. The following should become clear from the risk inventory and evaluation to be drawn up for the specific work: Machine Translated by Google a) Up to what minimum temperature the dust filter and the equipment can be used in accordance with the instructions for use or product specification associated with the dust filter; b) Up to what maximum humidity level the dust filter can be used used in accordance with the instructions for use or product specification belonging to the dust filter. c) To what minimum temperature the respiratory protective equipment can be used in accordance with the instructions for use or product specification associated with the respiratory protective device; Explanation: This is because there is a risk that the materials of the respiratory protective equipment will stiffen to such an extent that there is a risk that the mask will no longer function properly; remember to check the check valve, the seal of the mask. For this, the instructions of the manufacturer of the full face mask should be consulted). d) How long it is justified to work at the prevailing temperature; Explanation: Stiffness of limbs, strong cooling of the facial surface, watery eyes, etc. are indicators of immediately ending the work. The perceived temperature (temperature under the influence of the wind force) is important here; The measures to be taken to prevent slipping from ladders, platforms, etc e) prevent; f) The measures to be taken to ensure the functioning of the tools and equipment (for example the decontamination truck) under cold conditions. The personnel must receive clear instructions in advance and can terminate the work if this is necessary for health and/or safety reasons. 7.15.3. Supervision by DTA during asbestos removal work The DTA must monitor demonstrably and continuously during the asbestos removal. This supervision includes, among other things, that the DTA: a) is convinced that all asbestos-related equipment to which SC 530 table 7.11.3 inspection requirements have been set, functions and is provided with a valid inspection certificate; b) is satisfied that all employees are demonstrably medically fit for carrying out asbestos removal work; c) is convinced that the protective measures are suitable for the risk class in which the work is carried out; d) is satisfied that all removers are in possession of the certificate DAV-1 or DAV-2; e) provides the employees with demonstrable instruction about the work to be performed, the associated risks and the division of tasks; f) is satisfied that the decontamination procedure is used (see SC 531: version 01, date 15-11-2011); g) checks the work area and/or containment for the requirements that apply to it stated in the work plan; Machine Translated by Google h) is convinced that the security measures adopted for the project in the work plan are prescribed are carried out appropriately and result in a controlled situation; i) registers in accordance with SC-530 par. 7.8. The results of these checks must be recorded in the logbook. 7.15.4. Reporting unforeseen asbestos The company must immediately report when asbestos has to be removed for which no environmental permit for demolition has been granted. The notification must take place at: •. to the licensing municipality (competent authority) in accordance with Article 8.3.4 of the (model) building regulation; •. the contractor; •. the asbestos survey company. If hidden asbestos-containing materials are found during removal/demolition that are not listed in the type A inventory report and for which no environmental permit for demolition has therefore been granted, this must be reported. In such a situation, the client is obliged to have an additional inventory carried out. The result leads to an asbestos inventory report Type-B that is added as an appendix to the asbestos inventory report type-A and is made available to the holder of the environmental permit for demolition and the permit issuer (municipality). In the event that during removal/ demolition, despite the presence of a Type-A inventory report with a Type-B addition, materials containing asbestos are unexpectedly found and for which no environmental permit for demolition has therefore been granted, this must be reported and registered in the evaluation form included in the asbestos inventory report (see SC-540). 7.15.5. Start asbestos removal work At the start of the work, the following logistical matters must be arranged: •. Providing information to involved third parties; •. Holding a kick-off meeting with the executive staff; •. The use of approved work equipment (material and equipment); •. Setting up the project location with the approved work equipment. 7.15.6. Screened areas If applicable, one or more shielded rooms must be available within which the asbestos removal can take place safely. 7.15.7. Rooms with negative pressure Machine Translated by Google If applicable, the enclosed and shielded space(s) must be tested for the correct negative pressure. (See also SC-530 par. 7.14.4 13th dash). 7.15.8. Logbook registrations The implementation process at the project location must be continuously monitored with registrations thereof in the logbook. 7.15.9. Asbestos material released from the containment The asbestos material released in the containment or at the work location, in combination with the equipment and tools contaminated there, possibly with asbestos, must be packed in a double and airtight and fiber-tight manner and removed from the containment or work location. 7.15.10. Remove and pack The removal and packaging of the asbestos material and the removal (if applicable) to a collection point at the project location must take place according to the accepted work plan as follows: •. The asbestos-containing waste must be collected as soon as possible after demolition, packed and removed in suitable and airtight sealed packaging and provided with an asbestos hazard sticker (A-label Asbestos Products Decree). •. Asbestos-containing material, asbestos waste and asbestos-contaminated waste that is present outside the containment, the shielded workspace, the glove-bag location, or in open air conditions outside the demarcated and marked, direct removal location, must be at least double and airtight and fiber-tight with a proper, impact - and tear-resistant foil (polyethylene of min. 0.2 mm thickness) to be packed. •. If, given the size of the packaged waste containing asbestos, it is not it is possible to remove it to a place outside the work area, the reason for this must be recorded in the work plan. However, the asbestos-containing waste must then be placed in such a way that inspection under the waste remains possible and that it does not impede the final inspection in any way; •. The asbestos must be removed in such a way that no residual parts can remain in the work area, unless the work plan indicates otherwise; •. The origin, transporter and recipient of the asbestos waste must be registered on the accompanying ticket (see 7.17) 7.15.11. Cleaning and visual collection control In accordance with the accepted work plan, the asbestos removal company must clear the project location, including the equipment and resources used (including contaminated foil and tape residues) used for the removal and transport, from dust and dirt, followed by a visual inspection for the absence of sources with secondary asbestos fiber emission. . 7.15.12. Tools used Machine Translated by Google After the remediation, the tools used must be cleared from sources with secondary asbestos fiber emission or, if this is not possible, they must be packed airtight in sound, impact-resistant and tear- resistant packaging with an asbestos hazard sticker (A-label Asbestos Products Decree). 7.16. Final assessment after asbestos removal ) For the way in which the requirements could be met, reference is made to SC 531E: version 01, date 15-09-2011 Declaration of completion of asbestos removal work [lit. 25]. This document is available on www.ascert.nl under Documents.) The term final assessment is used in Asbestos Removal Decree 2005, Staatsblad 2005, 704. The work must be performed by a NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17020: 2004 accredited final assessment body. 7.16.1. Entrance to the remediation area Up to and including the final assessment, the remediation area should only be entered by authorized persons who adhere to the applicable procedures. 7.16.2. DTA check on work performed The DTA must check at the project location whether the work has been carried out in accordance with the work plan and whether it is eligible for the final inspection. This should be registered in the logbook. 7.16.3. Enabling final assessment institution The DTA must ensure that the final assessment body is called upon by or on behalf of the client to carry out the final assessment at the project location in accordance with NEN 2990:2012, including the NEN Interim Regulation on final inspection after an asbestos remediation in risk class 2A (including decontamination unit at a containment and/or transit route) and on the basis of a project-related asbestos inventory report. In the event of a negative final assessment, it is not possible to switch to another final assessment institution. This final assessment includes both own and hired resources. 7.16.4. Execution of final assessment and DTA See also Risk analysis and breach criteria SC-530 par 3.3.2 The DTA, responsible for implementation and delivery (see SC-530 par. 7.9.4.3), must be present at the final assessment on behalf of the asbestos removal company. The handling of any follow-up actions must be registered and attached to the certificates of the final assessment Machine Translated by Google 7.16.5. Notification result final assessment The findings of the final assessment must be reported to the client, including a copy of the certificates of the final assessment, together with a copy to the local competent authority. 7.16.6. Final check of the 'vacated project location' Subsequently, the equipment placed at the project location must be removed, after which a final check of the 'vacated project location' must be carried out for the purpose of final delivery. This action must be recorded by the asbestos removal company in the final delivery report. 7.16.7. Completion of asbestos removal work At a minimum, the following actions must be taken to complete the asbestos removal work: •. Completing the evaluation form with the findings regarding unforeseen presence of asbestos-containing materials outside the asbestos inventory report and handing it over to the asbestos inventory company; •. Presenting and handing over to the client for approval the completion report at the end of the assignment, including the certificates of the final assessment by the independent inspection body / laboratory; •. Sending (or subsequent) sending to the client of the deposit receipt of the asbestos-containing waste; •. The company carries out the delivery and thus the end of the asbestos removal work in the LAVS as soon as it is available and made mandatory; •. If there are deviations from the original report, report them to the SZW Inspectorate/CKI/municipality. Explanation: If the work is completed earlier or takes longer than indicated in the original notification, this will be immediately reported to the SZW Inspectorate, Certification Body and Municipality. It is also stated whether the asbestos mentioned in the relevant inventory report has been removed. If not, specify what has been removed; •. Completing and retrievable filing of the project file. 7.17. Disposal of asbestos-containing material The waste that is released must be disposed of as follows: •. the asbestos removal company must ensure the correct disposal of the released asbestos-containing waste to an establishment (landfill or facility for intermediate storage) that has a permit for this under the Environmental Management Act. Machine Translated by Google •. Asbestos must be transported by a registered transporter and/or waste collector (the so-called VIHB registration), as referred to in the Waste Collection Decree (Government Gazette 2004, number 127). •. the asbestos removal company must provide a description of the waste in advance to the recipient and, insofar as the recipient is obliged to report receipt under the Waste Notification Decree, to request a waste stream number from the recipient. •. During the transport of waste containing asbestos, a fully completed accompanying note must be present with the shipment. •. If asbestos from different locations is combined in one container bag, an interim storage project register must be kept, which records from which projects the asbestos in the relevant container bag originates. •. The deposit slip, a copy of the accompanying letter and, if applicable, the application, the project register signed by the landfill must be kept by the asbestos remover for at least 5 years. •. A copy of the deposit slip and a copy of the, if applicable, by the project register signed off on the landfill must be handed over to the client of the asbestos removal work upon completion of the work. 8. Assessment methodology 8.1. Time spent on the assessments The indicated time expenditure is a guideline for regular assessments; the time units include reporting. Annual assessment and recertification on site: 1 man day; Assessment at project location: 0.5 man-day per assessment; maximum of 2 assessments per day. 8.2. Combination with assessments for other certification schemes In the case of combining assessments, the CKI must be able to demonstrate with the assessment report that the minimum requirements of SC-530 are examined during the assessment period for each location. Assessments on project locations are independent and must be carried out in accordance with the provisions of 8.1. 9. The certificate 9.1. Facts The certificate must contain at least the following information (see Appendix E). Machine Translated by Google Certificate holder details: •. Full company name; •. Business location; •. Chamber of Commerce registration number •. Relationship with demanding (field-specific) document identification and version designation. •. Operating companies in the appendix (see section 4.3.4); •. Certificate Holder Ascert Code (SC-710: Version 01, 2011-09-15, Regulations Setting up Ascert Certificate Register) Data from the CKI: •. Name; •. Business location; •. Logo; •. Feature of the designation order Minister SZW. Other data certificate: •. The date of entry into force and the date until which the certificate is valid. •. Text: The certificate must state that the institution declares that the company concerned meets the requirements of the field-specific certification scheme; •. Signature authorized person CKI; •. Ascert logo and logo with the mention SC-530 . respectively (See SC-800: version 01, 15-09-2011 Regulations Ascert Figurative Mark) •. Date 9.2. Use of the certificate The use of the certificate and the Ascert logo indicated on it is bound by SC-800: version 01, 15-09-2011 Regulations for the use of the Ascert logo and SC-810: version 01, date 15-09-2011 Certificate models. 9.3. Ascert Certificate Register The CKI registers the current data in the system certificate every month. In accordance with the agreement with Ascert, the data is sent electronically to Bureau Ascert for the Ascert Certificate Register. The revocation of certificates must be immediately reported to Ascert by the CKI. This register is made accessible via the internet, within the legal frameworks. Part III. Attachments For the information to the certificate holder, the mandatory character (v = mandatory) or the informative character (i = informative) is indicated per appendix. Machine Translated by Google Appendix A. Asbestos inventory and removal notification form (v) Mandatory character This data is entered in the web portal Inspectorate SZW by participants in the process. 1 Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate 7 Laboratory/inspection body that performs the final assessment after disposal Address: Postal code and city: Name: E-mail address: Contact: Address: 2 Postal Code Asbestos Removal Company Certification Body (Main Contractor) Place: Name: Phone no.: Contact: Fax number: Address: E-mail address: Postal RvA code: code City: Phone no.: 8 Place where it asbestos removal work being carried out (the location) Fax number: E-mail address: Description project location: Address: 3 B&W Municipality Postal Code: Department: Place: Contact: Phone number: Address: E-mail address: Postal Code Place: 9 Period of asbestos removal work Phone no.: Date of commencement: Fax number: Time to start work E-mail address: End date: Time end of work: Machine Translated by Google 4 Asbestos removal company (main contractor) Name: 10 Number of asbestos workers Contact: DTA: Address: DAV: Postal Code Place: 11 Location type: (if different) Phone no.: Fax number: 12 Asbestos inventory type A E-mail address: Name asbestos inventory bed row: Ascert code: Contact: Ascert code: 5 Date Asbestos removal company asbestos inventory report (subcontractor) port: Name: Which risk class(es) apply? • Risk class 1 Contact: (low); • Risk Address: class 2 (middle); • Risk class 2A Postal Code: (high); Place: Inventory quantities m 1 Phone no.: m2 Fax number: Pieces: E-mail address: Ascert code: 13 Asbestos inventory type B Name asbestos inventory bed row: 6 Holder Contact person: environmental permit for demolition Name: Ascert code: Contact: Date asbestos inventory report: -- Which risk class(es) Address: apply? Machine Translated by Google Postal Code: • Risk class 1 (low); • Place: Risk class 2 (center); • Phone number: Risk class 2A (high); E-mail address: Inventory quantities m 1 Environmental permit m 2 for demolition granted on date: - - Pieces: code: 14 If there is 15 Signing of a partial removal of the asbestos material mentioned under 12 and/or 13: Which risk class(es) Main contractor apply? Holder environmental permit for demolition • Risk class 1 Place: Place: (low); • Risk class 2 Date: Date: (center); • Risk class 2A Company name: (high); Inventory Name of organization: quantities m 1 m2 Name contactperson: Pieces: Name contactperson: Number of packing days: Signature: Signature: Appendix B. Field-specific definitions (i) Informative character Concept Definition / Meaning Sealing/shielding/in Encapsulation/Impregnation durable shielding or impregnation to prevent the release of Machine Translated by Google asbestos fibers. Explanation: A sustainable encapsulation/impregnation ensures that in a confined space during the remaining years of use of a building or construction from the asbestos-containing material, even under intensive use conditions, no asbestos concentration in the air is created that significantly exceeds the target value set by the Ministry of Infrastructure and the Environment, expressed as an 8-hour average concentration. Customer The natural or legal person to whom it asbestos inventory company or the asbestos removal company provides the service(s). Waste procedure For a description of the waste procedure, see document SC-531 on www.ascert.nl amphibole asbestos The fibrous silicates actinolite (Cas number 77536-66-4), amosite (Cas number 12172-73-5), anthophyllite (Cas number 77536-67-5), crocidolite (Cas number 12001-28-4) and tremolite (Cas number Machine Translated by Google 77536-68-6), as well as products incorporating those fibrous silicates. Occupational Hygiene Criteria with regard to criteria for the occupational hygiene facilities during the preparation and execution of asbestos inventory or asbestos removal work . Asbestos The fibrous silicates actinolite (Cas number 77536-66-4), amosite (Cas number 12172-73-5), anthophyllite (Cas number 77536-67-5), chrysotile (Cas number 12001-29-5), crocidolite (Cas number 12001-28-4) and tremolite (Cas number 77536-68-6. Asbestos analysis Analysis by an RvA accredited laboratory (see www.rva.nl) of a material or air sample for the presence, type and percentage/ concentration of asbestos. Asbestos containing construction or Construction or construction material construction materials in which serpentine asbestos or amphibole asbestos processed or present and of which the asbestos content is greater than or equal to 0.1 Machine Translated by Google weight percent (the determination lower limit of the method such as laid down in NEN 5896). Explanation: Asbestos containing materials are often incorrectly referred to as 'asbestos'. The designation used in SC-540 and SC-530 is asbestos, products containing asbestos, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction parts. Asbestos inventory process Systematic rc inventory of all asbestos-containing materials in a further specified building, construction or object resulting in a asbestos inventory report in accordance with SC-540 par. 21.8. with a unique project identifier. A full asbestos inventory in accordance with the SC-540 includes a asbestos inventory report Type A with, if necessary, an addition Type B. Asbestos fiber An asbestos particle that is longer than 5 micrometers, has a diameter of less than 3 micrometers and has a length/width ratio of more than 3:1 (Arbobesluit). In the environmental quality target ments for asbestos from Machine Translated by Google the ministry of Infrastructure and Environment traps too fibers with a length less than 5 micrometers below the definition of asbestos fiber. Audit Assessment of a (candidate) certificate holder for conformity with a certification scheme by an RvA accredited for this purpose, and/or by the Minister of SZW designated certification body auditor Name used for an expert assessor of a certifying Institution Asbestos Inventory Report, to be according to pportdistinguished Type-A, Type-B, Type-O and Type-G, in which the result of the asbestos inventory is recorded. The reporting requirements that the asbestos inventory report must meet are listed in SC-540 section 7.17. Business Criteria for the design, criteria implementation, control and assurance of the asbestos inventory pro ces. Control The operational techniques and activities that become applied to ensure that the asbestos inventory Machine Translated by Google is in accordance with SC-540. Sampling plan The schematic representation of the locations where samples are taken, the nature of the samples, the amount and other relevant data, including personal protective equipment and measures taken during sampling to prevent the emission of asbestos. Assurance (health and safety and health The totality of all environmental) planned and systematic necessary to ensureactions that in the asbestos inventory the The spread of asbestos to people and the environment is prevented with due observance of the legally applicable standards and regulations. Construction That which is built or arises from construction work. A building must comply to four criteria: • It must be of some magnitude. Explanation: A simple tombstone is not of any size and therefore not a building. A tomb monument is of some size and therefore a building.) • It must be a construction. • It must be three-dimensional. Machine Translated by Google • It must be localized. Explanation A mobile fish stall that has been in place for six months is a structure. The same mobile fish stall that stands somewhere else every day is not a structure. Examples of a structure are: utility buildings, houses, barns, caravans, bicycle sheds, stables, miniature golf courses. lampposts, factory halls, transformer houses, viaducts, funerary monuments, industrial installations located at a fixed location, mobile homes and mobile fish stalls with a fixed location. Architectural unit A functional unit of a building, construction or object (wing, floor, technical room, etc.). Explanation It is important for the classification that the units are of such a size that all asbestos-containing sources within the architectural or installation engineering become unity brought. Examples: A asbestos-containing escalator Machine Translated by Google continues through an open connection on three floors. All floors then belong to the unit to be examined. An air treatment system serves 6 floors, so that all these floors within the unit to be examined fall. Fire A fire is a combustion with fire that can spread unhindered and cause damage and/or danger. Within the framework of this certification scheme, the meaning fire incl. the release of asbestos fibres. Also known as asbestos fire. calamity A calamity is the commonly used term for an unexpected event that can cause serious damage. In this certification scheme is this event linked to asbestos risks for the environment before commencing asbestos removal work. Construction Something by construction has arisen. Explanation: A construction can mean a complete building, but in the context of a Machine Translated by Google asbestos inventory a structure is considered to be a independent part of a structure or object, eg a suspension structure of a bridge, the foundation of a building, the supporting structure of a viaduct. This has been named separately because in such sub- constructions sometimes specific asbestos applications. containment Construction with which a work area where asbestos-containing materials are removed from the environment and in which a legally established level of negative pressure is is maintained, to prevent the spread of asbestos fibers to humans and the environment. Check Periodic assessment by the RvA of CKIs against the rules of the Minister applicable to the assessment: SC-502. disassemble The removal of an asbestos- containing product or device as a whole without processing. Dismantling is a form of demolition. Desk research Carrying out a desk research into the building history of the object. Machine Translated by Google Expert Person who is in the Inventory Asbestos is in possession of a (DIA) personal certificate Expert Inventory accordance with Asbestos in SC-560. And thereby demonstrating compliance with the in Appendix A of the SC-540 Recorded Competency Profile Expert Person who is in the supervisor owns a Asbestos removal personal certificate (DTA) Expert Asbestos Removal Supervisor in accordance with Annex XIIIc . Expert Person in possession of an Asbestos Remover (DAV) personal certificate Expert Asbestos Remover level 1 or level 2 in accordance with Annex XIIIc . Accredited Laboratory that asbestos laboratory (see also has accreditation from the final assessmentAccreditation institute of the Council) Dutch for the concerned operation. Separate accredit is made for, among other things, the following activities with regard to asbestos: • material analysis; • sampling indoor air in an existing situation; • analysis of indoor air samples (existing situation); • final check after asbestos removal in a containment, glove bag (incubator bag) or outdoor situation Machine Translated by Google in accordance with NEN 2990 • non-routine asbestos investigation (research & development or an R&D recognition). Note: A laboratory/ research facility that performs a final check after removal of asbestos must are accredited in accordance with NEN-ISO/ IEC 17020 (RvA-Inspection). The other activities (air measurement, material analysis, etc.) are assessed in accordance with NEN-ISO/IEC 17025 (RvA Testing). In general, therefore, a laboratory that carries out a final check must be accredited for both operations. Combinations are possible, whereby the NEN-ISO/IEC 17020 is leading with one or more RvA Tests accreditations. Certified Company that complies with the relevant asbestos inventory bed criteria from asbestos inventory in accordance with certification scheme SC-540 prepared by CCvD Asbestos and tested against legislation and regulations by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment Een Machine Translated by Google such business is under Article 11 of the Asbestos removal order from and the agreement with Ascert authorized to use the Ascert logo feed Certified Company that complies with asbestos removal company the relevant criteria of asbestos removal, in accordance with the SC-530 certification scheme, drawn up by CCvD Asbestos and tested against the legislation and regulations by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. Such a company is authorized to use the Ascert logo on the basis of Article 11 of the Asbestos Removal Decree and the agreement with Ascert. feed. Glovebag (incubator bag) Non-accessible construction of limited size with which the asbestos-containing material to be removed is protected from the environment in a leak-free manner. The use of a glove bag is restricted to certified companies by or under the supervision of the DTA present at the project site. Destructive testing. not directly observable and presumably present asbestos or asbestos containing products prior Machine Translated by Google to the architectural demolition of a building, object or construction, using heavy equipment, whereby the structural integrity is affected. This type of investigation is described in more detail in SC-540 par 3.4.3 Type-B. Explanation: Actions that are intended to be included in an inventory not directly observable and presumably present asbestos or products containing asbestos and using only hand tools (sometimes referred to as 'light destructive testing') are considered non-destructive according to this definition because the architectural integrity is not compromised. Drilling into a floor to detect an underlying asbestos-containing coating or the use of a hollow drill in a pipe insulation therefore does not fall under destructive testing and is considered to be part of an SC-540 par 3.4.2. Shower procedure See decontamination procedure Final check after Determination (visual asbestos removal (= inspection, Machine Translated by Google final assessment) sampling and analysis) carried out in accordance with NEN 2990 that takes place after professional removal of asbestos in a containment or shielded space, to determine whether visually no more asbestos-containing dust is present in the room and whether the asbestos concentration in the sky is below the legal release limit. If not in containment or shielded space asbestos has been removed (outdoor locations), the visual inspection is considered a final check. Note: See also SC-530 par. 7.16 Final check and final acceptance. Incident Disturbing event, unforeseen event related to the formation of asbestos exposure risks encapsulate See Sealing /encapsulate / impregnate etc. Inventory plan Description of the inventory process that includes: • when, where, what, how, with what and by whom inspected; • the critical points in the process and process control measures Machine Translated by Google gel; • the documentation required for a careful asbestos inventory (work instructions, specifications and registrations). Integrity Assembly of (architectural) constructive elements that give the building its stability (eg foundation, load-bearing walls and columns. Quality manual The written record of the quality system. Quality system The organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures, processes and facilities for implementing measures to maintain the quality of the asbestos inventories performed at the required level. Environmental hygiene Criteria with regard to hygiene facilities in the the criteria preparation for environmental and implementation of the asbestos inventory. Sampling It from a taking samples of a defined lot in such a way that a representative picture of the properties of that lot is created. Object Device, means of transport, construction or Machine Translated by Google installation, not being a structure within the meaning of the Housing Act. Explanation: Objects are, for example: • gas, water and sewer pipes that belong to an underground gas, water or sewer network located outside a structure; • heating appliances (when they are connected to a structure in an earth- and nail-tight manner, they are not an object, but are part of the structure); • asbestos cement flower boxes • no longer on ; construction work fastened products, such as asbestos cement corrugated sheets; • older household appliances in which heat is generated, such as hair dryers, toasters, etc.; • older hot plates; • mopeds, cars, trucks, trains and ships; • (semi-paved) roads, insofar as they are located not be on a viaduct, etc. (a road on a viaduct is a structure); • sheeting of banks; • Asbestos- containing soil and asbestos-containing rubble granulate (bsa granulate) are not a building structure and neither are Machine Translated by Google no object. Maintenance Carrying out periodic work within or on the shell and construction of a building, object or construction, and/or the installations present therein. Client The natural or legal person who commissions the inventory or the asbestos removal work. Project location Location where the asbestos removal work or the asbestos inventory. renovation Performing major maintenance on a building, object or construction, whereby partial demolition can take place without losing the architectural integrity. Risk classification Classification of demolition or other work with or on asbestos, asbestos-containing products, asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated construction parts in one of the three risk classes in accordance with the Working Conditions Decree. Risk assessment (in Assessment of non-demolition situations) exposure risk to asbestos, asbestos- containing products, asbestos- contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated Machine Translated by Google construction components in buildings or objects (non- demolition situations) in accordance with NEN 2991:2005. Demolition The complete or partial demolition of a structure or object See decontamination procedure Transit route All technical Equipment tools necessary for carrying out an asbestos inventory or asbestos removal work . Validation study Investigation of the (for classification in a risk class) asbestos fibers during the performance of work with asbestos or materials containing asbestos for the purpose classify these activities in one of the three risk classes parts. The examination must be carried out under pre- work representative conditions in the breathing zone of the workers performing the work to carry out. The execution takes place in accordance with NEN 2939, which also includes the method of sampling (Personal sampling) and the analysis technique to be used (SEM.RMA in accordance with ISO 14966) Machine Translated by Google prescribed. Checking the measured values against the classification of concentration limits used in risk classes takes place with due observance of the NEN-EN 689 standard. Note: Such an investigation only needs to be carried out in the case of hitherto unknown combinations of asbestos- containing materials, applications, remediation techniques, or strongly deviating environmental factors for which no validated measurement data are (yet) available in SMA-rt. H&S (safety and health coordinator or legal person who is charged with the tasks related to safety and health mentioned in the Working Conditions Decree, Chapter 2, Section 5 (construction process) during the study, design and development phase of the design of a (construction) work / object. H&S (safety and health) plan includes: • a description of the work; • an overview of the natural persons involved in the work Machine Translated by Google persons or legal entities on the (construction) site; • the name of the H&S coordinator design and implementation phase; • an inventory and evaluation of hazards in accordance with Article 5 of the Working Conditions Act; • the way in which the cooperation between employers and any self- employed persons on the (construction) site is implemented, which provisions are made and how these provisions are supervised; • the way in which the cooperation and consultation between employers and employees on the (construction) site is implemented, and the way in which information and education of the employees takes place; • danger to third parties (Article 10 of the Working Conditions Act). H&S (safety and The file containing health) file information that is important for the safety and health of employees who will later perform work on the (construction) work/object. Release limit By the government determined value for the Machine Translated by Google asbestos concentration in the air that determines the release of a confined space after the professional removal of asbestos or material containing asbestos Work plan The written representation of the intended performance of activities with relating to asbestos stating the personnel to be deployed, the equipment to be used, the materials, equipment, work regulations to be used, working methods and –instructions. Workplace The (asbestos removal) demarcated/shielded and marked place where asbestos, asbestos- containing products, asbestos- contaminated material or Asbestos- contaminated construction parts are removed in an occupational and environmentally sound manner. Appendix C. Model application projects for initial certification (v) Mandatory character 1. General The asbestos removal company that has not yet been certified must submit an application to an authorized certification body (CKI) for an admission investigation for the Ascert- Machine Translated by Google Process certificate Asbestos removal in accordance with SC-530. section 4.3.6. After the CKI has determined that the company meets the requirements according to the SC-530 certification scheme, excluding the practical requirements, permission can be requested for the execution of two asbestos removal projects. On behalf of the company, the CKI will request written permission from Ascert for this. For the duration of the assessment at two project locations where the assessment by the CKI takes place, a candidate is equated with a certified asbestos removal company, or in the event of an additional assessment at three project locations. The applicable conditions are that: •. a written application has been submitted to the CKI for the acquisition of the certificate; •. the candidate meets the requirements set out in SC-540, insofar as the assessment referred to in 4.3.5A. After it has been demonstrated that the aforementioned conditions have been met, the CKI prepares the application for each project location that will be included in the assessment of the candidate. Based on the following criteria, Ascert must have given written permission for the application: •. The written statement from the CKI that the company meets the requirements in accordance with the SC-530 certification scheme, excluding the practical requirements; •. A more detailed description of the two projects. •. The two projects should be distinguished from each other by: different clients and inventory locations, different asbestos inventory companies and final assessment institutions for the control after asbestos removal; •. Completed application form; •. Unqualified statement from the CKI that the work plan complies with the provisions of SC-530; •. Indication of the asbestos inventory company (incl. Ascert code); •. Indication of the identification code of the asbestos inventory report; •. Approved statement from the CKI that the inventory report complies with SC-540 including source-related and traceable risk classification; •. In the document (in Word), all information in the open places must be filled in by the applicant. If the submitted descriptions meet the conditions, Ascert will grant written permission for the execution of the described projects. Ascert sends the permission (in PDF) directly to the certification body, which then forwards it to the asbestos removal company. The asbestos removal company ensures that the Ascert permission is present at work, so that it can be shown on first request. If the CKI comes to the conclusion on one of the two projects that the asbestos removal company does not meet the criteria that apply for the practical test, Ascert may, at the written request of the CKI, for the execution of one additional project to be assessed (with comparable work). ) give written permission. Machine Translated by Google The further processing of the certification process is described in the Certification Regulations Asbestos Removal SC-530 par. 4.3.6. When ordering the initial certification, the certification body must make clear, binding agreements with the asbestos removal company in the event that the company is unable to meet the practical requirements and the intended projects cannot be handled in accordance with SC-530. 2. Request The certification body: ..... CKI number: ..... established in: ..... declares that the asbestos removal company mentioned below meets the requirements, as stated in certification scheme SC-530, excl. practical requirements, and requests permission to carry out the asbestos removal projects below in order to assess the implementation practice. The CKI also declares that the asbestos inventory report meets the requirements in accordance with the SC-530 certification scheme. Asbestos removal company: Name Contact person Address Postal code City Registration Chamber of Commerce Telephone number ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... fax no. E-mail address The two projects to be assessed are: Client Project 1 Name: Contact Client Project 2 Name: person: ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... Contact person: ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... Address: Postal code: Address: Postal code: Place: Phone: Place: Phone: Fax number: Fax number: Inventory Report Inventory Report Ascert code Asbestos Ascert Code Asbestos inventory company: Inventory Company: Identification code Identification code inventory report inventory report: Risk class: Risk class: CKI approval report Date: ..... CKI approval report Date: ..... Name ..... Name ..... Work plan Work plan Work plan Work plan identification code: identification code: CKI approval work plan Date: ..... CKI approval work plan Date ..... Name: ..... Name ..... Location data Location data Name: Address: Postal code: ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... Name: Address: Postal code: ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... Place: Phone: Place: Phone: Machine Translated by Google Fax no: ÙExecution date Fax no: Execution date Send the original by e-mail to: Secretariat Ascert, PO Box 154 3990 DD Houten (info@ascert.nl). Handling by Ascert: Agree with execution: Today, ....., the original PDF file has been emailed by Ascert to the Certification Body and Asbestos Removal Company. 3. Consent To: Asbestos removal company Name Contact person Address Postal code City Registration ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... ..... Chamber of Commerce Telephone no Fax no. E-mail address ..... In accordance with the agreements laid down in SC-530 par 4.3.6 and the information provided, we grant you permission to carry out the asbestos removal project(s) below at the following project location: Client Project 1 Client Project 2 Name: Contact person: ..... . .... ..... ..... Name contactperson: ..... ..... ..... ..... .....Postal Address: Postal code: Address: ..... ..... code: ..... ..... ..... Place: Phone: Place: Phone: Fax number: Fax number: Inventory Report Inventory Report Ascert code Ascert code Asbestos inventory Asbestos inventory bed company: row: Identification code Identification code inventory report: inventory report: Risk class: Risk class: Name: Name: Work plan Work plan Identification code Identification code Work plan: Work plan: Name: Name: Location data Location data Name: Address: Postal code: ..... ..... ..... ..... Name: Address: Postal code: ..... ..... ..... . .... Place: Phone number: ..... ..... Place: Phone number: ..... ..... Fax number: Fax number: ÙExecution date Execution date Permission The consent has been sent to the Contact person CKI ..... Machine Translated by Google asbestos removal company and the certification body E-mail address ..... Company contact ..... E-mail address ..... Asbestos Certification Foundation Bureau Ascert ..... [Name] Appendix D. Model agreement cki and certificate holder (i) Informative character The certification body ..... established at ....., represented by ....., director, hereinafter referred to as the institution and the holder of the process certificate in accordance with the Ascert Certification Scheme for Asbestos Removal, managed by the Ascert Foundation: Company name Chamber of Commerce registration Ascert code Contact Address Postal Code Place E-mail address Phone hereinafter referred to as certificate holder declare to have agreed as follows: Article 1. Rights to be derived from the Ascert Process Certificate Asbestos Removal: Certificate holder is entitled to receive the valid certificate issued 1) use; 2) The institution ensures that the data of the certificate holder be passed on directly to Ascert for entry in the Ascert Certificate Register. Article 2. Obligations: Machine Translated by Google Certificate Holder Certificate holder must meet the requirements stated in SC-530; Certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with assessments 1) 2) by or on behalf of the certification body; 3) Certificate holder is obliged to follow up on the withdrawn or invalidated certificate by no longer presenting itself as a certified company; 4) Certificate holder is obliged to make changes in his circumstances, which the certificate may be important to the certification body. Certification Body 1) The certification body ensures an appropriate time of assessment in the context of recertification; 2) The certification body is responsible for the direct delivery of the certificate holder's details in the Ascert Certificate Register; 3) If the ministerial designation lapses, the certification body must to inform the certificate holder about this and to take steps to accommodate the certificate holder with a certification body qualified for this purpose (see www.ascert.nl). Article 3. Conditions for Ascert Process Certification Asbestos Removal: 1) The payment obligations towards the certification body arising from this agreement have been met; 2) In the context of this certificate, the certificate holder will keep a register of complaints keeping track of oneself (see also SC-530 par 4.7); The certificate is valid until the end date [= three years after 3) certification date]. Article 4. Termination of the agreement: The certification agreement will be terminated by the certification body if: 1) The Certificate Holder does not fulfill its obligations, or does not (anymore) meets the conditions and the certificate has been revoked as a result; 2) The ministerial designation of the certification body has been revoked or not has been extended; 3) The Certificate Holder is issued a ticket for unsafe conduct; 4) There are two well-founded complaints about the certificate holder within the certification period due to unsafe conduct; 5) The certificate is being abused. Article 5. Complaints and Request for Revision 1) To the certificate holder. The complaints due to the occurrence of unprotected exposure in risk class 2 and/or 2A an asbestos removal work of the certificate holder must be carried out by the certificate holder in accordance with art. 3 paragraph 2 registered and reported in writing to the CKI; 2) From the certificate holder. Complaints regarding the assessment procedure and the interpretation of its criteria are submitted to the certification body; Machine Translated by Google 3) From the certificate holder. The complaints regarding the decision it whether or not to grant the certificate must be submitted to the certification body. In the event of a request for revision, the certification body will act in accordance with SC-530 par. 4.8). Article 6. Liability The certification body is not liable for damage resulting from the use of the process certificate. Thus drawn up and signed in duplicate, The certificate holder: For the institution: Date: Date: Name: Name: Signature: Signature: ..... ..... Appendix E. Ascert asbestos removal process certificate (v) Mandatory character Certificate Holder Company name: Address: E-mail: Contact person: The Ascert Logo with Postal Code: Place: Chamber of Commerce registration: Fax: Ascert CKIDate code: .0na certificate number: SC-530 entry Phone: first issue: Date of issue: Expiration date: Declaration of issue This process certificate is based on the Ascert Certification Scheme Process Certificate Asbestos Removal SC-530, in accordance with ABC Certification BV Regulations for Process Certification of February 1997 issued by ABC Certification BV The following statutory provisions have been incorporated into the SC-530 certification scheme: Working Conditions Decree Article 4.54a and 4.54d Working Conditions Regulation Article 4.27a ABC Certification BV declares that there is a legitimate confidence that the process from removal of asbestos, asbestos-containing products and asbestos-contaminated material or asbestos-contaminated Machine Translated by Google construction components prior to demolition, renovation or maintenance in structures and objects and after an incident, including the completion of the asbestos removal work, resulting in a location free of sources with secondary asbestos fiber emission, is carried out in accordance with the requirements of the certification scheme For ABC Certification BV Piet Alphabet Certification body ABC Certification BV – company name – address – zip code and – city – – email – website – SZW identification code telephone – telefax Designation decision For the validity of this process certificate, reference is made to the Ascert Certificate Register at www.ascert.nl This process certificate consists of two pages. Emphasis prohibited Sheet 1 of 2 Establishment Company Name: Ascert Code: Address: Postal code: Email: Contact person: Place: Phone: Fax: Establishment Company Name: Ascert Code: Address: Postal code: Email: Contact person: Place: Phone: Fax: Establishment Company Name: Ascert Code: Address: Postal code: Email: Contact person: Place: Phone: Fax: Tips for the buyer/client 1) When carrying out supervision by CKI, Inspectorate SZW, and/or the municipality, to grant the client the supervisor access to the project location; 2) Assessments by the Certification Body at the project location are always unannounced; 3) The client will provide the asbestos removal company with full make an asbestos inventory report, in accordance with SC-540, available in accordance with the provisions of Article 4.54a of the Asbestos Removal Decree; 4) Before the start of the asbestos removal work, the client makes a copy of the complete environmental permit for demolition available to the Machine Translated by Google asbestos removal company in accordance with the provisions of Article 10, paragraph 14.54a of the Asbestos Removal Decree; 5) The principal (or the certificate holder on behalf of the principal) ensures that a final assessment body is commissioned to carry out the final assessment after the asbestos removal work has been completed; Explanation: The client may have delegated this to the contractor. 6) The client makes the findings of the final assessment available in writing to the asbestos removal company; 7) If the asbestos or asbestos-containing materials released during the asbestos removal If the products are not transported directly to the designated landfill, they must be stored in an interim storage facility. The interim storage must comply with the provisions of the Environmental Management Act. If the total contents of the interim storage are deposited at the designated landfill site, a copy of the relevant part of the interim storage project register must be sent to the client of the asbestos removal work together with the deposit receipt (see also SC-530 par. 7.17); 8) In the event of complaints, the certificate holder must be contacted and, in the event of serious complaints, the certification body. This process certificate consists of two pages. Emphasis prohibited Sheet 2 of 2 Appendix F. [Repealed.] Appendix G. Model work plan (v) Mandatory character 1 Introduction Pursuant to the Working Conditions Decree, the written work plan must be a description of the asbestos removal work to be carried out in accordance with SC-530 par 7.14 and contain effective measures to protect the safety and health of the employees involved. The following applies: •. The structure of the work plan below is binding. This means that the order of the relevant chapters has been maintained; •. The work plan has been drawn up as completely as possible and has been prepared by the company released, prior to asbestos removal; •. The work plan describes the work to be performed and therefore contains the specific features of this work. The effective measures are unambiguously described to protect the safety and health of the workers concerned; •. Deviations from the general principles mentioned in SC-530 par. 7.14.4 are substantiated with arguments in the work plan; •. The work plan is concise in scope and good for an auditor or enforcer assessable and legible; Machine Translated by Google •. The control measures with regard to the non-asbestos-related risks, such as the risk of falling, carbon monoxide formation in the containment, hot pipes, legionella contamination and electrocution risk (derived from H&S plan), must also be included in the work plan; •. The work plan can be divided into: – project-specific data with the full inventory report, the environmental permit for demolition, the project-specific work instructions, any explanations, the deviations from the work plan, – company-specific data containing the H&S plan, RI-E (including the Legionella management plan), the emergency plan, the checklists, the diplomas and inspection certificates of the personnel and the inspection certificates of the equipment. Explanation: An inventory report in accordance with SC-540, including the risk classes and removal conditions and/or a completed checklist, is not considered the work plan. 2. Set up work plan Brief description of the nature of the work •. nature of the work (open air or indoor remediation); •. where are the activities carried out in/on; •. what needs to be removed and how much. Brief description of the basic data •. identification code of the asbestos inventory report (incl. asbestos analysis) and Ascert code of the company that carried out the inventory; •. risk class, disposal conditions and protective measures derived from the asbestos inventory report; •. analysis reports of the asbestos samples examined during the inventory. Data about the building / object •. address and place; •. telephone (if applicable); •. company; •. director; •. contact; •. environmental permit for demolition (for construction); •. H&S plan. Company and employee data •. company name and Ascert code; •. address, place and telephone of the company; •. organization of the work organisation; •. name and Ascert code of the expert asbestos removal supervisor DTA; •. name and Ascert code of the expert asbestos removers DAV-1 and DAV-2; •. number of employees carrying out the asbestos removal work. Machine Translated by Google Time planning and work and rest time regulation •. date and time of the start of the work; •. end date of the work; •. description of the working and rest time regulations at the work concerned. Data on the presence of other companies at the site •. company; •. contact; •. how to reach; •. work to be performed. Information about shielding and demarcating the location •. sketch of the work site, including decontamination unit, waste sluice, break area, demarcation, warning signs, negative pressure equipment, possible transit route, etc. •. Description of the execution of the work This should include: – the nature of the asbestos removal work; – the measures to prevent pollution of the environment with asbestos to prevent; – the order of execution of the asbestos removal work; – the measures aimed at first removing asbestos, if reasonably practicable, before carrying out other demolition work; – the measures to prevent dust formation and to keep the concentration of asbestos as low as possible; – the collection of the asbestos-containing material and other waste materials and the removal from the work area (dirty zone); if no waste sluice is constructed, this must be justified; – cleaning the asbestos removal location / containment or the field; – the visual check after cleaning; – the measures taken if unforeseen asbestos is found that was not included in the asbestos inventory report. Description of the personal protective equipment and equipment •. work clothes; •. respiratory protective equipment; •. other personal protective equipment; •. applied collective protective equipment (relationship with environmental and health and safety aspects); •. applied protection factors (respiratory protection relationship); •. tools and equipment used in demolition; •. maintenance and control of personal protective equipment; •. applied filter systems (air and water). Machine Translated by Google Occupational hygiene measures •. description of the decontamination procedure; •. description of the transit procedure that may be necessary; •. description of how to deal with soiled clothing. NB Here only the changes to the general description of the quality manual record. Description of the disposal of the material containing asbestos •. the method of collection and, if applicable, interim storage of •. asbestos-containing waste; •. the method of transport and destination of the collected asbestos •. demolition waste; •. disposal of the asbestos-containing waste in accordance with the regulations in the environmental permit for demolition (only when removing asbestos from a structure). Information about the final inspection •. name of the laboratory / inspection body; •. indicate whether the final inspection is carried out in accordance with the current legislation; •. names of the persons and companies to whom a copy of the report is made available. Training plan – information to third parties •. brief description/designation and reference to an appendix or the quality manual; •. indicate whether information to third parties about the risks of the work is given with names and dates. Occupational health guidance •. description of the way in which occupational health counseling takes place Registration (is kept in the logbook) •. registration of the workers who remove the asbestos and of all persons who may be exposed to respirable asbestos fibres; •. instant recording of start and end time when entering the work area or leave; •. nature and duration of the work. It is not mandatory to measure the asbestos concentration in the compartment. At least an indication of the air concentration must be noted; •. measurement and registration of the negative pressure (with non-suture-bound and bonded asbestos); •. registration of the respiratory protective equipment provided; •. registration of visitors (government, certification body, third parties); •. registration of deviations from the work plan; Machine Translated by Google •. registration of the asbestos-containing waste and its identification; •. registration of any incidents and calamities; •. registration of complaints and deviations (shortcomings); •. registration of all measurements taken; •. other registrations based on the work plan drawn up. 3. Deviations from the work plan Deviations from the work plan, which incidentally fall within the rules of SC-530, must be stated in the work plan and/or on the logbook form before execution, with reasons. For an implementation method that deviates from the rules of SC-530, prior written approval based on a Plan of approach (risk inventory) must be obtained from an occupational health and safety expert. The Plan of Approach, as assessed by that expert, must be added to the work plan as an appendix. Appendix H. Category classification of sanctions system for asbestos removal table 5.5.3 (v) Deviations No. CKI sanction Location SC-530 Cat. III Cat. IV Cluster Layout cat. I cat. II The company of the Comments 1a X Under suspension, certificate holder both the recovery sanction performed as the order measure asbestos removal work to hear. activities or work related asbestos removal while its certificate is suspended. 1b The company whose X certificate has been or is in danger of being revoked due to non-compliance with the obligations or which has to temporarily cease its activities due to measures of enforcement government services, Machine Translated by Google tries to continue work through a new certificate to request. 1c A certified company X offers the opportunity to continue work on a other company whose certificate has been revoked due to non- compliance with the obligations or which has to temporarily stop its activities due to measures taken by enforcing government services. 2 7.1. – The complete X company structure has not been recorded in writing: • the administrative and ownership relationships, • the personnel content of the management structure • the employees and their certificates • the tasks and powers of the employees with regard to asbestos removal 3 There is a 7.2.1 a a X unauthorized combination of asbestos removal work and asbestos inventory or asbestos removal work and final assessment (final inspection after asbestos removal) within a company. Machine Translated by Google 4 There is 7.2.1 b a X unauthorized combined shareholding by natural or legal persons in an asbestos removal company and an asbestos inventory company or an asbestos removal company and a final assessment institution There is talk of the 7.2.1 c 5 a X unauthorized combined performance of a board position at an asbestos removal company and an asbestos inventory company or at an asbestos removal company and a final assessment institution. 5a There is talk of a 7.2.1 d a X unauthorized combination of shareholding, at a asbestos removal company with directorship in an asbestos inventory company or final assessment body by natural or legal persons. 5b There is a 7.2.1 e a X unauthorized combination of Machine Translated by Google board of directors in an asbestos removal company with shareholding at a asbestos inventory bed driving or final assessment institution by natural or legal persons. 6 Within the same 7.2.2 a 7.2.2 c 7.2.2 e A X In the project, shareholders, directors and/or employees of the asbestos removal company have performed work on the asbestos inventory and/or the final check(s) after the asbestos removal, supervised the implementation of the project or supervised it or performed the final check after removal. 7 Within the same 7.2.2 b 7.2.2 d 7.2.2 f A X In the project, shareholders, directors and/or employees of a group of which the asbestos removal company is a part performed work on the asbestos inventory and/or the final inspection(s) after the asbestos removal, supervised the implementation of the project or supervised it Machine Translated by Google or the final check after removal performed. 8 Within a same 7.2.2 g a X project there is a 1st or 2nd degree blood/ relationship relationship or cohabitation relationship between a shareholder of the asbestos removal company and a shareholder or director of the asbestos inventory company. 9 Within a same 7.2.2 h a X the project involves a 1st or 2nd degree blood/relationship or cohabitation relationship between a shareholder of the asbestos removal company and a shareholder or director of the final assessment institution. 9a Within a same 7.2.2 i a X project, there is a 1st or 2nd degree blood relationship or cohabitation relationship between a director of the asbestos removal company and a shareholder or director of the asbestos inventory bed Machine Translated by Google drive. 9b Within a same 7.2.2 y a X project there is a 1st or 2nd degree consanguinity or cohabitation relationship between a driver of the asbestos removal company and a shareholder or director of the final assessment institution. 10 A 7.2.1 h J X asbestos removal company does not itself carry out the asbestos removal work it has contracted or has assigned to it performed and outsourced to a non- certified asbestos removal company. 11 – The company has 7.4 X not have adequate liability insurance. 12 The company has 7.7 k X lack of maintained procedures for the control of all documents concerning the requirements in accordance with the SC-530 to ensure the control of the asbestos removal process ash. 13 The company does not have 7.8 k X Machine Translated by Google records for proof of an effective operation of the assurance of the control of the asbestos removal process es 14 The involvement of the 7.9.1 7.10.1 k X management in the assurance of control and continuous improvement of the asbestos removal process cannot be demonstrated. 15 Documentation on the 7.9.1 k X involvement of the management in the structurally correct performance of the service is lacking 16 Substantive interpretation 7.9.3 k X of the policy regarding the careful, occupational and environmentally sound removal of asbestos (current company objectives, operational quality and safety objectives), is not available The tasks, 17 7.9.4.1 k X responsibilities and powers of the mandatory business operations officers for the diligent, Machine Translated by Google occupational hygiene and environmentally responsible asbestos removal (job descriptions) are not or not clearly recorded. 18 Not all mandatory 7.9.4.2 7.11.2.3 k X officers have been appointed: management representative, an internal assessor. 19 The G X asbestos removal company does not have a DTA based on a employment contract in full- time permanent employment 20 The project-related 1 7.9.4.3 k X tasks, responsibilities and powers of the DTA for an asbestos removal work or the responsibility for a correctly released and delivered location after the asbestos removal work has not been laid down. 21 Internal communication 7.9.4.4 k X is lacking with regard to the suitability and effectiveness of the assurance of the control of the careful, occupational and environmentally sound Machine Translated by Google asbestos removal. 22 The annual 7.10 k X management review of the assurance of the control of the careful, occupational and environmentally sound removal of asbestos does not take place or does not meet the requirements. 23 Personnel, resources and 7.11.1 7.11.3 k X There are no facilities required to guarantee the control and improvement of the asbestos removal process. 24 The company checks 7.11.3 7.15.12 There is B/C X a not available deviation as it resources placed in operation the resources their permanently safe and does not check. effective operation. As long as the resources however still safe and functioning adequately there's no reason to directly the heaviest impose a sanction. The registrations of the 7.8 7.11.2.1 7.11.2.2 K 25 X available personnel skills, training (training, information, Machine Translated by Google instruction, work consultation), medical fitness and personnel assessments are missing. 27 Planning the 7.8 7.12.1 k X There is no logistics, deployment of personnel and resources to prepare for responsible occupational hygiene and environmental hygiene removal of asbestos. 28 The company has 7.12.1 k X not about a current one Risk Inventory & Evaluation (company RI&E). 29 The company has 7.12.1 7.12.4.1 k X do not have an up-to-date and complete Health and Safety Plan (H&S plan) Execution phase 30 The company has 7.14.4 La) X not about a current one and fully project-related work plan, The company 32 has 7.7 k X not about a complete Quality Manual 33 The quality manual k X is not kept up to date It is not guaranteed that 34 7.12 k X the purchase and hiring of goods and services and Machine Translated by Google the purchase/delivery meet clearly defined, specified requirements. 35 Hired / borrowed 7.11.2.1 7.11.2.2 G X 7.12.3.3 7.15.3 personnel do not meet the requirements in the field of competences, training (training, information, instruction, work consultation) and medical suitability. 36 There are none per 7.8 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 – X project for the assurance of control of the careful, occupational hygiene and environmentally sound asbestos removal documents, forms and registrations available. 37 Documents, forms 7.8 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 – X and records for the 7.15.1 7.15.3 7.15.4 assurance of the 7.15.8 control of responsible asbestos removal are not available or are not applied. 38 The company has not made 7.8 7.12.5 7.15.7 C X 7.15.8 monitoring and measuring equipment available to monitor the negative pressure values, ventilation capacity in the containment and/or the overpressure value(s) of the overpressure cabin. to monitor, Identified X deviations from the Machine Translated by Google required values are not followed by corrective measures 39 The company has K/B/C/F X not about a established procedure for handling defective equipment and investigating the consequences of equipment found to be defective: – on the quality of asbestos removal carried out – and whether the defect has led to an emission or exposure Defective equipment will X not be taken out of circulation taken until repaired It is not X investigated what the consequences have been of the defect on and during the removal It won't be X investigated whether the defect led to an emission or exposure 40 The company features 7.8 7.13.1 KK X lack of adequate resources to meet demonstrate that the asbestos removal work meets the requirements. The assurance of the X control thereof does not comply with the to demand The effectiveness of this X assurance of control itself is Machine Translated by Google not continuously improved. 41 The company does not have 7.8 7.13.2.2 huh X internal assessments performed at both the business location(s) and project locations. Asbestos removal k X control assurance is not effective supported by deployed and maintained documentation and effective\suitable business processes The planning and huh X execution of the internal assessment program are not established. 42 Established 7.8 7.12.4.1 7.13.3 H X discrepancies have not been recorded, corrected, verified or closed 7.15.1 7.15.4 7.15.8 . 43 The suitability and 7.8 7.13.3 7.13.4 H X effectiveness of the assurance of asbestos removal control has not been analyzed on the basis of data obtained during assessments, including complaints and deviations. 44 The periodic analysis 7.8 7.13.5.1. huh X and assessment of the performance of the business processes, the Machine Translated by Google officials and the corrective and preventive measures and follow-up in the form from management review, management objectives, action plan not implemented 45 It immediately 7.8 7.13.5.2 huh X does not analyze deviations, complaints, etc. to determine the nature and importance, the causes and the corrective measures to be taken to eliminate the causes and consequences of deviations and to prevent recurrence. 46 the efficient 7.8 7.13.5.2 huh X determine and implementing corrective actions to eliminate the causes and consequences of non- conformities and to prevent recurrence and/or verify the effectiveness of the measures taken do not take place. 47 The periodic 7.8 7.13.4 huh X analyzing business processes, applied resources, methods, etc., including deviations and complaints, etc., to determine the nature and importance, the Machine Translated by Google causes and the preventive measures to be taken to prevent future causes and consequences of possible deviations do not take place. 48 The company does not have 7.14.2 k X agreed with the client how and by which party the legally required final assessment is performed and how the final report is made available. 49 The for the 7.14.3 – X contract acquisition and execution mandatory, external documents are not available The external – X documents required for contract acquisition and execution have not been assessed and released for use within project processing. Deviations project location CKI sanction Labor Inspectorate Comments No. SC-530 Cluster Layout cat. I cat. II cat. III cat. IV finable offense 1 When removing a X asbestos, not all measures are taken that belong to the Machine Translated by Google legal prescribed risk class. 2 At the work location is 7.14.3 E X B40500101 The fact that it no report not present asbestos inventory ra is is a deviation. port conforming to SC-540 The absence of the (with risk classification) report does not want present; say that the necessary knowledge not on site is present. The absence of the report is therefore no reason to immediately most severe sanction lay. 3 The work has not been reported 5.1 7.14.5 I X to the Inspectorate SZW, CI and Municipality. 4 The notification period is 7.14.5 I X not taken into account. 5 At the work site is 7.12.1 7.14.4 La) X B40500101 no work plan conform the Working Conditions Decree (Article 4.50) and SC-530, present. 6 The work plan is not 7.12.1 7.14.4 La) X Machine Translated by Google complete 7 The work plan is not 7.9.4.3 La) X approved by the project manager e DTA The in the work plan 8 7.14.4 E X described working methods are not in accordance with the risk class and the way of shielding as prescribed in the SMA-rt 9 At the work site is 7.12.1 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 K X no H&S plan Implementation phase or no project-related RI&E / TRA derived from the H&S plan or the company-related RI&E. 10 The company features 7.13.3 L(c) X not about a emergency plan or there is there no emergency plan in place at the workplace? The emergency plan is L(c) not X complete 11 The activities are 7.14.4 7.15 7.16 7.17 L(a) X B40500501 different from the work plan performed 12 There is no DTA with a 7.14.6 7.15.1 G X B4054d501 Machine Translated by Google valid personal certificate in accordance with Annex XIIIc present at the asbestos removal location tie 12a Not all places G X where asbestos is becoming removed is oversight by a DTA 13 The 7.14.6 G X B4054d701 asbestos removal worker(s) on location is (are) not DAV(s) with a valid personal certificate in accordance with Annex XIIIc. 14 On the 7.11.2.1 B4054d701 G X asbestos removal work are persons present with a certificate DAV-1 without the provision of a adequate mentorship; The work 15 location is not 7.14.4 point 4 7.15.6 C X demarcated/shielded in accordance with SC-530. 16 The DTA follows it 7.8 7.14.4 7.15.1 huh X work plan not on 7.15.8 7.15.2 7.15.3 7.15.4 The DTA does not keep X the log The relevant X process parameters according to SC-530 are not defined 17 There are additional 7.8 7.12.4.1 7.15.4 C X asbestos containing/suspicious Machine Translated by Google materials / products / contaminants to be found in places unknown in advance, without taking appropriate measures to be affected The measures huh X taken are not registered 18 all present 7.8 7.15.2 7.15.8 X employees with input and exit times asbestos removal area ed; 19 all visitors, 7.8 7.12.4.1 7.15 3 X supervisors, 7.15.5 7.15.8 inspectors, directors, laboratory employee(s) etc. with entry and exit times and their findings; the applicable 20 7.8 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 X being 7.15.3 7.15.8 risk classification(s) (as a measure of 'exposure'); 21 continuous operation 7.12.1 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 X have been of the 7.15.3 7.15.6 7.15.7 negative pressure ventilation; 22 the negative pressure values 7.8 7.12.1 7.12.4.1 X (minimum 1 x per 7.12.5 7.14.4 points 10 and shift, or per certified 11 7.15.1 7.15.3 under-pressure 7.15.6 7.15.7 7.15.8 monitor Machine Translated by Google registrations); 23 malfunctions, complaints, 7.8 7.11.3 7.12.1 X damage, incidents 7.12.4.1 7.12.5 7.13.3 (emergencies in the 7.13.5.1 7.13.5.2 emergency plan); 7.14.4 7.15.8 24 additions to, 7.8 7.12.1 7.12.4.1 X deviations / 7.12.5 7.13.3 7.13.5.1 changes from the 7.13.5.2 7.14.4 7.15.1 work plan, H&S plan (in the work plan, H&S plan, or logbook); the period of 25 7.8 7.11.3 7.12.1 X standstill and condition 7.12.4.1 shower water-bearing installation, current water source(s), flushing , cleaning and/or disinfection measures, analyses on Legionella from water samples per decontamination unit. 26 There is no full 7.14.4 point 8 C X B40500401 decontamination unit is present and/or it is not set up ready for use after the asbestos removal/ remediation has started. 27 The decontamination unit 7.14.4 point 9 C X is, if technical possible, not directly linked to the work area. Machine Translated by Google 28 Use is made of 7.14.4 point 9 If the C X arguments made from the the use of the transit procedure, transit procedure not without the justify is there arguments for that talk of a are recorded in the deviation. work plan / control plan / logbook. 29 The 7.14.4 point 9 7.15.1 C X B40500401 decontamination procedure 7.15.3 or the transit procedure is not performed correctly, Bee risk class 2A work in risk class 2 work 30 It with asbestos 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.14.4 D X contaminated point 18 waste water is not collected and (step by step) discharged through a waste water filter with a final filter of pore diameter of 5 micrometer. 31 No suitable 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.14.4 B B4048a201 There will be a respiratory protection distinguished in applied. the reason the Machine Translated by Google resources do not become used. If the resources do not become used because it company not about the has resources or the resources not on the being a workplace is a unconditional withdrawal justified. In the event that the resources are available be places, but not be used is the lower sanction of conditional withdrawal justified. The measures exist from that the means is used and measures are struck to Machine Translated by Google ensure that the remedy will be used from now on 1. The company does not X have the resources or they are not present at the workplace 2. The X resources are present at the workplace (but are not used) 32 There will be no 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.14.4. B See motivation under suitable protective 7.15.2 31. work clothes and PPE applied. The company does X not have the resources or they are not in the workplace The resources are X present at the workplace (but are not used) 33 Before the start of the 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 points C X B4048a101 By removing or asbestos removal is 6, 12, 13 7.15.2 shielding the the not contaminated estate/inventory becomes inventory/contents prevent not from/of the asbestos fibers that work location removed release at the removal stay behind after the activities. If this Machine Translated by Google is not prevented, there is a risk of exposure by the users of the estate/inventory. It do not delete or shielding the estate/inventory must therefore lead to unconditional revocation and suspension (order measure). Before the C-asbestos X removal starts, the non- contaminated inventory/ furniture has not been taped/ screened off in a fiber-tight manner. 34 When in the neighbor 7.14.4 – X It's not environment such acceptable that the (demolition- ) activities asbestos removal and take place Which final assessment not therefore the result become complete from the conducted. If other asbestos removal work activities as a result Machine Translated by Google and/or the have that the final assessment will be work not disadvantaged and during can be completed, the asbestos removal will the and/or the certificate holder it final assessment none do not work as completed effective may yield. There is measures are talk of this affected. deviation as the work become delivered as if they being complete performed, while this is not the case. The certificate holder has the choice the assignment back unfinished give (with notification of the imperfections) or leave the work open until it's completed could be. 35 No 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 points C B40450201 X Machine Translated by Google source-oriented 15, 16, 17 emission control measures applied during work in containment or shielded workspace conditions No source- C X oriented emission limiting measures are applied when working in open air conditions or with the glove-bag method: 36 Find there, also at 7.15.10 7.15.11 d X Not because of the cleaning removal work in good to perform outdoor conditions, there is a risk that not sufficient there are asbestos fibers effective stay behind. This final cleanings of leads to exposure all relevant by residents, locations / surfaces users etc. It Place. not cleaning properly should therefore lead to unconditional revocation and suspension (order measure). 37 The glove-bag work 7.14.4 7.15 7.16 7.17 C X B4048a101 will not be correct executed. 38 It 7.11.3 7.15.9 d X B40450204 Machine Translated by Google asbestos waste/asbestos- contaminated waste that is outside the containment, the shielded workspace, or the glove-bag location, or at open air conditions outside the cordoned off and marked, direct disposal location is not completely unprotected or the packaging is not fiber-tight. It is non-bonded asbestos It is X bonded asbestos: 39 It 7.15.10 d X asbestos waste/asbestos- contaminated waste that the containment, the shielded workspace, or the glove-bag location, or in open air conditions outside the cordoned off and marked, direct disposal location, is not at least double and air and fiber-tight in accordance with the requirements a proper punch and tear resistant packaging (0.2 mm thick or hi-tec pe film) packed Machine Translated by Google for the discharge from the workplace. It is non-bonded asbestos It is X bonded asbestos 40 Tools, 7.11.3 7.15.9 7.15.11 D X Not because of the cleaning machinery, 7.15.12 good to perform climbing equipment, there is a risk that equipment, there are asbestos fibers etc., that with lagging behind. This asbestos dust in touch leads to exposure have been, are not by residents, effectively cleaned, users etc. It or not according to the not cleaning properly requirements at least double should therefore lead and air and fiber tight to unconditional in a proper, revocation and suspension punch and (order measure). tear-resistant packaging (0.2 mm thick or hi-tec PE film) packed for transport and the storage outside the workplace. 41 The shut-off valve(s) of 7.11.3 7.12.4.1 7.15.9 C X Machine Translated by Google the negative pressure ventilation machine(s) (ODMs) is (are) not sealed leak-proof. 42 The packaging of d X asbestos waste and/or asbestos-contaminated parts, equipment pieces, etc. are not externally marked with the prescribed asbestos warning stickers ( Products decision Asbestos 2005 ) 45 After the final assessment 7.16.2, 7.16.4 7.16.6 D B40500301 X and release by final assessment body and the last visual final check by the asbestos removal company before delivery, is considered safe remediation site visually not free from Residues to be regarded as containing/contaminated asbestos originating from the asbestos removal work ; It concerns non-bonded asbestos: It concerns X bonded asbestos: 46 There is no effective 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.4.1 C B4048a101 X Machine Translated by Google closed containment 7.14.4 7.15.1 7.15.9 established. 47 There is no guarantee, 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 points C B4048a101 X that there is 6, 12, 13 7.15.1 no asbestos fiber emission/- berry measurement to the environment outside the containment can take place 48 The containment becomes 7.12.5 7.14.4 points C X not permanently maintained at a 10, 11 and 13 negative pressure of at least 20 Pascal (Pa), if substantially lower than 20 Pa and the containment is less than 6 times per hours ventilated. 49 The containment will be 7.14.4 point 13 7.15.1 C X less than 6 times in 7.15.3 hours. 50 The work plan / logbook 7.14.4 7.15.1 7.15.3 C X contains no or incorrect calculation(s) of the required ventilation capacity. 51 At risk class 2 7.12.5 7.14.4 point 10 C X work: the negative pressure that 7.15.1 in the containment becomes dominant; a. not measured continuously b. not registered per X shift in the log. 52 At risk class 2A 7.12.5 7.14.4 point 11 C X Machine Translated by Google work: the negative pressure that prevails in the containment 7.15.1 is not measured continuously and simultaneously recorded continuously (underpressure registration monitor). 53 Bee 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.1 B X B4048a201 asbestos removal work 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 points under risk class 2A 1, 2, 5 7.15.1 conditions no respiratory protection with an adequate protection factor applied. The company does not X have these resources or they are not in the workplace The resources are available X at the workplace but are not used 54 There is no separate to 7.14.4 point 13 7.15.9 C X the containment / the shielded workplace linked waste- /material lock applied, although this is technically possible and because of the amount to be dispensed feed waste packaging is required. 55 The lockout and 7.14.4 7.15.1 7.15.8 D X B40500401 Through the procedure for discharge procedure for 7.15.9 the disposal of the asbestos waste (and the asbestos (waste) and Machine Translated by Google packaged, if (potentially) with asbestos asbestos-contaminated at contaminants not consider equipment to perform well pieces) is `not becomes the risk correctly performed at increased that there risk class 2A asbestos fibers outside the activities: place where asbestos will be removed. This risk does not become only increased for the employees, but also others. This means that this deviation should lead to suspension (order measure). for risk class 2 X activities: 56 If it's separate 7.14.4 7.15.1. 7.15.9 D X lock out the Asbestos waste packaging is not possible, the packaging must be airtight and fibre-tight packed/ taped and separated from the floor in the containment/ the Machine Translated by Google shielded workspace be saved . 57 Respiratory protection 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.1 B X resources (ABMs) 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 do not meet the inspection requirements. 58 The filters for the ABM 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.1 B X B4048a201 B80030101 are not resistant to 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 asbestos dust and any additional harmful substances and/or do not comply with the required Specifications. 59 Additional 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.1 B X attachments, 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 such as couplings, living air hoses, compressor/fan and living air filters for of the ambient air independent ABMs do not meet the inspection requirements. 60 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.1 B . is available at the work site X The fact that a no spare set ABM with 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 spare set not Enough is present, trains protection factor not yet become one for the data increase the risk class present risk of exposure. In the event that Machine Translated by Google the GAM of a employee no longer functions, he can also from work be sent or from go get a set elsewhere to fetch. A conditional withdrawal is acceptable. 61 ABM(s) will be 7.11.3 B X An ABM that does not work, uses it in such a way offers no protection. are damaged, Which This is equivalent to the this the safe one operation do not use ABM. can be detrimental to influence. 62 ABM(s) will be 7.11.3 7.11.4 7.11.6 B X As far as these uses that not pollution not to be clean (inside harmful to the and external) with regard to health, is dust, dirt, conditional residual fractions, withdrawal Machine Translated by Google fungi, etc. The acceptable. pollution is not harmful to health The pollution is X If the pollution is harmful to health, it is means by which the employee thinks he is protect just one source of danger. A such pollution should lead to unconditional revocation and suspension (order measure). 63 The filter(s) used 7.11.3 7.11.4 7.11.6 D X of the ABM(s) are not correctly marked or, capped airtight. 64 • 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.1 C X decontamination unit(s)e 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 7.15.4 n/or de • negative pressure ventilation machine ine(s) • water management system do not , meet the inspection requirements. Machine Translated by Google 65 The decontamination unit 7.11.3 7.15.1 C X has been damaged so that there is no safe operation 66 Safety suction systems 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.1 C/D X (such as HEPA filtering 7.12.4.1 7.14.4 asbestos vacuum cleaners) do not comply the inspection requirements. 67 Under-pressure ventilation mac 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.1 C X hine(s) (ODMs) 7.12.4.1 7.12.5 7.14.4 do not comply with the inspection requirements. 68 Under pressure recordingmo 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.1 C X nitor does not comply with 7.12.4.1 7.12.5 7.14.4 the inspection and calibration requirements. 69 Machine(s) providing 7.11.1 7.11.3 7.12.1 C X must be of a 7.12.4.1 7.12.5 7.14.4 pressurized cabin, does not comply(s) with the inspection requirements. 70 The machine(s) used 7.11.3 7.15.1 C X are such damaged that there is no safe operation. 71 Substitute 7.15.1 7.15.4 The fact that CD X substitution dust/waste bags for is not present, leads the asbestos vacuum cleaner(s) not yet in itself and/or pre-filters for an increase in the Machine Translated by Google the risk of negative pressure ventilation mac exposure. In the event that hine(s) are not replacement is needed, in stock. can be work too terminated until there is replacement is arranged. A conditional withdrawal is acceptable. 72 The DTA/DAV that 7.11.2.4 X carries out asbestos removal work has not been instructed on the correct use of GAM via www.vezelveiligheid.nl/ respiratory protection and/or does not wear an appropriate GAM assessed on the basis from a fitness test according to the HSE protocol. Annex I. General measures (v) It is well known that exposure to asbestos fibers is very dangerous. Asbestos fibers can cause damage to health and death. Core idea of the rules Asbestos is concerned with people's lives and health. This risk of exposure means that when it comes to handling asbestos, very careful action must be taken. The government must be able to rely on companies and individuals involved in working with asbestos to act very carefully and to limit the risk of exposure to the lowest possible level. This means that it is required that they adhere to the rules that apply to working with and around asbestos. If the risk of exposure has not been kept as low as possible or a person does not adhere to the Machine Translated by Google rules, the government must take strict action to protect people's health and lives. The government has chosen to guarantee the accuracy of asbestos inventory companies and asbestos removal companies and the persons employed in these companies by means of a certification system. Only those companies and persons that have a certificate are allowed to perform activities with asbestos (insofar as the law makes such a certificate mandatory). It is essential that the government must be able to trust that certificate holders will comply with the rules and minimize the risk of exposure. A certificate holder who does not act in accordance with the rules betrays that trust and should in principle lose his certificate. This company can no longer be trusted to act diligently. Therefore, he loses his certificate. A certificate holder who does not minimize the risk of asbestos emissions or even causes asbestos contamination has not acted with sufficient care and should, in principle, also lose his certificate. It is not an actual exposure alone that is grounds for unconditional withdrawal. The mere risk of asbestos emission or an increase in this risk already means that a certificate holder who allows such a risk to arise is no longer allowed to perform the work. The purpose of the regulations is to prevent emissions and exposure. To achieve this goal, the risk of emissions and exposure must be minimized. It is not acceptable that a certificate holder who increases risks only loses his certificate if the risk is realized and people have been exposed. The withdrawal of the certificate is quickly justified when the interests involved are weighed up. When weighing the interests of people that their health and lives are not endangered by exposure to asbestos fibers and the interest of the company to be able to carry out its work, the interests of people's health and life always take precedence. The fact that the revocation of the certificate will lead to the end of the activities is, in view of the interests, proportional. The end of the activities is therefore an accepted consequence and not a reason not to revoke the certificate. Not even in those limited cases that this leads to the end of the company. The possibility of a resit or of continuing to work without conditions may only be used if this is acceptable. This means that the deviation has not led to a high risk of exposure and there is sufficient guarantee that the life and health of people will no longer be endangered. Repetition of breaking the rules and allowing (the risk of) an asbestos emission to arise will certainly lead to the withdrawal of the certificate. Recovery sanctions The foregoing means that the core of the sanction system is that a (legal) person who does not work in accordance with the rules is no longer allowed to perform the work. The basic principle is that such a (legal) person loses the certificate. It has been decided not to immediately withdraw the certificate in the event of a first deviation. The certificate holder is given a second chance. The resit consists of the certificate being suspended Machine Translated by Google causing the certificate to lose its validity. If the certificate holder has taken sufficient measures, the suspension will be withdrawn. However, there is a difference in the seriousness of deviations, which means that there are deviations where it is acceptable that the certificate retains its validity while the certificate holder takes the measures. The certificate will be revoked if the certificate holder does not take sufficient measures within the term. As mentioned, a certificate holder who continues to commit violations will lose his certificate regardless of the seriousness of the violations. In the sanctions system, a distinction is made between four remedial sanctions: 1. unconditional withdrawal 2. suspension 3. conditional withdrawal 4. warning to 1 the certificate becomes withdrawn without a resit; the certificate to 2 loses its validity until the deviation has been removed and is sufficient demonstrated that the deviation will not recur; the certificate to 3 becomes withdrawn if certain measures have not been taken within a specified period. The certificate holder can continue to work during that period, but will lose his certificate without further decision if the measures taken have not been taken before a certain date; to 4 the certificate holder attention is drawn to the deviation, but this Machine Translated by Google deviation does not (yet) affect the validity of the certificate. There is also an aggravation that means that a certificate holder who continues to commit violations will lose his certificate. Appendices in SC-530 and SC-540 contain the remedial sanction to which a particular deviation leads. Suspension as an order measure In addition to the remedial sanctions, suspension is provided as a disciplinary measure whereby the certificate is suspended with regard to a location, a project or work. Here, suspension is not imposed as a recovery sanction, but the certificate holder is prevented from continuing to work while the sanction procedure is running. The unconditional withdrawal and suspension (remedial sanction) are not immediately imposed if the deviation is found. First, a procedure is followed. Only at the end of this procedure does the CKI make its decision and the certificate loses its validity (or not). In principle, the certificate is valid during this procedure and the certificate holder is allowed to perform the relevant work. Due to the suspension as a remedial measure, the certificate holder is not allowed to continue working at the relevant location, project or work during the procedure. The disciplinary measure suspension must be used if continuing to work by the certificate holder is not acceptable. Suspension is, for example, appropriate if an asbestos emission has taken place or the risk of an emission has increased significantly. As a result, the certificate holder has endangered the life and health of people. Even in cases where such a situation may exist, but this has yet to be fully investigated, there may be grounds for suspension. If the CKI can reasonably judge that there has been a danger to the life and health of people, and that the certificate will be revoked or suspended unconditionally (remedial sanction), suspension (orderly measure) is appropriate. The risk that the certificate holder has endangered the life and health of people is too great to allow the certificate holder to continue working. In the event that after the procedure it appears that the situation was not so serious or that no unconditional withdrawal or suspension (remedial sanction) is imposed, the suspension (orderly measure) has nevertheless been correctly imposed. The fact that it could reasonably be judged by the CKI that life and health were endangered means that the suspension as a disciplinary measure was justified. used to be. Machine Translated by Google When asking whether suspension should be used as a disciplinary measure, the CKI will have to consider whether allowing this certificate holder to continue working is justified in view of the importance of people (employees and others) not to be exposed to asbestos fibres. In the discussion of deviations below, it will be indicated when suspension (orderly measure) must in any case be applied. Performing activities at the relevant location or project during a suspension, or performing the relevant activities for which a certificate is required that has been suspended, will lead to unconditional withdrawal. The suspension must, however, give the certificate holder the opportunity to remove any danger that has arisen and to safeguard the situation. Category classification In the certification schemes, deviations are divided into categories to which one of the aforementioned remedial sanctions is attached. Category I – unconditional withdrawal Category II – suspension Category III – conditional withdrawal Category IV – warning The basic principle in classifying the deviations is that deviations that lead to exposure or increase the risk of exposure fall under Category II. Other derogations will fall under Category III, with exceptions to Category II and IV. If the certificate holder performs the certified activities (or related activities) while the certificate is suspended (both recovery sanction and disciplinary action), the certificate will be revoked unconditionally. Acting in the spirit of a standard A standard protects certain interests. It is sometimes argued that that interest can be protected in another way. This is not important. The competent authority has determined that the interest is represented in the prescribed manner. It is not up to a certificate holder to ignore this and determine its own measures. There is a deviation and this leads to the imposition of the remedial sanction. These levels have been further elaborated in the so-called escalation ladder. Annex J. Breakdown of the deviations (v) The abnormalities can be divided into a number of types or clusters of abnormalities. Below is a general description of the cluster of nonconformities and the sanction to which they should lead. What is referred to as 'sufficient' or 'sound' in open concepts Machine Translated by Google considered, is filled in, for example, in the regulations, the schedules or in the list of deviations (appendices to SC-530 and SC-540). Within the clusters, a number of standards reasons must be given as to why deviation from these standards leads to a specific sanction. The clusters are listed below. Within these clusters, a number of types of non-conformities are discussed with the prescribed sanction and motivation. It is also prescribed when suspension (orderly measure) must in any case be imposed. The fact that suspension (orderly measure) is not prescribed does not mean that a suspension (orderly measure) should not be imposed. In each specific case, the CKI will have to assess whether suspension (orderly measure) is appropriate. It is possible that the certificate holder is so quick with his remedial measures that the conditions for withdrawing the suspension (remedial sanction) have already been met before this sanction has been imposed. In that case, a suspension of 0 hours will be imposed. A. Violation of norms guaranteeing independence and objectivity This type concerns provisions that safeguard the independence and objectivity of the various actors within the process. The following phases are followed in asbestos work: 1) the assignment 2) inventory of asbestos 3) removing asbestos 4) the final assessment There are therefore different (legal) persons: the client, the asbestos inventory company, the asbestos removal company and the final assessor. Various people are active within and behind the legal entities and companies. If a (legal) person plays a role in different phases in the process, the independence and objectivity in the various phases are compromised. Practice has shown that an important factor behind violations lies in the fact that the same (legal) persons appear in different phases of asbestos work. Provisions are included in the schemes that create 'divisions' between these actors, by prohibiting double roles of the various actors (and their people). These partitions are based on situations encountered in practice by, for example, the Inspectorate SZW and CKIs. If the prohibited regarding objectivity and independence are violated, this leads to conditional withdrawal of the certificate. Machine Translated by Google A violation of such a provision does not directly lead to exposure or increase the risk. Deviations belonging to this cluster will in principle be classified in Category III. Violation of this may be a contributing factor to another violation that led to exposure or increased this risk. If this is the case, this other violation will already lead to a more severe sanction. If provisions have been violated that aim to provide insight into what the roles of the natural and legal persons are with a client, asbestos removal or asbestos inventory company and the final assessor, this also leads to conditional withdrawal. After all, without this transparency, it cannot be assessed whether the provisions regarding independence and objectivity have been met. If the certificate holder makes it impossible to properly check a provision, this will lead to the same sanction as that imposed for violation of the standard to be checked. B. Violations of Standards to Prevent Worker Exposure This group of provisions concerns the prevention of workers being exposed to asbestos fibres. When removing asbestos, risk classes 2 and 2A release asbestos fibers. This follows from the nature of this risk class. The person who actually makes an inventory will also often be exposed to asbestos fibres, for example when it comes to making an inventory of non-bonded asbestos or of asbestos-containing material that is damaged or weathered. The worker will therefore be exposed to asbestos fibers and must be protected against it. This concerns, for example, measures such as: •. sufficient personal protective equipment (PPE) in the workplace; •. the PPE meets the inspection requirements; •. the PPEs are well maintained; •. the PPE works; and, •. the PPE is worn and used. If not all employees the right thing Machine Translated by Google wear PPE and the company does not have sufficient (properly) functioning PPE will lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (orderly measure). The company has proceeded to inventory or remove asbestos, while it cannot meet the standards. If the resources are not there, life and health are decisive: work is not allowed. If there are not enough (properly) functioning PPE in the workplace, but the company does have suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (order measure). After all, it makes little difference to the employee whether the company does not have the PPE or whether they are not at the workplace. In either case, he cannot use them. In that case, the employer must not allow the work to commence. If he does so and the employee works without PPE, the same applies as for the previous category. If not all employees wear PPE and use it correctly, but there are sufficient proper PPE in the workplace: conditional withdrawal and suspension (orderly measure). The employer itself has provided the means. The problem is in the application. The employer must find out how the deviation arose (why did the Machine Translated by Google employees do not use the PPE) and take measures to prevent recurrence. Which measures these are depend on the situation and the reason the PPE was not worn. Only addressing the employees/supervisors will in general be insufficient. Measures will also have to be taken from the employer. If the PPE does not work properly, the certificate must be suspended (remedial sanction) and suspended (orderly measure). The employees are put to work unsecured, while they think they are safe. If the PPE has not been properly maintained or has not been replaced in time, but it does work, the certificate must be be conditionally withdrawn. The workers are protected, but the risk that the PPE will stop functioning due to lack of maintenance puts them at risk. If the faulty maintenance or lack of inspection results in the PPE no longer working safely, the certificate will be conditionally revoked on the basis of this deviation. C. Violation of standards to prevent the asbestos from spreading outside the immediate place where it is being remediated This group of provisions ensures that asbestos fibers are prevented from escaping the immediate space/place where the asbestos is removed or the inventory is made. The way in which the spread of asbestos fibers should be prevented depends on the method of inventory or removal of the asbestos. This method is determined by the law, the schedules and the details in the work plan. There is also the possibility of asbestos fibers being released during the inventory of asbestos, for example in the case of non-bonded asbestos or through sampling. The spread of asbestos must also be prevented here. Examples of such obligations are: •. resources must be available in the workplace to remove asbestos. This concerns means such as: deco unit, negative pressure equipment, means for containment, glove bags, container, bags, etc.; Machine Translated by Google •. obligations for the correct use of these resources: there is sufficient negative pressure, the decontamination procedure is carried out correctly, there is sufficient supervision of these obligations; •. the negative pressure must be checked and recorded regularly; •. obligations to collect and dispose of the asbestos fibers during the work; •. the containment contained; •. what should be taped is taped. If provisions of this type are violated, there is a risk of an asbestos emission. Not only employees, but also third parties, such as local residents and passers-by, can be exposed. Furthermore, it is difficult to determine and completely purify the contaminated area in the event of an asbestos emission. If not all necessary resources are used or if the company does not have these resources, this will lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (order measure). The same applies here as if the company does not have sufficient PPE. The certificate holder is engaged in asbestos work for which he cannot comply with the law. He certainly did not do everything to minimize the risk of an asbestos emission. If the resources are not there, life and health are decisive: there is no work. This is even more true here, as others than the workers are also at risk of exposure. The lack of the workplace resources to prevent the spread of asbestos fibers prevention also leads to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (orderly measure). Machine Translated by Google Again, it does not matter to individuals whether the company has the resources or not. If the resources are not in the workplace, they are not used. If the containment is not installed or applied in accordance with the rules, there is a high risk of emissions. Suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (orderly measure) are then appropriate. A containment that is not contained will not prevent the spread of asbestos fibers. As a result, not only employees, but also others can be exposed. If the pressure of the containment is not measured in accordance with the rules, the certificate must be conditionally revoked. Measuring checks whether the containment works. If this is not measured, there is a risk that (due to unforeseen circumstances) the negative pressure will become too low. The risk of emission then arises. However, the fact that there is no measurement does not mean that there is direct exposure. Conditional withdrawal is acceptable. D. Violation of standards regarding workplace clean-up, waste, asbestos, etc. This group of provisions ensures that the place where asbestos fibers have come is left uncontaminated. In essence: cleaning up; make sure no asbestos fibers remain. Examples of such obligations are: •. pack and dispose of the removed asbestos as soon as possible in the correct packaging; •. clean the places where asbestos may have come; •. clean the PPE and other equipment; •. perform a visual inspection; •. have a final check carried out; Machine Translated by Google •. ensure that the objects in the room cannot become contaminated (remove, tape, etc.); •. if a sample has been taken, ensure that any source that may have arisen is identified shielded; •. if a source has been released through destructive testing, make sure it is shielded. If material containing asbestos or contaminated material is unprotected outside the workplace and this is not bonded (including weathered or damaged), this should lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (sanction measure). The certificate holder has disclosed a source of contamination. This concerns both unpackaged material and material in open/damaged packaging. If it asbestos-containing material or contaminated material is not packed in the correct packaging, this should lead to undamaged, adhesively bound material conditional withdrawal. There is no source of contamination yet and the risk of contamination is not great enough for this lower sanction to be acceptable. If it asbestos-containing material is not properly packaged and is not bonded or weathered or Machine Translated by Google is damaged, the certificate must be suspended (repair sanction). The suspension should also be taken as a disciplinary measure. If the packaging is damaged, there is an immediate source of contamination. If it is not indicated that it concerns asbestos, the material will be handled less carefully. This increases the risk of damage. There is also a risk that the material is processed incorrectly, causing it to end up in the living environment. The certificate holder must find out how this deviation came about, remove it and take measures to ensure that the violation will not be repeated. Then the suspension (remedial sanction) can be withdrawn. If there is (potentially) contamination with asbestos If the material is located outside the place where asbestos is or has been removed and it is not screened fibre-tight, this should lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (order measure). If material was not shielded fibre-tight in a room where asbestos fibers could be released, there is a great risk that this material is contaminated. If it is subsequently taken outside the protected area, the asbestos fibers are expelled and an emission or in any case a risk of exposure arises. Items such as filters and water can also become contaminated and must be disposed of in such a way that no fiber emission is possible. E. Violation consisting of incorrect removal or removal in too low a risk class On the basis of the working conditions legislation, the asbestos must be removed in the risk class of the inventory report and the corresponding measures must be taken. However, the work must be carried out in a higher class if the actual nature of the work or the condition of the asbestos so requires Machine Translated by Google obliged. This exception from the actual situation does not apply if the risk classification in the report is too high. The risk class classification in the asbestos inventory report forms the lower limit. If, according to the asbestos inventory report, the activities must be performed in risk class 2, for example, they must be performed in risk class 2. Even if the work can actually be performed in risk class 1. The fact that an asbestos inventory report is unclear or insufficient does not mean that the remover must compensate for this. He must refuse to carry out the work until there is a proper report. A remover will always have to assess on the basis of the situation encountered whether he should not work in a higher class than indicated in the report. In that case, an additional and re-approved inventory report will be required. If an asbestos removal company does not operate in accordance with the measures that belong to the risk class prescribed by law, this will lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (public order measure). The risk class is the basis for the measures to be taken. The law is clear with regard to which risk class must be worked in. If the certificate holder does not take the measures that belong to this risk class, the certificate must be suspended. If the asbestos remover does not have a proper asbestos inventory report, his certificate must be suspended (remediation sanction) and suspended (orderly measure). Machine Translated by Google An asbestos remover may not start his work without a proper asbestos inventory report. A disposer operating without a proper report risks exposure and emissions. It is his choice to work with a faulty report and at his own risk if he commits violations as a result. In the event of a faulty report, the remover must cease his activities and wait until the client provides a proper report. If he nevertheless starts to remove asbestos, this should lead to suspension (remedial sanction and order measure). If (a copy of) the asbestos inventory report is not present at the place where asbestos is removed, this should lead to conditional withdrawal. The information provided by the asbestos inventory report is necessary in the workplace. The information from the report should also be included in the work. If this information is not available, this leads to an increase in the risk of exposure. However, the availability of the information in the workplace does not always require the asbestos inventory report to be in the workplace. The absence of the report does not necessarily lead to exposure or increase the risk. It is acceptable that this deviation leads to conditional withdrawal. In this case too, the lack of information caused by the report being away from the workplace may have already led to a violation leading to unconditional withdrawal. The foregoing also applies to an unclear copy of the report. F. Violations related to the inventory of the asbestos The basis for safe removal of asbestos is the asbestos inventory. This allows the remover to know what it will encounter and to plan and execute the removal. Furthermore, the remover will deliver the structure or the relevant part thereof free of asbestos, so that the contractor will not find any asbestos during his work and the user will not find any asbestos during use. In an inventory, all the asbestos present must be inventoried. The asbestos inventor will not be allowed to limit his investigation without reason. If work has to be carried out at a certain place, the inventor will have to make an inventory there. If the inventory is not complete, there is a risk that the remover or the contractor unexpectedly encounters asbestos during his work. Often this has already been damaged by the time it is discovered that it is asbestos, so that there is already Machine Translated by Google asbestos emission and exposure to asbestos fibres. It is precisely the intention that these kinds of surprises are prevented by a full and in-depth investigation by the inventor. The report must state all relevant information about the asbestos, such as the nature of the asbestos, the concentration of asbestos in the material and the condition of the material. Each piece of asbestos must also be identified uniquely in the sense that the remover can link the data in the report to the situation he finds. After all, the remover must be able to find the asbestos and know what he is dealing with. The following defects with regard to the asbestos inventory should lead to: to suspend (remedial sanction and disciplinary measure) of the certificate: • the asbestos inventor has not examined the entire location, building (part), structure or object where will be worked; • he has not performed any destructive testing in situations that will be demolished/renovated/ converted, etc.; • not all asbestos has a unique characteristic; • is not made of all asbestos material taken a sample; • not all asbestos is indicated in the report with all the necessary information, such as location, degree of concentration and condition of the material, etc. If the report is not complete or does not contain all the data, it does not fulfill its primary function. In addition, an incomplete report leads to a risk of exposure to Machine Translated by Google asbestos fibers. The asbestos remover must be able to rely on the completeness and accuracy of the report. A distinction is made between a type-A asbestos inventory (directly observable asbestos) and a type-B asbestos inventory (non-directly observable asbestos). We can only speak of a complete asbestos inventory report if all asbestos on the site, in the structure or object has been inventoried (insofar as work will be carried out there). If only the observable asbestos was considered during the inventory, it is usually not possible to speak of a complete asbestos inventory report. Such an incomplete report cannot be regarded as a violation by the certificate holder if it was only his assignment to conduct a type-A examination. The certificate holder will have to clearly indicate the limitations of the research in the report. He will also have to point out the risks of such a limited report in the report. Classification in a risk class that is too low leads to suspension (remedial sanction and disciplinary measure). The inventor must determine the risk class on the basis of his research. The risk classification is often already determined by the nature and condition of the asbestos found. The asbestos remover and other employers must be able to rely on the inventory report. Practice shows that many removers and other employers rely on the classification in the report. This means that a classification that is too low leads to insufficient measures being taken. This is especially important if risk class 1 is incorrectly defined indicated. Since an incorrect risk classification increases the risk of asbestos emission and exposure, a lower sanction is not acceptable. If the disposer deviates from the method described in the report, he will have to determine for himself whether this has consequences for the risk classification. The risk class classification from the report still applies as the lower limit. G. Violations of Employee Competence/Knowledge/Certification Standards Pursuant to the working conditions legislation, the work must be performed under the constant supervision of a DTA officer. The work must be performed by persons with a DAV certificate. These certificates guarantee that asbestos removal work is carried out by persons with Machine Translated by Google sufficient expertise and know-how. If there is insufficient knowledge and expertise, there is a risk that asbestos fibers will be released and spread as a result of (unintentional) errors. DTA-er The DTA's role is to continuously monitor the asbestos removal work. The DTA-er is the employer's representative at the workplace. He must identify emerging problems, solve them or provide feedback to the employer. He must also prevent unforeseen situations from leading to problems. He must also ensure that employees comply with the rules and do not endanger the safety of themselves, their colleagues and other persons. There is a danger in all work activities that, for example, due to routine, human laziness, misjudgment of the risks or 'just as quick' thinking, the employees act unsafely. It is then crucial that the DTA person is there and prevents them from doing so. The consequence of this role is that if he is not there, the work will not be performed during his absence. If the work is so extensive that one DTA person cannot supervise everywhere, several must be present at work. If no certified DTA person is present at work and this has not been arranged, the certificate must be suspended (remedial sanction and order measure). The fact that no certified DTA has been arranged means that the employer has planned the work in violation of the law and schedules. Given the importance of the DTA person to supervise the employees and to act in the event of (unforeseen) problems, this means that the certificate must be suspended (remedial sanction and order measure). If the certified DTA-er does not continuously supervise (i.e. is not present where asbestos removal work is carried out) performed), this should lead to suspension (remedial sanction and disciplinary measure). Machine Translated by Google The DTA person must monitor continuously. If the work takes place without a DTA, an important link in safety is missing. Working without this link should lead to the suspension of the certificate. The difference with the previous category is that a DTA employee was arranged, but he was not present during the work. This is not important. If there is no DTA at the asbestos removal work, it does not matter whether or not a DTA was arranged. He's not there so he can't supervise. If the asbestos removal work is so extensive that one DTA person cannot be present for all the work, there is not a DTA person present at all asbestos removal work. Even then, there is this deviation. The certificate holder must arrange a sufficient number of DTA staff, so that a DTA staff member is present for all asbestos removal work. If the certificate holder does not employ a certified DTA on the basis of an employment contract, this must lead to conditional withdrawal. The fact that the employer does not employ a DTA does not mean that no DTA supervises the work. Conditional withdrawal is acceptable. If the fact that no DTA is employed means that there are no or insufficient DTAs during the work, the certificate will be suspended (remedial sanction and disciplinary measure). After all, there are not enough DTA staff present. DAV-er In the event that uncertified persons carry out asbestos removal work, this should lead to suspension (remedial sanction) and suspension (orderly measure). Machine Translated by Google Asbestos is so dangerous to workers and others that any person actually performing asbestos removal work must have and maintain minimal training. This is guaranteed via the DAV certificate. The DAV person must know what the risks are, what is the role of the security measures, when he has to call in the DTA. In short: he must know what he is doing. The consequence of carrying out asbestos work by uncertified persons must be that this is terminated and that measures are taken to prevent recurrence. Until then, work is not allowed. This means that the suspension must be both as a disciplinary measure and the sanction of suspension must be imposed until sufficient ensured that no uncertified person performs asbestos work again. DIA-er If unqualified persons carry out asbestos inventory work, this should lead to suspension and suspension (orderly measure) In view of the importance of a proper asbestos inventory report, the inventor should have sufficient knowledge and expertise. H. Violation of standards related to analyzing the work, the company etc. and learning from experience It is important to learn from anomalies and incidents and near anomalies and - incidents. It is a continuous process to continue to guarantee safety on the basis of experience. This prevents deviations and incidents, increasing safety and compliance with the rules. The certificate holder must also regularly analyze its business operations to see whether it functions sufficiently and whether no improvements can be made. If there is a structure within which learning takes place, learning is real. This constantly raises the question whether learning can be done. In an ad hoc learning system, learning is diluted and moments that can be learned are not identified. This concerns, for example, the following types of standards: •. the inventor and asbestos remover must have a structural have a learning system (recorded and verifiable); •. the inventor and asbestos remover must apply this system; •. if (near) deviations or (near) incidents occur, the inventor and the asbestos remover must pay demonstrable attention to this. In this Machine Translated by Google In the framework, he should ask questions such as: how could this have happened? What have been the consequences? How will this be prevented in the future? These rules are independent of the obligation to rectify a deviation and incident as soon as possible. This learning looks to the future. In general, violating the above 3 types of standards will lead to a warning. Violation of these provisions increases the risk of emissions and exposure during concrete activities to a lesser extent. It is acceptable to give the certificate holder time to undo the deviation by, for example, setting up and applying a learning system or applying an established learning system. I. Notification obligations The regulations contain a number of obligations to report activities. The background to these notification obligations is that the relevant authority can carry out an inspection. Such an inspection may consist of conducting an on-site investigation, but may also involve, for example, requesting documents, such as the asbestos inventory report, to check its correctness and completeness. The aim is to achieve effective supervision. If the activities are not reported in time, the certificate holder can prevent an inspection and thereby hide violations. Failure to (timely) report activities should lead to a conditional withdrawal. A first violation of this is not so serious that it is not acceptable that the certificate holder is given a second chance. During the period of the conditional withdrawal, the certificate holder must take measures to prevent that notification is not made or is reported too late. Of course, all activities must be reported in a timely manner during this period. It is possible that only after the expiry of the stipulated period it becomes apparent that activities have not been reported during this period. This is then treated as a second deviation in the escalation ladder. Machine Translated by Google J. Carrying out the work yourself It sometimes happens that an asbestos inventor or remover subcontracts the inventory or removal work in whole or in part. The problem with this is that it often becomes unclear who is responsible for what. This lack of clarity increases the risk that measures will not be taken, because the persons involved believe that someone else will take the measures. If the certificate holder does not (fully) carry out and outsource the accepted or assigned activities himself to a non-certified company, the certificate should be conditionally revoked. Not performing the work yourself does not directly lead to exposure or increase the risk. Conditional withdrawal is acceptable. The company that outsources remains fully responsible itself in the event of hiring or outsourcing. She will be (partly) addressed if a company to which (part of) the work has been outsourced makes a mistake. If there is a deviation by the company to which work has been outsourced, this is regarded as a deviation by the outsourcing certificate holder. This is irrespective of whether the person to whom the outsourcing is carried out is certified. This can lead to the outsourcing company being penalized more severely than the company to which the outsourcing is done, because the outsourcer is repetitive. In the event of further outsourcing, the above applies to the entire chain. Suppose that asbestos remover A outsources part of the work to asbestos remover B, who in turn outsources part of it to asbestos remover C. If C commits a violation, this is regarded as a deviation from both A, B and C. If circumstances prevent the certificate holder from performing the work, he can also resolve this by returning the order. He can also hire employees or hire resources to be able to do the work anyway. K. Organization of the company Machine Translated by Google The regulations contain many provisions regarding the organization of the company. For example, the company must have certain officers appointed, certain procedures must be drawn up and there must be a quality system. The importance of such rules is often wrongly underestimated and regarded as unnecessary bureaucracy. However, a good organization leads to better quality assurance, the prevention of ad hoc solutions and the prevention of deviations. If the company does not have mandatory officers, procedures, records or systems or if the procedures, records or systems are not sufficient, this will generally lead to a conditional withdrawal. Most of the rules are clear and easy to follow. The fact that the certificate holder has not followed the rules means that the government cannot rely on this person/company. Given that the non-existence or unsoundness of these elements does not directly lead to exposure, conditional withdrawal will suffice. L. Preparation of work This type includes the standards that relate to the preparation of the work. This concerns the drawing up of a work plan, consultation with other companies at the workplace, the instruction of the employees, the inspection of the employees, etc. The variation under this type is also large with regard to the seriousness of the deviation, given the risk of exposure to asbestos. Here is only an explanation for a few topics given. a) Work plan The work plan lays down how the removal of asbestos will be tackled. This forces the remover to think about the work and the possible problems. The method does not have to be invented gradually, but has been devised and determined in advance. Since it is clear how work will be done, it can also be ensured that the necessary resources are available. Machine Translated by Google If this preparation is skipped, the risk of asbestos emission and exposure increases. Practice has shown that if there is no plan or if this is insufficient, the employees will come up with solutions themselves or continue working without taking the necessary measures. This often leads to the release of asbestos fibers or exposure. Failure to draw up a proper work plan/ project plan should lead to conditional withdrawal and suspension (order of order). An asbestos remover who does not draw up a sound plan chooses not to do so. The government cannot rely on such a person/company. Conditional withdrawal is sufficient, because the lack of a plan does not necessarily lead to exposure or an increase in risk. If the work plan is not at the workplace, this should lead to conditional withdrawal. The same applies if the work plan is not at the workplace. After all, a plan that is not present where it is to be carried out may as well not have been drawn up. If a proper work plan is not followed, this should lead to conditional withdrawal. A work plan that is not followed may as well not have been drawn up. b) Inventory plan Machine Translated by Google In the asbestos inventory plan, the inventor lays down what must be inventoried and how this must be done. This prevents the inventory from being incomplete. Failure to draw up an inventory plan should lead to conditional withdrawal. An asbestos inventor who does not draw up an inventory plan chooses not to do so. Conditional withdrawal is sufficient, because the lack of a plan does not necessarily lead to exposure or an increase in risk. If the plan is not in the workplace, this should lead to conditional withdrawal. The same applies if the plan is not in the workplace. After all, a plan that is not present where it is to be carried out may as well not have been drawn up. If a proper inventory plan is not followed, this should lead to conditional withdrawal. A plan that is not followed may as well not have been made. c) Emergency plan It is always possible that something unexpected occurs that creates a risk of emission or exposure during the work. For example, a fire can break out or asbestos is unexpectedly discovered, a product can malfunction or someone can drop out. The company must record in a disaster plan how these situations should be dealt with. If there is no emergency plan, employees will be on site on an ad hoc basis Machine Translated by Google have to come up with solutions. There is a risk that a solution will have to be searched for too long or that the wrong solution will be chosen. This means that the company may not carry out any work until it has a disaster plan in place. If a certificate holder does not have a proper emergency plan, the certificate must be to be conditionally withdrawn The lack of a disaster plan does not directly lead to exposure or an increase in risk. First there will have to be a calamity. Even then, the lack of a plan does not have to lead to exposure or increase the risk. Conditional withdrawal is sufficient. If the emergency plan is not at the workplace, the certificate must be conditionally to be revoked. If the plan is not in the workplace, it can be equated with the plan that has not been drawn up. If a emergency plan is incomplete, it depends on the defect whether a conditional withdrawal is sufficient. This will have to be assessed on a case-by-case basis. d) Instruction The training that employees receive is, by definition, general. They will have to be instructed about the concrete working method in the company. The subjects on which the employees should be instructed are many and varied. The employees must Machine Translated by Google at least know the work plan. They must also be given instructions on how to use the concrete resources with which they work. It should also be clear who they should contact in case of problems. For most deviations from the instructions, warning will be an acceptable sanction to be. overlap It is possible that a standard falls under several clusters. In that case, the most far-reaching sanction will be chosen. After all, this follows from the seriousness of the violation. Special circumstances It is possible that in a specific case special circumstances arise that are reason to deviate from the lists, because application of the list in the specific case leads to disproportionate consequences. Special circumstances are circumstances that are not very common. If special circumstances already exist, this will not easily lead to disproportionality. The importance of people's lives and health and that the government must be able to rely on the certificate holder means that in the vast majority of cases the consequences of the sanctions are proportionate. The company's interest in operating undisturbed, making money or continuing its business is not an interest that warrants deviating from the list. Annex XIIIc. , belonging to article 4.27 Certification scheme for the Personal Certificates Expert Asbestos Remover level 1 and level 2 (DAV-1 and DAV-2) and Expert Asbestos Removal Supervisor (DTA) Section 1. Definitions and Requirements Article 1. Definitions and abbreviations In this appendix, the following definitions apply: Applicant: a person who applies to a certification body to issue a certificate of professional competence; Management foundation: Ascert Foundation, being the management foundation, referred to in Article 1.5a(1)(f) of the Decree; Machine Translated by Google Certificate or personal certificate: a certificate as referred to in Article 20, first paragraph, of the Act; Certificate register: the register that is managed by the management foundation on the basis of the data recorded by the certification bodies on the basis of Article 1.5a, first paragraph, part d, of the Decree; Certifying body process certification: a certifying body as referred to in Article 4.27, part b, of the Working Conditions Regulation; DAV-1: person in possession of a personal certificate expert asbestos remover level 1; DAV-2: person who is in possession of a person certificate expert asbestos remover level 2; DTA: person in possession of a personal certificate expert asbestos removal supervisor; Attainment targets: a description of the whole of knowledge, experience, attitude and practical skills of a specific field of competence for the purpose of assessing an applicant; Entry criteria: criteria, such as education and work experience, to which the the applicant complies to be admitted to the certification procedure; Fatal error: an act during the practical exam that can lead to exposure to asbestos and can therefore pose a danger to the candidate or the environment; Item bank: a total file of questions and questions managed by the management foundation assignments for the exam; NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024: general requirements for institutions that certify persons, issued by the Netherlands Standardization Institute, as they read in 2012; Risk class 1: when there are concentrations of asbestos fibers as described in Articles 4.44 and 4.46 of the Decree; Risk class 2: when there are concentrations of asbestos fibers as described in Articles 4.46 and 4.48 of the Decree; Risk class 2A: in the case of the concentrations of asbestos fibers as described in Articles 4.46 and 4.53a of the Decree; Test term: a description of a final term or an element of a final term in the form of a knowledge aspect, a skill or the attitude in such a way that it can be tested. Article 2. Elaboration of requirements The requirements in NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024 apply in full for the granting of a certificate in accordance with this appendix and are further elaborated in this appendix. Section 2. Certification and Recertification Article 3. Certification procedure 1. The certifying body is responsible for issuing a personal certificate and is responsible for carrying out the following activities: Machine Translated by Google a. phase 1: examining the candidate with distinction in theory and practical exam; b. phase 2: assessing the candidate's exam results; c. phase 3: deciding on the granting, and possibly withdrawal, of the certificate. The activities referred to in the first paragraph, under a, may be outsourced 2. to an examination institution, provided that the certifying institution has concluded an agreement with this examination institution and has provided a copy of this to the management foundation. The certification body remains responsible for conducting the exam. 3. The certification procedure is established by the certification body in a certification procedure established. This certification procedure contains at least the following elements: a. the method of checking the entry criteria; b. the manner of registration of the candidate's data; c. the manner and frequency of passing on mutations for the benefit of the certificate register; d. the obligation to use the item bank which is managed by the management foundation; e. the way of dealing with the exam papers and the measures that be taken to ensure the confidentiality of this data; f. the obligation to submit differences of interpretation with regard to questions or orders from the item bank to the management foundation; gh the manner in which the exam results are assessed by the assessor; the manner of decision to grant, refuse or revoke a certificate; and i. requirements and method of assessment with regard to the recognition of foreign certificates. 4. The certifying institution checks in advance whether the candidate already has a certificate has had with another certification body and whether this certificate has been suspended or revoked. If the certificate has been suspended or withdrawn within a period of twelve months prior to the application, the certification body will not accept the application and will refer the candidate back to their original certification body. The certifying body will make a decision within four weeks after all requirements have been met. Article 4. Recertification 1. The same procedures and requirements apply for recertification as for initial certification. 2. Recertification takes place after the entire practical and theory exam has been passed consequence has been made. Machine Translated by Google 3. If the positive recertification decision is made within three months before the expiry date of the current certificate, this expiry date is also the effective date of the follow-up certificate. 4. If the positive recertification decision is made before the three months prior on the expiry date of the current certificate, the date of the recertification decision is the effective date of the follow-up certificate. 5. A new certificate is only issued with simultaneous revocation or invalidation of the previously issued certificate. Section 3. Exam Article 5. Requirements for the exam 1. The exam consists of a practical exam and a theory exam. 2. The certifying institution has exam regulations that contain at least the following elements: a. the way in which the participation and call are confirmed; b. the method of identification of the participants; c. a regulation on admission and absence; d. the manner of examination; e. rules of conduct for candidates; f. a regulation on alternatives to the theoretical knowledge exam; the manner in which the result is announced by the certifying institution g. to the candidate; h. an arrangement for determining the retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; and i. a regulation regarding the right of inspection. 3. The questions and assignments for the exam are taken from the item bank that is managed by the management board. 4. The certifying body will inform the candidate of the cost of the exam. Article 6. General requirements for theory exam The theory exam is taken in Dutch, whereby the text of the questions can be presented on paper or in electronic form. Article 7. Alternatives for theory exam 1. The following alternative ways of taking a theory exam are distinguished: a. a reading exam by means of a sound carrier; or b. an extended exam. Machine Translated by Google the conditions A reading stated exam in the cansixth onlyparagraph, be taken with but anot DAV-1 with DTA or DAV-2 candidates. candidate, A reading and under exam is made available by the management foundation. 3. An extended exam can only be administered to candidates who have a psychologist or remedial educationalist issued a dyslexia statement. 4. A candidate submits a written request for permission to take a alternative theory test at the certifying institution. 5. Higher costs may be charged for an alternative theory exam. The candidate will be informed about these costs in advance by the certifying body. 6. The following applies to a reading exam: a. the supervisor instructs the candidate; b. the candidate is offered the exam on a sound carrier or computer and can replay questions itself within the available time; c. the candidate indicates and notes the answer himself, and d. the time available is equal to that for the regular exam. 7. For an extended exam, the available time is 150% of the regular maximum exam duration. Article 8. General requirements practical exam The location of the practical exam is suitable for holding the relevant practical 1. exams. 2. During the practical exam, communication is in Dutch. Section 4. Supervision and notifications Article 9. Cooperation in checks by the certification body process certificate 1. If requested, the certificate holder shall cooperate in inspections of a certifying institution for process certification, insofar as it concerns an inspection of a certified asbestos removal company for which the certificate holder carries out work. of a certificate If a certification holder DTA body or DAV-1 establishes or DAV-2 process fromcertification what is prescribed with regard in this to the appendix 2. functioning and reports this to the certification body that issued the relevant personal certificate, the the latter certification body this notification and, if necessary, proceeds to impose sanctions against the relevant certificate holder. Machine Translated by Google Article 10. Supervision by a supervisory government institution If a supervisory government institution, including in any case 1. the Inspectorate SZW, with regard to the functioning of a DTA or DAV-1 or DAV-2 certificate holder, observes deviations from what is prescribed in this appendix and reports this to the certifying institution that issued the relevant personal certificate, then the latter will investigate institution this notification and, if necessary, will proceed to impose sanctions on the relevant certificate holder. If the certifying body decides not to do this, it will record this decision, including the substantiation thereof, in writing and ensure proper archiving. 2. If the supervising government institution so requests, it will be informed in writing by the certifying institution about its decision and about the reasons underlying that decision. Article 11. Notifications regarding the conduct of the certificate holder If the certification body receives a report about the conduct of a 1. certificate holder other than on the basis of article 9 or article 10, the certification body assesses whether there is a deviation from the requirements and whether that deviation is attributable to the certificate holder. 2. The certifying institution will notify the person who made the report in writing whether, in its opinion, there has been a deviation and this has resulted in the imposition of a sanction. Section 5. Sanctions Article 12 Reserved Section 6. Certificate Article 13. Certificate details The following information is in any case stated on the certificate: a. name and initials of the certificate holder; b. date and place of birth of the certificate holder; c. the citizen service number; d. unique and unambiguous document number or certificate number issued by the management body; e. name of the certification body that issued the certificate; f. reference to the applicable standards that have been tested; g. scope of the certificate, including the requirements included in the certification agreement, referred to in Article 14; Machine Translated by Google h. the effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid; and i. a statement from the certification body that the certificate holder complies with the requirements as laid down in this annex. Article 14. Certification Agreement The certificate holder and the certification body enter into a 1. certification agreement in which at least the obligations of the certificate holder and the certification body referred to in the second and third paragraphs are Hospitalized. 2. The certificate holder: a. continues to meet the requirements of this certificate for the duration of the certificate Appendix; b. cooperates with inspections by the certifying institution; c. in the event of a suspension, retake an examination within four weeks after that suspension, whereby the suspension is lifted if successful; d. returns an invalidated certificate to the certifying party institution, within 14 days of a registered request to this effect; and e. communicates changes in its circumstances that may be important for the certificate. 3. The certifying body: a. informs the governing body about the issuance of a certificate after the candidate has passed the exam and has met the payment obligations for the certificate register; and b. decides to revoke the certificate when, after an in the first paragraph, part c, the suspension referred to has not been passed. Section 7. Requirements for the certificate holder DAV-1 Article 15. DAV-1 . entrance criteria 1. The entrance criteria for the DAV-1 certificate holder mean that the applicant: a. has attended primary education or equivalent education; b. is proficient in the Dutch language in word and writing; c. is at least 18 years old; d. has demonstrably performed a facefit test less than one year before taking the exam; e. has access to a mask of the correct model and the correct mate; and f. has completed part 1 of the online respiratory protection instruction program and can prove it. 2. In addition to the first paragraph, the entrance criterion is that in the previous twelve months no certificate DAV-1, DAV-2 or DTA of the applicant has been revoked. Machine Translated by Google Article 16. Exam, cut-off point and validity DAV-1 1. The theory exam lasts a maximum of 45 minutes and consists of 20 closed questions. 2. The practical exam lasts a maximum of 60 minutes and consists of three assignments. 3. A candidate has passed if he: a. has obtained 70% of the points to be obtained for the theory exam; b. has at least 70% of the points to be obtained for all practical assignments achieved; and c. did not make a fatal mistake. 4. The DAV-1 certificate is valid for a maximum of 6 months. Article 17. Core tasks, final objectives and assessment criteria DAV-1 1. For the DAV-1, the core tasks, attainment targets and test criteria are listed in the three tables included below, in which the letter K stands for knowledge, the letter B for understanding and the letter T for application. CORE TASK 1 Removing Asbestos Final term 1: carrying out the asbestos removal work in accordance with the applicable regulations Code Keyword DAV-1 Key terms test matrix Mastery level Theory exam number Practical exam number to ask assignments 1.1 Recognize asbestos-suspicious applications 1.2 Working differently K 0 or 1 go with bonded and non- bonded asbestos 1.3 Naming the van important utilities 1.4 Setting up a k 0 or 1 workplace 1.5 Keeping order and K 0 or 1 cleanliness in the workplace 1.6 Building a k 1 or 2 containment/working area, incl. the negative pressure machine Machine Translated by Google 1.7 Putting the vacuum machine into operation 1.8 Naming the correct negative pressure and ventilation rate 1.9 Checking the filter resistance of the negative pressure machine 1.10 Establishing the right negative pressure and ventilation rate 1.11 Underpressure value in the check containment 1.12 Checking the K 0 or 1 1 decontamination unit for proper operation 1.13 Run the 1 1 T decontamination procedure with or without transit 1.14 Properly removing K from 1 materials containing asbestos 1.15 Choosing it for K 0 or 1 asbestos removal suitable (hand) tools 1.16 Proper use of (hand tool 1.17 Taking proper measures to limit fiber emissions prior to working with the floor router 1.18 Cleaning the B 0 or 1 containment/work area 1.19 Correct use of the K 0 or 1 vacuum cleaner 1.20 Dismantling the containment/work area 1.21 Working in accordance with 0 or 1 work plan K led by DTA 1.22 Know the differences between the risks of amphibole remediation and chrysotile remediation 1.23 Know that there k 0 or 1 Machine Translated by Google are different risk classes CORE TASK 2 WASTE DISPOSAL Final term 2 Safely packing and disposing of waste materials, in accordance with the current rules. Code Keyword DAV-1 Key terms test matrix Request command Theory exam number Practical exam number level commands 2.1 Know why it is important to safely pack asbestos-containing K 0 or 1 material 2.2 Safe packaging of K . containing asbestos 0, 1 or 2 material 2.3 Pack asbestos-containing material in such a way that K recognizes 0, 1 or 2 an outsider as asbestos 2.4 Asbestos-containing material safely out of the B 0 or 1 bring containment/work area CORE TASK 3 WORK SAFELY Final term 3 Carry out work in accordance with the applicable rules in a safe manner for oneself, colleagues and the environment Code Keyword DAV-1 Key terms test matrix Mastery level Theory exam number Practical exam number of assignments questions 3.1 Name that health damage from asbestos fibers K 1 or 2 is caused by inhalation 3.2 Name the diseases that can be caused by K 0 or 1 inhalation of asbestos fibers 3.3 State that the employer is obliged to give k 0 or 1 employees the opportunity to undergo a medical examination 3.4 Acting safely in the event of a calamity k 1 or 2 3.5 Mention the importance of low-emission working K 1 or 2 3.6 Low-emission working appropriate to the situation k O or 1 3.7 Naming when a room without personal K 0 or 1 protective equipment may be entered 3.8 Using the correct respiratory protection equipment, K 1 or 2 appropriate to the situation 3.9 Knowing why an annual facefit test should be done K 0 or 1 Machine Translated by Google 3.10 Working with respiratory protective equipment according to the T 1 or 2 1 rules from the respiratory protection program at www.vezelveiligheid.nl/adembescherming 3.11 State why continuous work is not allowed in the containment on a working day 3.12 Assess whether machines and tools are suitable are for use 3.13 Know the risks of working at height k 1 or 2 3.14 Taking the right precautions when working on roofs 3.15 Knowing the right precautions when working K on roofs 0 or 1 3.16 Using the right climbing equipment for a particular situation 3.17 Understand in which exceptional situations with ladders and stairs may be worked 3.18 Using the prescribed fall protection equipment 3.19 Erection of mobile scaffold towers in accordance with the safety rules 3.20 Using (mobile) scaffolding in accordance with the safety rules 3.21 Demolition of mobile scaffolding in accordance with the safety rules 3.22 Knowing the risks of working with electricity K O or 1 3.23 Working safely with electricity 3.24 The risks of working in confined spaces k 0 or 1 know 3.25 Mention which precautions have been taken should be used when working in confined spaces 3.26 Adhere to the safety regulations at working in confined spaces 2. The DAV-1 understands the consequences of not correctly performing the core tasks referred to in the first paragraph and the related attainment targets and assessment criteria and can explain why his actions are in accordance with this. Article 18. DAV-1 . test matrix The distribution of the questions and assignments over the core tasks and attainment targets takes place on the basis of the test matrix shown in the table below, in which the letter K stands for knowledge, the letter B for understanding and the letter T for application. Machine Translated by Google Theory: Closed questions Practice: Key terms Number of k B T obliged optional Core task 1 Final term 1 Test terms 8 6 1 1 2 1 to 23 Core task 2 Final term 2 Test terms 3 2 1 2 or more 2.1 to 2.4 Core task 3 1 Final term 3 Test terms 9 8 1 3.1 to 3.26 Total number 20 16 3 1 5 or more questions/assignments Article 19. Re-examination DAV-1 1. A candidate may no later than six months after obtaining a satisfactory result retake the exam for either his practical exam or his theory exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam that is still not qualified enough. 2. In the situation referred to in the first paragraph, the candidate may receive a maximum of two take a re-examination. 3. If the candidate in the situation referred to in the second paragraph does not pass after a re- examination, or after the expiry of the term referred to in the first paragraph, both the theoretical and practical exams will be retaken. 4. There is no maximum attached to the number of combined practice to be taken and theory exams. Section 8. Requirements for the certificate holder DAV-2 Article 20. DAV-2 . entrance criteria 1. The entrance criteria for the DAV-2 certificate holder means that the applicant: a. is in possession of a DAV certificate issued before March 1, 2016; b. is in possession of a DAV-2 certificate or a DTA certificate, which are valid on the date of taking the exam or which have not expired for more than one year; or c. is in possession of a valid DAV-1 certificate, whereby the applicant has carried out the practical experience part in a company with the asbestos removal process certificate, and this is demonstrable: Machine Translated by Google 1° by means of during the asbestos removal work obtained logbooks for at least 240 packing hours; and 2° by a fully completed DAV-1 command set. 2. In addition to the first paragraph, the applicant: a. has demonstrably performed a facefit test less than one year before taking the exam; b. has a mask of the correct model and size; and c. has completed part 2 of the online respiratory protection instruction program and can prove it. 3. In addition to the first and second paragraph, the entrance criterion is that no DAV-1, DAV-2 or DTA certificate has been withdrawn from the applicant in the previous twelve months. Article 21. Exam, cut-off point and validity DAV-2 1. The theory exam lasts a maximum of 60 minutes and consists of 30 closed questions. 2. The practical exam lasts a maximum of 90 minutes and consists of five assignments. 3. A candidate has passed if he: a. has obtained 70% of the points to be obtained for the theory exam; b. has at least 70% of the points to be obtained for all practical assignments achieved; and c. did not make a fatal mistake. 4. The DAV-2 certificate is valid for a maximum of 3 years. Article 22. Core tasks, attainment targets and assessment criteria DAV-2 1. For the DAV-2, the core tasks, attainment targets and test criteria that apply in the three the following tables are given. CORE TASK 1 Removal of asbestos Final term 1 Carrying out in accordance with applicable regulations of professional activities of asbestos remediation Code Test term DAV-2 Key terms Test matrix Competence level Theory exam 1.1 0 or 1 Practical exam Recognition of suspicious applications T 1.2 Working differently with bonded and T non-bonded asbestos 0 or 1 1.3 Naming the important utilities B 0 or 1 Machine Translated by Google 1.4 Setting up a workplace T 0 or 1 0 or 1 1.5 Maintain order and tidiness in the workplace T 0 or 1 0 or 1 1.6 Building a containment/work area, incl. the T 0 or 1 negative pressure machine 1.7 Putting the vacuum machine into operation T 0 or 1 1.8 Naming the correct negative pressure and T 1 ventilation rate 1.9 Checking the filter resistance of the T 0 or 1 negative pressure machine 1.10 Establishing the correct negative pressure and T 0 or 1 ventilation rate 1.11 Checking the negative pressure value in the containment T 0 or 1 1.12 Checking the decontamination unit on the T 0 or 1 correct operation 1.13 Carrying out the decontamination procedure with or T 1 1-1 without transit 1.14 Properly remove from T 0 or 1 asbestos-containing material 1.15 Choosing the T . suitable for asbestos removal 0, 1 or 2 0 or 1 (hand tool 1.16 Correct use of (hand) tools T 0, 1 or 2 0 or 1 1.17 Taking the right measures to T 0 or 1 limit fiber emissions prior to working with the floor router 1.18 Cleaning the containment / work area T 1 0 or 1 1.19 Correct use of the vacuum cleaner T 0 or 1 1.20 Dismantling the containment / work area T 0, 1 or 2 0 or 1 1.21 Working in accordance with work plan led by DTA T 0, 1 or 2 1.22 Knowing the Differences Between the Risks of B 1 amphibole remediation and chrysotile remediation 1.23 Knowing that there are different risk classes T 1 Machine Translated by Google CORE TASK 2 WASTE DISPOSAL Final term 2 Safely packing and disposing of waste, in accordance with the current rules Code Test term DAV-2 Key terms Test matrix Mastery level Theory exam Know why it is Practical exam materials containingimportant asbestostoTpack materials containing asbestos B 2.1 Safely pack Oh, 1 or 2 2.2 0, 1 or 2 1 material 2.3 Pack asbestos-containing material in such a way that T 0, 1 or 2 O or 1 an outsider recognizes it as asbestos 2.4 Asbestos-containing material safely out of the T O or 1 bring containment / work area CORE TASK 3 WORK SAFELY Final term 3 Carry out work in accordance with the applicable rules in a safe manner for oneself, colleagues and the environment Code Keyword DAV-2 Test terms Test matrix Mastery level Theory exam 3.1 Mention that health damage of Practical exam asbestos fibers B 1 or 2 is caused by inhalation 3.2 Name the diseases that can be caused by B 0, 1 or 2 inhalation of asbestos fibers 3.3 State that the employer is obliged to give k 1 employees the opportunity to undergo a medical examination 3.4 Acting safely in the event of a calamity B 0 or 1 3.5 Identifying the importance of low-emission working B 1 or 2 3.6 Low-emission working appropriate to the situation T 1 3.7 Naming when a space without personal B 1 protective equipment may be entered 3.8 Using the correct respiratory protection equipment, T 0 or 1 appropriate to the situation 3.9 Knowing why an annual facefit test should be done B 1 3.10 Working with respiratory protective equipment according to the T 1 Machine Translated by Google rules from the respiratory protection program at www.vezelveiligheid.nl/respiratory protection 3.11 State why continuous work is not allowed in the B 0, 1 or 2 containment on a working day 3.12 Assess whether machines and tools are suitable T 0 or 1 are for use 3.13 Knowing the risks of working at height 0 or 1 3.14 Taking the right precautions when working T 0 or 1 on rooftops 3.15 Knowing the right precautions when working 0 or 1 on rooftops 3.16 Using the right climbing equipment for a T 0, 1 or 2 0 or 1 certain situation 3.17 Understand in which exceptional situations with B 1 0 or 1 ladders and stairs may be worked 3.18 Using the prescribed T 0, 1 or 2 0 or 1 fall protection equipment 3.19 Erection of mobile scaffolding in accordance with the k 0 or 1 0 or 1 safety rules 3.20 Using (mobile) scaffolding in accordance with the T 1 0 or 1 safety rules 3.21 Dismantling mobile scaffold towers in accordance with the T 0, 1 or 2 0 or 1 safety rules 3.22 Knowing the risks of working with electricity 3.23 Working safely with electricity T 0, 1 or 2 0 or 1 3.24 The risks of working in confined spaces 0 or 1 know 3.25 State the precautions taken B 1 0 or 1 should be used when working in confined spaces 3.26 Adhere to the safety regulations at T 0, 1 or 2 0 or 1 working in confined spaces Machine Translated by Google 2. The DAV-2 understands the consequences of not correctly performing the core tasks referred to in the first paragraph and the related attainment targets and assessment criteria and can explain why his actions are in accordance with this. Article 23. DAV-2 . test matrix The distribution of the questions and assignments over the core tasks and attainment targets is based on the test matrix shown in the table below, in which the letter K stands for knowledge, the letter B for understanding and the letter T for application. Theory: Closed questions Practice: Key terms Number of k B T obliged optional Core task 1 Final term 1 Test terms 12 1 1 10 1 1.1 to 1.23 Final term Core task 2 2 Test terms 4 2 2 1 11 or more 2.1 to 2.4 Core task 3 Final term 3 Test terms 14 2 8 4 2 3.1 to 3.26 Total number of questions and 30 3 11 16 15 or more assignments Article 24. Re-examination DAV-2 1. A candidate may no later than six months after obtaining a satisfactory result retake the exam for either his practical exam or his theory exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam that is still not qualified enough. In the situation referred to in the first paragraph, the candidate may receive a maximum of two 2. take a re-examination. examination, If theorcandidate after the expiry in the situation of the term referred referred to in to the in the second first paragraph, paragraph both has not the passed theoretical afterand thepractical re- exams will be retaken. 4. There is no maximum attached to the number of combined practice to be taken and theory exams. Machine Translated by Google 5. When a candidate submits the application referred to in Article 20, under a, in the is in possession of a valid DAV-1 certificate, this certificate is also deemed to be valid when the candidate takes a re-examination as referred to in this article. Section 9. Requirements for the certificate holder DTA Article 25. DTA . Entrance Criteria 1. The entrance criteria for the DTA certificate holder mean that the applicant: a. is in possession of a DAV certificate issued before March 1, 2016, a DAV-2 certificate or a DTA certificate, which are valid on the date of taking the exam or have not expired for more than one year; b. has demonstrably performed a facefit test less than one year before taking the exam; c. has a mask of the correct model and size; and d. has completed part 2 of the online respiratory protection instruction program and can demonstrate this. 2. In addition to the first paragraph, the entrance criterion is that in the previous twelve months no certificate DAV-1, DAV-2 or DTA of the applicant has been revoked. Article 26. Duration and cut-off point for theory exam DTA 1. The theory exam lasts a maximum of 90 minutes. 2. The theory exam consists of: a. part A, consisting of 35 closed questions; and b. part B, consisting of 5 open questions. and at least A candidate 275 out ofhas 500passed points to thebetotal obtained theoryfor test part if he B.has obtained at least 24 out of 35 points for part A 4. The following graduated scale applies to part A: Number of points 0 1–5 6–10 11–15 16–20 21–22 23 24 25–26 27 28–29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Digit 5 0 1 2 3 4 4.5 5.5 6 6.5 7 7.5 8 8.5 9 9.5 10 Article 27. Duration and cut-off point for practical exam DTA Machine Translated by Google 1. The practical exam takes a maximum of 90 minutes. 2. The practical exam consists of four assignments. assignment In each regarding assignment, the identification the communication of applications skillsthat are suspect also tested, asbestos. with the exception of the 4. The candidate has passed the practical exam if he: a. has achieved at least 70% of the points to be obtained for each assignment; and b. did not make a fatal mistake. Article 28. Pass for entire DTA exam and validity period of certificate 1. A candidate has passed if he has met the requirements in Article 26, third paragraph, and 27, fourth paragraph. 2. The DTA certificate is valid for a maximum of 3 years. Article 29. Final objectives DTA theory exam The following attainment targets apply for the theory exam: 1. Within the scope of the types and uses, the applicant can: a. name the different types of asbestos and materials containing asbestos; and b. name the various applications of asbestos or material containing asbestos and can name and recognize the situations in which it was applied. 2. In relation to the regulations: a. does the applicant have knowledge of the existing occupational protection regulations in the field of asbestos in general and with regard to the demolition or removal of asbestos in particular; b. can the applicant carry out work in accordance with the requirements of a demolition notification as referred to in Articles 1.26 to 1.33 of the Building Decree 2012 and the requirements referred to in the Asbestos Removal Decree 2005; c. does the applicant have knowledge of the environmental regulations that apply to removing asbestos; d. does the applicant have knowledge of the asbestos removal company relevant regulations; and e. can the applicant name the bodies that monitor compliance of the aforementioned regulations and knows their powers. 3. The applicant can name and explain the tasks of a DAV-1 and DAV-2. 4. In relation to the risk assessment, the applicant may: a. the health risks of removing asbestos recognize and assess and is able to name measures to prevent these risks; b. Identify and explain the purpose, operation and aspects of alternatives to disposal. Machine Translated by Google 5. In relation to the asbestos inventory: a. does the applicant know in which cases there is an asbestos inventory obligation, by whom this inventory is carried out and does he know the exceptions to this obligation; b. does the applicant know the different types of asbestos inventories? he knows the differences and the validity period of the reports; c. can the applicant assess whether an asbestos inventory report is complete and act if this is not the case. 6. In relation to the classification into risk classes: a. does the applicant know who is authorized to determine risk classes and how these are determined; b. does the applicant know the conditions for any adjustment of the risk class and does he know the concentrations that form the basis for the classification into classes lying down; and c. does the applicant know the requirements with regard to working methods, staff training, reporting obligation, use of personal protective equipment and the final inspection. 7. In relation to process control: a. is the applicant aware of the notification obligation and can he carry out the notification obligation associated with the certification scheme Process Certificate Asbestos Removal; b. can the applicant provide a work plan for the removal of asbestos compose and assess and he knows when a work plan is necessary; c. can the applicant assess the quality of the tools used for the demolition or removal of asbestos; d. can the applicant name and describe measures to prevent fiber emissions as much as possible; e. is the applicant aware of the handling regulations with waste containing asbestos and can apply these regulations; and f. the applicant can identify and carry out the required quality and safety records in the workplace on the basis of documents. 8. In relation to the final inspections, the applicant knows: a. the conditions of the visual inspection carried out by the DTA is carried out before the inspection body carries out a final inspection; b. the preconditions and conditions of final inspection that belong to the different removal techniques and risk classes; and c. the responsibilities of the DTA and the inspection body at the final inspection. 9. The applicant can identify the relationships between the management foundation, the certifying institutions and a certificate holder and knows the relevant certification schemes and other relevant documents of the management foundation. Article 30. Final objectives DTA practical exam The following attainment targets apply to the practical exam. The applicant can: a. provide oral instruction or information; b. monitor the work and take corrective action if necessary; and Machine Translated by Google c. Identify asbestos-suspicious materials. Article 31. Test matrix theory exam DTA The distribution of the questions and assignments of the theory exam over the final objectives referred to in Article 29 takes place on the basis of the table included below, in which the letter K stands for knowledge, the letter B for understanding and the letter T for application. Element Final objectives article 29 Number of questions k B T Part A Part B Types and applications Final term 1a 0 4 4 0 0 Final term 1b 4 4 0 0 0 Parts in exam 30 Legal framework: 0 Final term 2a 8 8 0 0 Final term 2b 5 5 0 0 0 Final term 2c 2 2 0 0 0 Final term 2d 3 2 0 0 0 Final term 2nd 9 9 0 0 0 Parts in exam 7 0 Tasks, Final term 3 3 3 0 0 0 responsibilities Parts in exam 1 0 Risk assessment 0 Final term 4a 17 3 0 0 Final term 4b 5 3 0 0 0 Parts in exam 5 0 Asbestos inventory Final term 5a 3 3 0 0 0 Final term 5b 0 6 6 0 0 Final term 5c 7 5 2 0 1 Parts in exam 3 1 Machine Translated by Google Risk classes Final term 6a 2 2 0 0 0 Final term 6b 5 5 0 0 0 Final term 6c 4 4 0 0 0 Parts in exam 4 0 Process control 1 Final term 7a 4 3 0 1 Final term 7b 6 2 0 4 1 or 2 Final term 7c 6 6 0 0 0 Final term 7d 8 6 2 0 0 or 1 Final term 7th 8 8 0 0 0 Final term 7f 3 0 0 3 O or 1 Parts in exam 84 Final inspections Final term 8 3 3 0 0 0 Final term 8b 10 10 0 0 0 Final term 8c 4 4 0 0 0 Parts in exam 3 0 Parties involved Final term 9 0 16 16 0 0 Parts in exam 1 0 Total in the exam 35 5 Article 32. Test matrix practical exam DTA The distribution of the questions and assignments of the practical exam over the attainment targets, referred to in Article 29, is based on the table below. Attainment targets / Number of test terms % test terms Final term 1. The ability 1 25 Machine Translated by Google giving oral information or instruction Test terms 1.1 Has the communication skills to instruct employees involved in the removal of asbestos according to the work plan and to assess whether the instruction has been understood and can be followed. The candidate is able to defend his chosen methodology and to adequately answer substantive questions. 1.2 Has the communication skills to instruct and inform clients and third parties involved in the removal of asbestos according to the work plan and to assess whether the information has been understood. The candidate is able to defend his chosen methodology and to adequately answer substantive questions. 1.3 Has the communication skills to effectively inform inspection bodies of the state of affairs during the work and to show the correct documents. The candidate is able to defend his chosen methodology and to adequately answer substantive questions. Attainment targets / Number of test terms % test terms Attainment target 2. The 50 ability to 5 supervise the various activities and take corrective action if necessary. Assessment criteria 2.1 Can carry out his supervisory task, partly on the basis of his managerial capacities and social skills. 2.2 Can take corrective action - both in a technical and social sense - when the aids and personal protective equipment are not handled correctly. 2.3 Can act effectively when the negative pressure disappears. 2.4 Can act effectively in the event of too much negative pressure. 2.5 Can act effectively in the event of an accident resulting in personal injury. 2.6 Can act effectively when opening a waste bag. 2.7 Can act effectively in the event of a power failure. 2.8 Can act effectively in the event of a water supply failure. 2.9 Can take effective action when the containment is torn open. 2.10 Can order the placement of barriers, see to it that these actions are carried out correctly and can take action if this is not the case. 2.11 Can order the performance of work with the Machine Translated by Google glovebag, can see to it that the work with the glovebag technique is carried out correctly and can take action if this is not the case. 2.12 Can order a containment to be built, see to it that a containment is built properly and can take action if this is not the case. Can also test the device for effectiveness. 2.13 Can order the installation and connection of a decontamination unit, ensure that this is done correctly and safely and can take action if this is not the case. Can also test the decontamination unit for proper operation. 2.14 Can order the construction of a transit lock, ensure that this is done correctly and safely and can take action if this is not the case. 2.15 Can order the packaging and placing of waste containing asbestos in the waste sluice, ensure that this is done correctly and safely and can take action if this is not the case. 2.16 Can order the removal of asbestos-containing waste, including administrative actions, ensure that this is done correctly and safely and can take action if this is not the case. 2.17 Can order the removal of material using source measures, ensure that this is done correctly and safely and can take action if this is not the case. 2.18 Can assess whether aids and equipment have been inspected. 2.19 Can order the sealing of a negative pressure machine, ensure that the machine is installed correctly and can take action if this is not the case. 2.20 Can order a negative pressure machine to be switched on, see to it that the machine is switched on correctly and can take action if this is not the case. 2.21 Can achieve an effective air exchange and a desired negative pressure in a concrete situation by giving instructions to the DAV-1 and DAV-2. 2.22 can assess the operation of equipment and aids during use for functionality, safety and effectiveness. 2.23 Can explain the decontamination procedure, ensure it is carried out safely and can take action if not. 2.24 Can order the exchange of a pre- and intermediate filter of a negative pressure machine, see to it that these actions are carried out correctly and can take action if this is not the case. 2.25 Can fill in the logbook during the work in which all important events that have taken place are recorded. Attainment targets / Number of test terms % test terms Machine Translated by Google Final term 3. 2 25 Recognizing asbestos suspect materials Test terms 3.1 Can assess whether or not the materials are suspected of asbestos on the basis of a set of 10 materials in sample jars, an associated description and a photo. 3.2 Can indicate the bonding of the material in the gradations of bonded or non-bonded on the basis of material, photo and description of materials suspected of containing asbestos in sample jars. Total 8 100 Article 33. Re-examination DTA 1. A candidate may no later than six months after obtaining a satisfactory result retake the exam for either his practical exam or his theory exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam that is still qualified as insufficient. In the situation referred to in the first paragraph, the candidate can 2. take a re-examination. or after the If the expiry candidate of the term in the referred situation to referred in the first to paragraph, in the second both paragraph the theoretical does not andpass practical after exams a re-examination, will be taken. 4. There is no maximum attached to the number of combined practice to be taken and theory exams. Article 34. Attainment targets and DTA . procedure The DTA understands what the consequences are if it does not act in accordance with the attainment targets formulated in Articles 29 and 30 and can explain why its conduct is in accordance with them. Section 10. Transitional provisions Article 35. Transitional provisions regarding changes with effect from 1 January 2012 1. An expert asbestos remover (DAV) certified before or on October 1st 2013, as long as that certificate is valid, it is deemed to comply with the requirements set out in this appendix for the DAV-2 certificate holder. Machine Translated by Google 2. An expert asbestos removal supervisor (DTA) who was certified before or on 1 March 2013, as long as that certificate is valid, is deemed to comply with the requirements set in this appendix for the DTA certificate holder. Article 36. Transitional arrangements in connection with changes with effect from 1 March 2016 1. An expert asbestos removal supervisor as referred to in Article 4.27, part c, of the Working Conditions Regulation, who has a DTA certificate issued before 1 March 2016, is deemed to meet the requirements for the expert asbestos removal supervisor as laid down during the term of that certificate. in this appendix, on the understanding that the certificate may be suspended or revoked if the certificate holder does not comply with the regulations applicable to the use of the certificate. 2. An expert asbestos remover as referred to in Article 4.27, part d, of the Working Conditions Regulation, who has a DAV certificate issued before 1 March 2016, is deemed to meet the requirements for the expert asbestos remover level 2 as laid down during the term of that certificate. in this appendix, on the understanding that the certificate may be suspended or revoked if the certificate holder does not comply with the regulations applicable to the use of the certificate. Annex XIIId. belonging to Article 4.27 [Cancelled] Annex XIIIe. belonging to Article 4.28 Field-specific document for Designation and Supervision of the certification bodies for Asbestos removal companies (AVB) and Asbestos inventory companies (AIB) Document: SC-502 Content 1. Introduction 2. Definitions and Documents 2.1 Definitions 3. Field-specific characteristics Machine Translated by Google 3.1 Description document 3.2 Active parties 3.3 Risk analysis process certification 4. Requirements for the clue 4.1 Does not apply 4.2 Does not apply 4.3 Process Certification 4.3.1 Outsourcing 4.3.2 Certification procedure 4.3.3 Staff availability 4.3.4 Adjustment of the certification scheme 4.3.5 Application for certification 4.3.6 Evaluation 4.3.7 Supervision 4.3.8 Licenses, certificates, quality marks 4.4 Does not apply 4.5 Designation Criteria 4.5.1 Professional Integrity 4.5.2 Mandatory code of conduct 4.5.3 Market behavior CKI 4.5.4 Professional secrecy 4.5.5 CKI governing body 4.5.6 liability insurance 4.5.7 Notification procedure at suspicion of an immediate threat to safety 4.5.8 Information obligation to SZW upon termination of activities 4.5.9 Opinion, complaints- and objection procedure 4.5.10 Mandatory representation in CCVD 4.5.11 Revoke or suspend the obligation to report certificates 4.5.12 Sanctions measures policy Machine Translated by Google 4.5.13 Mandatory use of Dutch language 4.5.14 Independence 5. Supervision of the certification body 5.1 Provision of information 6. Measures 1 Introduction Asbestos inventory and asbestos removal are high-risk professional activities. In order to safeguard the social interest – safety and health in connection with work – the government has opted for legally required certification schemes for process certification of Asbestos Inventory and Asbestos Removal. The certificate is issued under these regulations by Certification Bodies (CKIs). In order to be allowed to issue certificates, a CKI must be designated for this purpose by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. This is done through an assessment against this WDA&T. This document indicates which rules and procedures the relevant CKIs must adhere to. 2. Definitions and Documents 2.1. Definitions Term or abbreviation: Meaning Applicant for a certificate: The applies (legal) to the person certification who body for the issue of a certificate. Note: Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. I-SZW: SZW Rating: Inspectorate Assessment (initial or re-) by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment Machine Translated by Google adopted WDA&T, under which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates to give. When adopting the WDA&T by the Minister of SZW is aligned as much as possible with international systems and standards. Category I, II, III or There are four levels at IV: which the following sanctions can be taken in the event of deviant behavior by the certificate-holding company: – Category I Unconditional withdrawal – Category II Suspend – Category III Conditional withdrawal with a period of 3 months – Category IV Warn These levels are further elaborated in the 5.5.2.2. (SC-530/SC-540). Assignment: Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. For the work field asbestos the Asbestos Certification Foundation (Ascert) functions. Central Board of the Board, Experts section (CCvD): from and/facilitated by Ascert, that interested parties Machine Translated by Google in the asbestos sector the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Certificate: A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act. In addition, a certificate shall be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant accreditation standards. Certificate holder: (right) Person in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification process: All activities via which one certification body assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations: Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification system: Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per Machine Translated by Google certification scheme, which leads to the issuance of a certificate of professional competence, including recertification. Certification and Calibration or Inspection Body Conformity Assessment (CKI): g bodies such as certification laboratories, bodies, user inspection bodies services, and test institutes. CH: Certificate holder. CKI person: CKI designated by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment on the basis of Annex XIIIf for the granting of personal certificates Expert asbestos remover level 1, Expert asbestos remover level 2 or Expert supervisor of asbestos removal based on Annex XIIIc . CKI process: CKI by the Minister designated by SZW on the basis of SC-502 for the granting of process certificates based on SC-530 and/or SC-540. Check: Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Risk analysis: Analysis from which motivation, for choices to be made in Machine Translated by Google field-specific problem area, appears to be included in the intended field-specific schedule for designation and supervision. RvA: Council for Accreditation. SC-502: Field-specific document for Designation and Supervision of the certification body and for Asbestos Removal Companies (AVB) and Asbestos Inventory Companies (AIB). Document number SC-502. SC-530: Field-specific certification scheme for the Asbestos Removal Process Certificate. Document number SC-530. SC-540: Field-specific certification scheme for the Asbestos Inventory Process Certificate. Document number SC-540. Supervision: Gathering information about whether an action or thing meets the requirements set for it, then forming an opinion about it and intervene if necessary. Field specific Term used by SZW certification scheme: for a certification scheme that by the minister of SZW is accepted, to be used within a specific instruction Machine Translated by Google as a certification body for persons, products or systems. World Cup Asbestos: Workroom Asbestos. Subjects of an asbestos-technical nature are discussed by the Workroom Asbestos prior to the meeting of the CCvD prepared and stuff may provide advice. Field specific Term used by SZW certification scheme for a (WSCS): certification scheme established by the Minister of SZW is accepted to be used within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. Field-specific Term used by SZW document for a document designation and supervision in which, on the one hand, the (WDA&T): standards have been established that CKIs must meet in order to be designated by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment and, on the other hand, the conditions within which designation takes place. 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. Description document Field-specific information This field-specific document for designation and supervision 'SC-502' has been proposed by Ascert and adopted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, see www.ascert.nl. Comments or comments about this document can be submitted to the CCvD Asbestos, info@ascert.nl. Machine Translated by Google 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this designation and supervision document, the following have been involved in the preparation: – Ascert – CCvD Asbestos – World Cup Asbestos 3.3. Risk analysis process certification Providing or maintaining a certificate on unjustified grounds is defined as the central event in the asbestos safety system for process certification. It is necessary to take measures to prevent the issue or maintenance of a certificate on unjustified grounds. These aim to eliminate the risks related to the failure of the CKI to function properly when the central event occurs. In addition to the measures, there are also so-called management factors. These management factors cannot in themselves prevent the wrong provision or maintenance of a certificate, but influence the quality of the measures. The management factors below, included in the relevant documents, cannot in themselves cause a central event, but influence the quality of the measures. Central event Emerging risks Measures Management factors the provision In SC-502 or failure to properly maintain CKI 502 NEN-EN expertise of the functioning of the CKI personnel 17065:2012 (SC-530 par. certificate on incorrect grounds 4.3.3 SC Independence CKI 4.3.3 Effective supervision of 4.3 .7 certificate holders 5 and SC-540 par. 5) Coordination of the 4.3.4 interpretations by CKIs with final decision- making in the CCvD. Correct decision 4.3.2 regarding assessment results Machine Translated by Google 4. Requirements for the designation 4.1. Does not apply 4.2. Does not apply 4.3. Process Certification The result of the removal process can be regarded as a 'product'. The assessment and designation of CKIs for the issue of a certificate takes place on the basis of NEN-EN ISO/IEC 17065:2012 and the requirements imposed on the CKI on the basis of designation (see 4.5). 4.3.1. Outsourcing NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17065:2012 par. 6.2.2 Additionally: a. Sub-sub-contracting is not allowed. b. The issuance of certificates and the preceding assessment and decision as well as the renewal of outstanding process certificates. c. The CKI may not outsource any work without obtaining Ascert to inform. d. The CKI provides Ascert with an accurate list of subcontractors at all times. 4.3.2. Certification procedure NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17065:2012 par. 7 Additionally: These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the field- specific scheme. This should include: – Handling application for initial certification; – Applying for a process certificate; – Limited duration admission assessment; – Multiple branches/branches; – Initial assessment; – Review of the documentation; – Assessment of the implementation; •. B.1 Assessment of the candidate's location(s) or the asbestos removal company; •. B.2 Assessment at project locations; – Application and permission for work at the project location; – Completion or abort of the initial assessment; – Time spent on initial assessment; Machine Translated by Google – Report; – Period of validity, validity conditions of the certificate; – Issuance, use and revocation of the certificate; – Handling complaints and any request for review thereof. 4.3.3. Staff availability NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17065:2012 par. 6.1.1.1 Additional: The CKI must have at least 2 permanent employees, each for at least 0.8 FTE (32 hours/ week) for all certification activities related to asbestos inventory and/or asbestos removal. NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17065:2012 section 6.1.2 Additional: The CKI must have a specific verification method for the verification of the competences (knowledge, skills, attitude) of the certification staff. This method must be used to demonstrate that the certification personnel are competent on the basis of the requirements below. General demands – Is able to express himself orally and in writing effectively in the Dutch language to push; – Possesses communication and interpersonal skills; – Can audit objectively and without prejudice; – Can act independently and independently; – Is able to act in a regulating and decisive manner during audits; – Is able to judge on the basis of facts and the assessment criteria, rather than on personal views and interpretations; – Is able to justify how he/she came to his/her judgment and can record this in writing; – Has solid knowledge of SC-530 and SC-540; – Evidence of 5 days of basic auditor training NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 19011:2011 or equivalent; – Diploma Asbestos Expert (SC-570: version 01, date 15-11-2011). Auditor's office – See general requirements; – At least 10 office audits at resp. conducted an asbestos survey or asbestos removal company under the supervision of a qualified office auditor. Project auditor for asbestos inventory – See general requirements; – Demonstrable work experience in carrying out and/or supervising 50 asbestos inventories; Machine Translated by Google – Demonstrated work experience with the assessment of at least 5 asbestos inventory reports for compliance with SC-540; – Have carried out a minimum of 5 project audits under the supervision of a qualified project auditor; in accordance with SC-540 par. 5. Project auditor for asbestos removal – See general requirements; – Demonstrable work experience in carrying out and/or supervising 50 asbestos removal works – Familiar with the requirements that an asbestos inventory report in accordance with SC 540 par. 7.17 must meet; – Have carried out a minimum of 5 project audits under the supervision of a qualified project auditor; according to SC-530 par. 5. Certificate decision maker – See general requirements; – The person who decides on the granting or revocation of the certificate must: not to be involved as a researcher in the relevant file and to be independent of those assessed; Transitional arrangement Those referred to in 4.3.3., who, when the SC-540 or SC 530 comes into effect, has carried out at least 50 assessments in the past three-year period as office auditor and/or project auditor or decision-maker with regard to the certification of asbestos survey companies respectively asbestos removal companies are deemed to meet the above qualifications. 4.3.4. Adjustment of the certification scheme NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17065:2012 par. 7.10.1 Additional: Change proposals can be submitted by the CKI to the CCvD, which will then submit proposals to the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment to adjust the certification scheme. 4.3.5. Application for certification NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17065:2012 par. 7.2 No additional requirements. 4.3.6. Evaluation/review NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17065:2012 par. 7.4 and 7.5 No additional requirements. Machine Translated by Google 4.3.7. Supervision NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17065:2012 par. 7.9 Additionally: 4.3.7.1. Consequence deviation for subsidiaries If, in a group situation with several independent companies, which are under a process certificate from the same CKI, the certificate of a company is (un)conditionally withdrawn or suspended, the CKI will immediately subject all other certified companies to a check on those subjects for which there is a deviation. which led to the sanction. 4.3.7.2. Closure of Category III deviation within three months After the discovery of a Cat III deviation, the certificate holder must have introduced an internal corrective measure within 2 months, after which the CKI must have definitively assessed this measure within one month. 4.3.7.3. In particular, it is important that the CKI – performs the auditing activities regarding the provisions in SC-530 par. 7.2 and SC 540 par. 7.1.2 regarding potential conflicts of interest. – checks whether, in accordance with section 4.3.2 of SC-530 and/or SC-540, information is provided by the former CKI of an ex-certificate holder to the CKI where the former certificate holder has registered as a candidate. 4.3.8. Licenses, certificates, quality marks NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17065:2012 par. 4.1.3 4.4. Does not apply 4.5. Designation Criteria In the context of its designation on the basis of Articles 1.5a to 1.5d Working Conditions Decree, the CKI is assessed against the following criteria: 4.5.1. Professional Integrity The designated CKI and the employees charged with the inspections or assessments carry out these with the greatest degree of professional integrity, laid down in a code of conduct. 4.5.2. Mandatory code of conduct Machine Translated by Google There is an integrity policy, which has been worked out in clear regulations. The staff has demonstrably complied with the code of conduct by means of a signed and dated declaration. 4.5.3. Market behavior CKI The designated CKI acts with integrity and does not act in the market outside its powers. 4.5.4. Professional secrecy The personnel of the designated CKI is demonstrably bound by professional secrecy by means of a signed and dated declaration with regard to all that has come to their knowledge in the performance of their duties within the framework of the decision, except vis-à-vis the competent government authorities. 4.5.5. Cki governing body The designated CKI is an administrative body within the meaning of the General Administrative Law Act and must comply with administrative legislation such as the General Administrative Law Act, the Government Information (Public Access) Act and the Public Records Act 1995. 4.5.6. Wa insurance The designated CKI must have adequate third-party liability insurance. 4.5.7. Reporting procedure if there is a suspicion of an immediate threat to safety The designated CKI must have a procedure in which it is arranged that in the event of a suspicion of an immediate threat to safety, this is immediately reported by the employee concerned. It also states that the institution will inform the interested parties as soon as possible, including, if applicable, the relevant government agency. 4.5.8. Information obligation to SZW upon termination of activities Upon termination of the activities by the designated CKI, he must immediately inform the Minister of SZW. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines what the (previously) appointed CKI should do with the files. The (previously) appointed CKI must cooperate with this. This does not indemnify the (previously) appointed CKI from any liability for errors in inspections or assessments it has carried out. 4.5.9. Opinion, complaints and objection procedure The designated CKI must have the following procedures in writing: an opinion procedure (section 4.1.2 Awb), an objection procedure (chapters 6 and 7 Awb) and a complaints procedure (chapter 9 Awb). Machine Translated by Google 4.5.10. Mandatory representation in CCVD The designated CKI must be demonstrably represented in the national consultations of the institutions, organized by the CCvD. The CKIs participate in the consultation with the CCvD. The CKIs must be able to demonstrate that they implement the agreements made in consultation with the CCvD. 4.5.11. Revoke or suspend the obligation to report certificates The CKI will immediately inform the certificate holder of its decision regarding the withdrawal or suspension of the process certificate by registered letter and will publish its decision. The CKI will immediately inform Ascert about the decision taken, after which Ascert will make this decision public in the Ascert Register (see SC-530/SC-540 par. 9.3). 4.5.12. Sanctions and measures policy With regard to the sanctions/measures to be imposed, the CKI adheres to the established sanctions and measures policy. In the event of manifest unreasonableness, the CKI has the authority to deviate from this on the basis of the Awb. Deviation only takes place on the basis of arguments to be put forward by the certificate holder. The substantiation for the deviation is included in the decision on the sanction imposed. Deviations are registered by the CKI. 4.5.13. Mandatory Dutch language use Language of the reports and files: – The CKI only uses the Dutch language. Language in reviews: During assessments, communication is exclusively in the Dutch language; help from translators and interpreters is not allowed. 4.5.14. Independence a) Combined shareholding in a process certification body and an asbestos removal company and/or an asbestos inventory agency is not permitted; b) The combined performance of a board position at a process certification body and an asbestos removal company and/or an asbestos inventory bureau is not permitted. In order to verify a) and b), the entire group/holding structure, management relationships, ownership relationships, personnel content of the management structure, purpose and nature of the company and its services must be documented fully, up-to-date and in writing and accompanied by a signed statement and signed by all directors of the company (in accordance with Chamber of Commerce). Machine Translated by Google 5. Supervision of the certification body In connection with the obligations in the context of supervision, Articles 1.5b and 1.5c of the Working Conditions Decree and Article 1.1a of the Working Conditions Regulations apply. The CKIs must submit to the supervision carried out by I-SZW and RvA. The RvA conducts shadow research on files of certificate holders, checks the CKI and attends assessments at the office location and project location and has a specific assessment protocol (SBP) for this. 5.1. Provision of information For the purpose of collecting information, the CKI must: a) Annual information obligation to SZW report to the Minister of SZW in writing before 1 March each year about the legitimacy and effectiveness of the performance in each field of activity for which the institution has been designated by the Minister of SZW (written accountability is sent to the I-SZW). In this written report at least the topics are discussed: 1. The certificates issued and withdrawn by the institution; 2. Changes in the accreditations, regulations and procedures related to the professional field of the institution; 3. Changes in the composition of the board; 4. Amendments to the statutes or bylaws; 5. Work outsourced to third parties; 6. Structural bottlenecks in the work field of the institution that have arisen in the implementation practice; 7. The consultation and cooperation in the field with other certification bodies; 8. Complaints received by the institution and the manner of handling of them; Objections lodged against the decisions of the institution and 9. cases brought and the manner in which they are handled; 10. A financial report on the activities for which the setting is recommended. 11. The number of times per calendar year that the sanctions and measures policy, mentioned in point 4.5.12. b) Compulsory cooperation in (periodic) inspections by RvA This means that the RvA has information from the CKI about its certificate issuance The CKI must cooperate with checks in accordance with SC-502 and the current specific assessment protocol (SBP) by the RvA. c) Information obligation to SZW and RvA In the context of a) and b), the information about the functioning is provided. d) Information obligation to SZW and Ascert Immediately provide information to SZW and Ascert about certificate holders who have been subject to a sanction. The information, which is immediately provided to Ascert, must be Machine Translated by Google contain the name and Ascert code of the certificate holder and the date of revocation with a view to mentioning this in the certificate register of Ascert on its website. e) Information obligation of CKI to I-SZW The CKI provides I-SZW with information as stated under a). f) Information obligation to SZW To demonstrate to SZW that the CKI adequately checks whether certificate holders continue to meet the certification requirements. In any case, frequencies, nature and extent (duration) of the checks are displayed. In particular, it concerns that the CKI: – In accordance with SC-530/SC-540 par. 5.2, per certificate holder also specifically indicates the deviations Cat II and III with date of effect and date of cancellation; – Information to be provided to CKI person in the context of the information exchange CKI process-CKI person. g) Intention to terminate tasks to inform SZW and Ascert as soon as it intends to terminate one or more of its tasks. It must also indicate to which eligible CKIs the certificate holders wish to transfer. h) Request additional accreditation To inform SZW as soon as it submits an application for additional accreditation or assessment based on a legal specific scheme. 6. Measures If the designated institution no longer meets the requirements in this scheme, this may have consequences for the designation. See policy measure measures policy certification Working Conditions Act and Commodities Act, Stcrt. 2010, no. 10839 of July 14, 2010. Annex XIIIf. belonging to article 4.28 Field-specific document for Designation and Supervision of the certification bodies for Expert Asbestos Removal Supervisor (DTA) and Expert Asbestos Remover level 1 and level 2 (DAV-1 and DAV-2) Article 1. Definitions and abbreviations In this appendix, the following definitions apply: Management foundation: Ascert Foundation, being the management foundation, referred to in Article 1.5a(1)(f) of the Decree; DAV: expert asbestos remover; DAV-1: person in possession of a personal certificate for expert asbestos remover level 1 in accordance with Annex XIIIc; DAV-2: person who is in possession of a personal certificate for expert asbestos remover level 2 in accordance with Annex XIIIc; DTA: person in possession of a personal certificate for an expert asbestos removal supervisor in accordance with Annex XIIIc; Machine Translated by Google NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024: general requirements for institutions that certify persons, published by the Netherlands Standardization Institute, as they read in 2012. Article 2. Assessment and designation The assessment and designation of certification bodies takes place on the basis of the standards set out in NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024 and the criteria referred to in Article 3, which are imposed on the certification body on the basis of the designation. Article 3. Criteria for designation 1. An institution that submits an application, as referred to in Article 1.5b of the Decree, has done in order to be designated as a certification body, will be assessed on the basis of the criteria referred to in Article 1.5a of the Decree. 2. This assessment takes into account the following aspects: a. the certification body to be designated and its employees who are charged with work in the context of issuing certificates perform these with the greatest degree of professional integrity; b. the certifying institution has an integrity policy, which has, where necessary, been elaborated in clear regulations in a code of conduct, and directors and employees sign an integrity statement and act in accordance with that integrity policy; c. the certifying body acts with integrity and acts within its authorizations; d. the certification body to be designated has set out the following procedures in writing: an opinion procedure in accordance with section 4.1.2 of the 1°. General Administrative Law Act; 2°. an objection procedure in accordance with chapters 6 and 7 of the General Administrative Law Act, and 3°. a complaints procedure in accordance with Title 9.1 of the General Administrative Law Act. Article 4. Additional requirements for a certification body 1. A certifying body participates in the harmonization consultation organized by the Central Committee of Experts. 2. A certification body implements the agreements established and announced during the consultation referred to in the first paragraph regarding the harmonized implementation of the certification requirements. 3. The certifying bodies report denial, suspension or revocation of certificates to the other certification bodies that are active in the same field. 4. Deviations are registered by the certifying body. 5. A certification body outsources the issuance of certificates and the prior assessment and decision on the initial certification and recertification to third parties. Machine Translated by Google Article 5. Agreement between certification body and management foundation 1. A certifying institution concludes an agreement with the management foundation in accordance with Article 1.5a, first paragraph, part f, of the Decree. 2. The agreement referred to in the first paragraph stipulates that the certifying institution will join the Central Committee of Experts set up by the management foundation and the Central Examination Committee that falls under it. 3. If there are several certification bodies, these institutions can agree that they jointly appoint a representative to represent the relevant certification bodies at the Central Committee of Experts. 4. If there is a difference of opinion between a certification body and a certificate holder about the interpretation of Annex XIIIc or the present annex, the certification institution will submit this to the Central Committee of Experts. 5. The agreement referred to in the first paragraph also provides that: a. for the examination that is taken by the applicant for a certificate, the management foundation manages an item bank in which examination packages generated by the management foundation are included; b. the management foundation and the certifying institution do not provide information to third parties about the contents of the item bank, referred to in part a; c. notwithstanding part b, the management foundation grants the Accreditation Council Foundation access to the item bank referred to in part a, if in the opinion of the Accreditation Council Foundation this is necessary for the assessment and interim checks of the certifying institution; d. the management foundation ensures that shortcomings in the item bank that may become apparent during the assessments and checks referred to in subsection c are resolved as soon as possible so that this does not stand in the way of a positive assessment of the certification body by the Accreditation Council Foundation . 6. The agreement referred to in the first paragraph may contain requirements regarding the procedures, as referred to in Article 3, second paragraph, under d, of this annex. 7. The agreement referred to in the first paragraph also provides that the the certification body informs the management foundation as soon as it intends to terminate one or more of its tasks. Article 6. Requirements for the certification staff 1. For the verification of the competences, the certifying institution has regarding knowledge, skills and attitude of the certification staff about a specific verification method. 2. The certification body only deploys competent personnel. 3. A certifying body has the following experts: a. a theoretical knowledge exam supervisor who ensures compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations and the implementation regulations contained therein for conducting the theoretical knowledge exam; b. a DAV practical exam examiner, respectively DTA, who is charged with determining whether and to what extent the knowledge, skills and attitude of the candidate meet the requirements for the practical exam and who monitors compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations, the implementation regulations and the exam requirements for the practical exam; Machine Translated by Google c. an assessor of theory exam and practical exam who within the term set by the certification body assesses the results of theoretical and practical exams on the basis of the assessment method as laid down in Appendix XIIIc; and d. a certificate decision-maker who has the authority to make certification decisions. 4. The experts referred to in the third paragraph shall meet the following general requirements: a. they are able to communicate effectively in word and writing Dutch language to express; b. they can act independently and autonomously; c. they have sufficient communication and interpersonal skills for the performance of their duties; and d. they have signed a declaration of integrity as referred to in Article 7, paragraph 3, in connection with confidentiality, independence of the candidate and trainer and the secrecy of the examinations. 5. With regard to a supervisor theory exam, it also applies that he: a. can examine objectively and without prejudice; b. is able to act decisively and decisively during an exam steps; c. based on an agreement with the certification body is working. 6. With regard to an examiner practical exam DAV and DTA also applies: that in addition to the requirements referred to in the fourth paragraph: a. meets all requirements set for the supervisor theory exam; b. is able to judge on the basis of facts and the assessment criteria; c. is able to justify how he has arrived at his opinion and can record this in writing; d. has thorough knowledge of the certification scheme as included as Annex XIIIc to the Regulation; e. demonstrable at least two years of relevant work experience in the Discipline; and f. has a valid DTA certificate or the Asbestos expert diploma from the management foundation. 7. With regard to the assessor of the theoretical and practical examinations, it also applies that, in addition to the requirements referred to in the fourth paragraph: a. has up-to-date professional knowledge of and insight into the activities of the DAV and DTA; b. thorough knowledge has included it in Annex XIIIc to the Regulation certification scheme; c. can assess the exam results and the exam process; d. is not involved in the direct administration of theory exams and practical exams; and e. has an employment contract for an indefinite period with the certifying institution. 8. With regard to the certificate decision-maker, it also applies that, in addition to the fourth paragraph requirements: Machine Translated by Google a. has thorough knowledge of the examination regulations; b. has thorough knowledge of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024; c. is not involved in the direct administration and assessment of the results of the theoretical and practical exams; and d. has an employment contract for an indefinite period with the certifying institution. 9. The certification body keeps a register of the certification staff and their commitment to the exams. 10. The certifying body has personal files of the certification staff, which include at least: a. a resume; b. an integrity statement as referred to in Article 7, paragraph 3; and c. assessment forms and other relevant, personal documents. Article 7. Impartiality and independence of the certification body 1. The certification body and its certification staff act and act impartially and independently and have no interest in the result of an exam or the granting of a certificate. 2. The certification staff do not perform any paid or unpaid work or other activities of any kind, in whatever capacity, on behalf of the training institute of the applicant or on behalf of a company affiliated with that training institute. 3. Each member of the certification staff signs an integrity statement in which the person concerned declares that he will act and act independently and that he will observe the necessary secrecy in connection with the examinations. 4. Given the required independence of the certification body, a shareholder in a certifying institution cannot simultaneously be a shareholder in: a. an asbestos removal company; or b. a training institution that trains for the certificate DAV-1, DAV-2 or DTA. 5. Given the required independence of the certification body, a driver at a certifying institution cannot be a driver at an asbestos removal company at the same time. 6. The certifying institution describes its legal structure, the administrative relationships, the ownership relationships, the personnel content of the management, the purpose and nature of the company and of its services. 7. The description referred to in the sixth paragraph is used by all directors signed. Article 8. Administration in Dutch language The certifying institution only uses the Dutch language in its administration. Article 9. Annual report of the certification body Machine Translated by Google Pursuant to Article 1.5e(1) of the Decree, the certifying institution prepares an annual report that provides information on the subjects referred to in Article 1.1a of the Regulation. Article 10. Provision of information by the certifying institution to the minister upon termination 1. A certification body that carries out its activities as a certification body wholly or partly terminates or intends to terminate, the Minister will inform the Minister of this as soon as possible and then follow the instructions of the Minister with regard to the transfer of files. 2. A certifying institution informs the minister as soon as it submits an application submits for additional accreditation or assessment based on another field-specific certification scheme within the framework of the law. Article 11. Provision of information by the certification body to the RvA Inspectorate SZW and certificate holders 1. In accordance with Article 1.5e, second paragraph, the certifying institution provides of the decision, if requested, provide the Stichting Raad voor Accreditatie with information about, among other things, the way in which the certifying institution deals with: a. the handling of complaints; b. the handling of observed deviations; c. the issuance of certificates and assessment in response to complaints and reports; and d. carrying out checks on certificate holders in terms of frequency, nature and duration. 2. In accordance with Article 1.5e, paragraph 3, the certifying institution provides of the decision, if so requested, to the Inspectorate SZW about, among other things, the subjects referred to in the first paragraph. 3. The certifying institution informs the SZW Inspectorate, the Foundation Council for Accreditation and its certificate holders as well as those who have submitted an application for certification when it intends to terminate one or more of its tasks for which it has been designated. 4. The certifying body informs the SZW Inspectorate and the management foundation over individual depositary receipt holders on whom a sanction has been imposed. Annex XIIIg. belonging to Article 4.29 Working Conditions Regulation Protocol Information exchange ASBESTOS removal Inspectorate SZW – Certifying Settings the undersigned, 1. Inspectorate SZW, represented by JA van den Bos, Inspector General, hereinafter referred to as: 'SZW Inspectorate', and 2. The designated Certification Body: a. Bureau Veritas Inspections and Certification The Netherlands BV represented by: Mr. CJG Laarhuis, director; Machine Translated by Google b. Eerland Certification BV, represented by: ing. E. Eerland, director; c. Kiwa NV represented by: Mr B. Meekma, director; SGS Intron BV represented by: Mr. WHM van Loon, d. general manager e. SGS Nederland BV represented by: Mr AG Siraa, director f. TÜV Nederland QA BV represented by: Mr AC Boon, director hereinafter referred to as: 'Certifying Institution' Taking into account that: 1. Article 29a of the Working Conditions Act and Article 1.5e of the The Working Conditions Decree stipulate that the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, in this case the Inspectorate SZW, and the designated Certifying Institutions, referred to in Article 20 of the aforementioned Act, (can) mutually inform each other about situations encountered during checks or inspections where safety or health of employees is or can be endangered by the way in which work is performed; 2. The purpose of the information exchange is to: a. to provide the Certifying Institutions with information that enables them to impose the correct sanction on certificate holders in appropriate situations; b. the Inspectorate SZW and other supervisory authorities with which the Inspectorate SZW shares the information, to provide information that enables them to carry out targeted inspections at eligible companies; 3. It is necessary to maintain existing agreements on information exchange – detailed in Appendix F of the SC 530 certification scheme – to renew and to record the new agreements in a protocol to be included as an appendix to the Working Conditions Regulation; 4. The agreements in this protocol serve to replace the agreements in Appendix F of SC 530. Agree to the following: A number of capitalized terms are used in this Protocol. These terms have the meaning given to them in the following article 1 Article 1: definitions 1. Protocol: this protocol 2. Inspector: inspector of the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate Inspection: visit by an inspector of the SZW Inspectorate to a location 3. or workplace 4. Auditor: auditor of the Certifying Body 5. Audit: visit by an auditor from a Certifying Body to a site or workplace 6. Certificate holder: a company or person in possession of a certificate 7. Working Conditions Decree: the Working Conditions Decree Machine Translated by Google Article 2: designating contact persons The SZW Inspectorate and the Certifying Institution designate contact persons for the implementation of the Protocol and inform each other accordingly; Article 3: notification by the Certifying Body to the Inspectorate SZW of deviations that lead to (a major risk of) asbestos emission (Annex A of this protocol) 1. When an Auditor of a Certification Body during an Audit of a Certificate Holder observes one or more deviations mentioned in Appendix A of this protocol, the contact person of the Certifying Body will immediately report this by telephone to the contact person of the Inspectorate SZW referred to in Article 2, or if this person cannot be reached, with the second contact person of the Inspectorate SZW; 2. The notification pursuant to paragraph 1 is made by the contact person of the Certifying Institution confirmed within five working days by e-mail by sending the following information to the PO box set up by the Inspectorate SZW in the context of this protocol: i. Name, telephone number and e-mail of the contact person of the Certifying Institution and organization (part) for which it is employed; ii. Name, registration number of the certificate holder to whom the notification relates; iii. Date, time and place of the observation; Description of the situation to which the notification relates, iv. including reference to the relevant derogation in Annex A. 3. If the Inspectorate SZW so requests, the Certifying Body will provide (additional) relevant written documents, such as a copy of correspondence with the relevant Certificate Holder to the Certifying Body, unless there are legal obstacles to submitting the documents. Article 4: notification by the Certifying Body to the SZW Inspectorate of other category II deviations (Annex B to this protocol) 1. If an Auditor encounters a situation mentioned in Appendix B during an inspection at a Certificate Holder, the contact person of the Certifying Institution will report this to the contact person of the Inspectorate SZW; 2. The notification is made by sending the following information to: to send the post box set up by the Inspectorate SZW in the context of this protocol: i. Name, telephone number and e-mail of the contact person of the Certifying Institution and organization (part) for which it is employed; ii. Name, registration number of the certificate holder to whom the notification relates; iii. Date, time and place of the observation; iv. Description of the situation to which the notification relates, including reference to the relevant deviation in Annex B. 3. If the Inspectorate SZW so requests, the Certifying Body will provide (additional) relevant written documents such as, for example, a copy of Machine Translated by Google correspondence with the relevant Certificate Holder to the Certifying Body, unless there are legal impediments to submitting the documents. Article 5: notification by the Certifying Body to the SZW Inspectorate of category III and IV Deviations (Appendix H of SC 530) 1. Deviations category III and IV are reported every quarter within three weeks after reported at the end of the quarter (reference dates 1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October); 2. This notification must be made in writing, with e-mail as a form of written notification is considered. Notifications are bundled in the form of a file delivered in Excel or Access; 3. The file is sent by the contact person of the Certifying Body sent to the mailbox set up by the Inspectorate SZW in the context of this protocol. The file contains the following information: i. Name, telephone number and e-mail of the contact person of the Certifying Institution and organization (part) for which it is employed; ii. Name, registration number of the certificate holder to whom the notification relates; iii. Date, time and place of the observation; iv. Description of the situation to which the notification relates, including reference to the relevant deviation from Appendix H of SC 530; 4. If, for logistical reasons, the Certifying Body also decides to include the deviations referred to under Articles 3 and 4 in the file again, then it must be clearly visible in the file which data is involved; 5. If the Inspectorate SZW so requests, the Certifying Body will provide (additional) relevant written documents, such as a copy of correspondence with the relevant Certificate Holder to the Certifying Body, unless there are legal obstacles to submitting the documents. Article 6: notification by the Inspectorate SZW to the Certifying Body of violations that lead to (a major risk of) asbestos emission (Annex A of this protocol) 1. When an Inspector of the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate during an Inspection one or encounters several of the situations listed in Appendix A, the contact person of the Inspectorate SZW will immediately report this by telephone to the contact person of the Certification body referred to in Article 2; 2. The notification pursuant to paragraph 1 is confirmed in writing by the contact person of the Inspectorate SZW by sending a copy of the enforcement correspondence sent to the employer by email to the Certifying Institution. The email is addressed to the contact person of the Certifying Body; 3. The Certifying Body will notify within three weeks (after completion of a any procedure opinion) how the report was handled and what action was taken towards the relevant Certificate Holder. The Certifying Institution does this by returning the email referred to under 2 via the mailbox set up by the Inspectorate SZW in the context of this protocol, stating the follow-up steps taken. Article 7: notification by the Inspectorate SZW to the Certifying Body of other violations Machine Translated by Google 1. If an Inspector discovers other violations of the Working Conditions Act during an Inspection of a location or workplace, not being a violation mentioned in Appendix A of this protocol, the contact person of the Inspectorate SZW report this to the contact person of the relevant Certifying Institution; 2. The notification is made by the enforcement correspondence that is sent to the employer will be sent a copy by email to the Certifying Body. The email is addressed to the contact person of the Certifying Institution. Article 8: privacy aspects Anyone who receives company or personal data or other confidential information within the framework of this Protocol is obliged to observe secrecy. Information disclosed to another Party under this Protocol may be used only for the purpose specified in this Protocol. The Inspectorate SZW does retain the option of sharing its enforcement information with other supervisory authorities. Article 9: costs The Parties will not charge each other any costs for making reports and/or for processing those reports and/or for other activities arising from this Protocol. Article 10: Amendments to and Cancellation of the Protocol Amendments to and denunciations of the Protocol require the written consent of all Parties to the Protocol. Article 11: evaluation 1. Twice a year there is a consultation between the Inspectorate SZW and the Certifying Bodies on practical matters concerning the application of the Protocol; 2. An evaluation meeting is held annually at which the parties evaluate the results of the Protocol and see whether agreements made are being complied with. If desired, the Protocol and/or the annexes associated with the Protocol will be amended. Article 12: validity This Protocol shall enter into force on the day following its signature. This Protocol has been agreed and signed On behalf of the Inspectorate SZW in The Hague on the date: 2 May 2012 On behalf of the Certification Body on the date: May 31, 2012 Machine Translated by Google Appendix A. Deviations mentioned in Appendix H of SC 530 that must be reported immediately by telephone to the Inspectorate SZW No Business location SZW Inspectorate Fineable offense The 1 company of the 4.54d certificate holder performs asbestos removal work or work related to asbestos removal while her certificate is suspended. No Certifying Body Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate Project location finable offense 1 When removing 4.48a asbestos, not all measures are taken that belong to the legally prescribed risk class. 17 There are additional 4.47a, paragraph 1 or 4.54a materials/products/contaminants containing/suspicious of asbestos were found in previously unknown locations, without appropriate measures being taken. 26 A complete B40500401 ( 4.20, paragraph 4 decontamination unit) is not present and/or it is not set up ready for use after the asbestos removal/remediation has started. Machine Translated by Google 31 No suitable B4048a201 ( 4.48a, lid respiratory protection 2) applied. 1. The company does not have the resources or they are not present in the workplace. 2. The resources are available in the workplace (but are not used). 32 No 4.48a, paragraph 2 suitable protective work clothing and PPE are used. The company does not have the resources or they are not present in the workplace. The resources are available at the workplace (but are not used). 35 No B40450201 ( 4.45, paragraph 2 source- oriented and 4.54d) emission-limiting are applied whenmeasures working in containment or shielded workspace conditions. No source- oriented emission-limiting measures are applied when working in open air conditions or with the glove-bag method. 36 Even in the case of removal work in the open air, there are no sufficiently effective final cleaning of all relevant locations / surfaces. Machine Translated by Google 38 It B40450204 ( 4.45, paragraph 2 asbestos waste/asbestos contamination) any waste that is the containment, the shielded workspace, or the glove-bag location, or in open air conditions outside the cordoned off and marked direct disposal location, is not completely unprotected or the packaging is not fiber-tight. It is non-bonded asbestos. 45 After the final assessment B40500301 ( 4.51a ) and release by the final assessment body and the last final visual inspection by the removal company before delivery, the remediation site that is to be considered safe is not visually free from residues from the asbestos removal work that can be regarded as containing/contaminated asbestos. It is non-bonded asbestos. 46 No effective B4048a101 ( 4.48a, paragraph closed containment 1) has been established. 47 There is no guarantee, B4048a101 ( 4.48a, 1) paragraph) that no asbestos fiber emission/ contamination to the environment outside the containment can take place. 53 Bee B4048a201 Machine Translated by Google asbestos removal work under risk class 3 conditions, no ambient air independent respiratory protection is used, or respiratory protection with an adequate increased protection factor. The company does not have these resources or they are not present in the workplace. The resources are available in the workplace but are not used. 61 GAM(s) are used 4.48a, paragraph that have been damaged to such an ,2, 8.1 and extent that 8.3 can adversely affect safe operation. 62 GAM(s) are used 4.48a, paragraph2 , 4.51, 3e that are not clean member (internally and externally) with regard to dust, dirt, residual fractions, fungi, etc. The pollution is harmful to health. Appendix B. Category II violations identified during a project site, not being violations listed in Appendix A Certifying Body Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate finable offense 8 The working methods described in the work plan 4.50 are not in accordance with the Machine Translated by Google the risk class and the method of shielding as prescribed in the SMA-rt. 12 No DTA with a B4054d501 ( 4.54d, member valid 5 ) person certificate according asbestostoremoval SC-510site. is present at the 12a Not all places ( 4.54d, paragraph 5 ) where asbestos is removed is supervised by a DTA. 13 The B4054d701 ( 4.54d, member asbestos removal officer 7 ) worker(s) on site are not DAV(s) with a valid personal certificate according to SC-520. 14 The B4054d701 (4.54d, lid asbestos removal work 7 ) has more than two apprentice DAVs per mentor DTA. 15 The work site is not 4.48a, paragraph 2c) demarcated/shielded in accordance with SC-530. 27 The decontamination unit 4.20, paragraph 4 is, if technically possible, not directly linked to the work area. 29 The B40500401 ( 4.20, paragraph 4 decontamination procedure) or the transit procedure is not carried out correctly, with risk class 3 work with risk class 2 activities. 30 It with asbestos 4.20, paragraph 4 polluted waste water is not Machine Translated by Google collected and discharged (stepwise) through a wastewater filter with a final filter with a pore diameter of 5 micrometers. 33 Before the start of the B4048a101 ( 4.48a, paragraph asbestos removal 1) the non-contaminated inventory/ in-estate has not been removed from / from the work location. Before the asbestos removal commences, the non-contaminated inventory/equipment has not been taped/screened off in a fiber-tight manner. 34 If such (demolition) activities take place in the immediate vicinity of 4.48a, 4.51a, paragraph such that 4 and the result of the asbestos removal work and/ or the final assessment is disadvantaged and no effective measures are taken during the asbestos removal and/or the final assessment. measures have been taken. 37 The glove-bag work B4048a101 ( 4.48a, paragraph is not performed 1) correctly. 39 It 4.45, paragraph 2 asbestos waste/ asbestos-contaminated waste that is outside the containment, the shielded work area, or the glove-bag location, or in open air conditions Machine Translated by Google is present outside the demarcated and marked, direct removal location, is not according to the requirements at least double one air-tight and fibre-tight in sound, impact- and tear- resistant packaging (0.2 mm thick or hi-tec PE foil) for removal from the workplace. It concerns non- bonded asbestos. 40 Tools, machines, 4.45, paragraph 2 climbing equipment, equipment, etc., which have come into contact with asbestos dust, have not been cleaned effectively, or have not been cleaned at least twice in accordance with the requirements. and air-tight and fiber-tight in a sound, punch and tear-resistant packaging (0.2 mm thick or hi-tec PE film) packed for transport and storage outside the workplace. 41 The shut-off valve(s) of 4.45, paragraph 2 of the negative pressure ventilation machine(s) (ODMs) is (are) not leak-tight. 42 The packaging of 4.45, paragraph 2 asbestos waste and/or asbestos- contaminated parts, equipment, etc. is not Machine Translated by Google externally marked with the prescribed asbestos warning stickers (Asbestos Products Decree 2005). 48 4.48a, paragraph 2, the containment is not permanently kept at a negative pressure of at least 20 Pascal (Pa), if substantially lower than 20 Pa and the containment is vented less than 6 times per hour. 55 The lock out and B40500401 ( 4.45, paragraph 2 disposal procedure for ) the asbestos waste (and the packaged equipment to be regarded as asbestos- contaminated) has not been carried out correctly for risk class 3 activities, for risk class 2 activities. 56 If separating the 4.45, paragraph 2 asbestos waste packaging is not possible, the packaging must be airtight and fibre-tight packed/taped and stored separately from the floor in the containment/shielded workspace. at risk class 2 B4048a201 B80030101 ( 58 work: The 4.48d, paragraph 2 ) + 8.3 filters for the ABM Artbowet are not resistant to asbestos dust and the any additional harmful substances and/or do not meet the requirements Machine Translated by Google Specifications. 63 The filter(s) 4.51, paragraph 3 of the GAM(s) used are not correctly marked or have been capped airtight. 65 The decontamination unit 4.48a is damaged, preventing safe operation. 70 The used machine(s) Working Conditions Decree chapter 7 are damaged to such an extent that they cannot be operated safely. Annex XIV. belonging to Article 4.32a, third paragraph, part a List of explanatory terms for decision diagram Stressful situation in Loads that cause a significant increase in corrosion phase and/or duringthat the place use higher demands on the performance of the paint system after it has been applied Protective measure Measures to health protection Particularly stressful situations in the user phase conditions that simultaneously an increasedcause risk of corrosion due to, for example, simultaneous mechanical and chemical stress C1–C5 Corrosion rates linked to loads with examples: Machine Translated by Google C1 Heated buildings with a clean atmosphere eg offices, shops, schools, hotels, homes. C2 Unheated buildings where condensation can occur eg depots, sports halls. C3 Production halls with high humidity and some air pollution eg Food processing factories, laundries, breweries dairy industry C4 Production halls or buildings with permanent load or high condensation e.g. chemical plants, swimming pools C5 Buildings with almost permanent condensation or high pollution dew point The temperature below which the moisture in the air will condense on the surface Derivatives Mineral oil derivatives or combinations of products containing mineral oils The relationship A space in which the between humidity and temperature in dry space is such that it is possible to speak of a normal, accepted living environment, in which residence conditions are for a longer period of time. Machine Translated by Google accepted Any air pollution A pollution which is incidental or permanent is characterized by a chemical pollution that can influence the quality of the protective paint system High air pollution A pollution that is almost permanently present which, given the chemical substances present, influences the paint system and has a direct negative influence, in a corrosive sense, on a metal substrate NEN 12944 (NPR 7452) Standard dealing with the protection of metals by means of paint systems. In this standard The designations C1 to C5 represent corrosion load categories. Replacement and control measures are now also linked to this category division. Immersion for longer Direct exposure than 5 minutes per 24 to a liquid, which takes place for hour more than 5 minutes and whose composition causes direct deformation of the protective paint system, or because the liquid penetrates the paint system and causes corrosion Machine Translated by Google caused by the underlying metal substrate Clean atmosphere is An atmosphere which characterized by very little or no pollution and which is seen as a normal situation under normal living conditions FOX Volatile organic matter. According to the Working Conditions Decree, article 4.62a is understood to mean: organic compounds and mixtures thereof, which have a vapor pressure of at least 0.01 kPa at 293.15 K (20°C), or a corresponding volatility under the specific conditions of use. Exposure to VOCs can be harmful to health. VOCs should be replaced as much as possible. In cases where replacement is impossible, protective measures must be taken. Annex XV. belonging to Article 4.32f, second paragraph, under a and fourth paragraph Maximum amount of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) allowed in products when repairing paint damage or renewing paint layers on parts of motor vehicles Groups VOC 1 The VOC content Machine Translated by Google has been determined in accordance with the ASTM – D . method 3960-96 for ready-to-use mixtures. in the ready-to-use mixture 850 gr/litre Spray cleaners Surface cleaners 200 gr/ Washprimers Primer surfacer, litre 780540 gr/litre gr/ litre 1 or 2 component 540 gr/litre Sealer system 420 gr/litre and1-layer chassistopcoat coating 2- layer topcoat systemThe 420consisting gr/litre 2 of: average is determined by using the in the formula (a. L1 VOC+ b.L2)/ content( aper + b)layer This average is equal to or less than 420 grams/litre ready-to-spray product. Here L1 is the VOC content of the base color layer and L2 is the VOC content of the clear coat, where a and b stand for the amount produced in grams of resp. L1 and L2. The quantities relate to ready-to-spray products and none of the layers may contain more VOC than 480 gr/litre. base coat and clear lacquer Special products 3 840 gr/litre Special products are intended for special treatments (such as, for example, motorcycle colors and Machine Translated by Google special design colors for which inks are used that cannot be made with a normal basecoat) and special applications (e.g. difficult-to-adhere substrates). This group of products also includes additives that can be added to existing products to achieve special effects such as roughness, matting, etc. This means that products to which these specific additives have been added can exceed the maximum VOC content/ litre of that product. Special cleaners (silicone, paint removal) have been added because they do not come under the specified spray cleaners and surface cleaners. The special products group includes elastifiers, hardeners, hardeners, accelerators/ activators, retarders, matting agents, texture agents, effect agents, anti-silicones, base paint and ink for special colors (design), matt lacquer, adhesive primer for Machine Translated by Google special plastic or metal surfaces (where no ordinary (wash) primer can be used), aerosols, spray thinner, plastic cleaner, silicone remover and paint remover. Other products 4 4 150 gr/litre Other products are: polishing and polishing agents, fillers, sealants, glues and putties. Annex XVI. belonging to Article 6.1, 2nd paragraph Field-specific document for the designation and supervision of certification bodies charged with: personal certification in the field of Working under Overpressure Document: WDAT-WOD-P Index 1 Introduction 2 Definitions 3 Field-specific characteristics 3.1 Description of the document 3.2 Active parties 3.3 Risk analysis 4 Requirements for the designation of personal 4.1 certification for working under overpressure 4.2 Designation Criteria Machine Translated by Google 5 Supervision of the ckis 6 Measures 1 Introduction Working under overpressure is a risky professional activity. In order to safeguard the public interest – safety and health in connection with work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for working under excess pressure. In accordance with Article 6.13 of the Working Conditions Decree, working under overpressure is understood to mean: diving work, caisson work and other work under overpressure. This concerns the following activities mentioned in the Working Conditions Decree: 1) diver (article 6.16 paragraph 6); 2) diving team leader (article 6.16 paragraph 3); 3) diving medical supervisor (article 6.16 paragraph 7); 4) diving doctor (article 6.14a paragraph 3). The certificates for these activities are provided by CKIs under this scheme. In order to be allowed to issue certificates, a CKI must be designated for this purpose by the Minister. This is done by checking against this document regarding designation and supervision. This document indicates which rules and procedures the relevant CKIs must adhere to. 2. Definitions It is possible that some defined terms or abbreviations do not appear literally in the text of the certification scheme, but these terms or abbreviations are nevertheless included in the list of definitions in connection with the fact that these terms or abbreviations can be used in direct connection with this certification scheme. If the definitions in this document deviate from the definitions in NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012, the definitions in this document apply. Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate applies to the certification body to issue a certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to law Machine Translated by Google prescription by the Minister of Social Affairs business and Employment opportunities. Management Foundation (BHST) : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of settings based on the Minister of Social Affairs business and Employment established Field-specific designation and supervision document, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports to SZW and the relevant CKI or the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates to give. When establishing the Field- Specific Document for designation and supervision by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, the international system and standards. Caisson labour : Doing work in a space that under a pressure of at least 10 4 Pa above atmospheric busy and completely or Machine Translated by Google partially surrounded by a liquid, as well as the stay in and the transport to and from that space (Working Conditions Decree 6.13). Central College of : The college, part of and Experts (CCvD) facilitated by the management foundation, that interested parties in a particular sector or industry offers the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Certificate : A certificate in the meaning of article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Commodities Act . In addition a certificate should be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : The (legal) person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities through which a certification body assesses and decides whether a (legal entity, Machine Translated by Google product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and certifying party institution. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : inspection Calibration or body conformity assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. Examiner : The individual person acting on behalf of the certifying institution assessing the examination work of the candidate performs. Hyperbaric treatment room : A compression chamber permanently installed in a hospital or medical institution, intended for treatment of patients under overpressure according to a doctor Machine Translated by Google prescribed treatment protocol. Candidate : The individual who takes the exam to obtain the personal certificate. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in field- specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. RI&E : Systematic identification of the adverse events with health and safety risks related to an activity on the basis of which an assessment of those risks is made made as referred to in Article 5 of the working conditions law t. TRA (task risk : Systematic analysis) identification of the undesired events with risks to health and safety related to a specific task on the basis of which a assessment of those risks is made as referred to in Article 5 of the working conditions law t. Supervision : Collecting Machine Translated by Google information by SZW or the CKI about whether an act or matter meets the requirements of the CKI resp. the certificate holder requirements, then forming an opinion about them and intervene if necessary. WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must meet in order to be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WDAT-WOD-P : Field specific document for Designation and Supervision of a certification body and responsible for personal certification in the field of working under overpressure. Document: WDAT-WOD-P. WSCS : Term used for a certification scheme that has been accepted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment for use within a specific designation as a certifying institution for persons, products or systems. Machine Translated by Google WSCS-WOD-A : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diver doctor. Document: WSCS-WOD-A. WSCS-WOD-B : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Medical Supervisor. Document: WSCS-WOD-B. WSCS-WOD-D : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work. Document: WSCS-WOD-D. WSCS-WOD-E : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work performed by the fire service. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-F : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader at the fire brigade. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-L : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader. Document: WSCS-WOD-L. 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. Description of the document This field-specific document for the designation and supervision of CKIs charged with personal certification in the field of work under pressure is referred to as WDAT WOD-P. This work field-specific document for designation and supervision within the work field Working under pressure has been adopted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can make changes to the established documents. This adopted document supersedes previous versions. Comments or comments about this document can be submitted to the Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure'. Machine Translated by Google 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this designation and supervision document, the following have been involved in the preparation: •. Working under overpressure foundation (SWOD) as a management foundation; •.Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure' as a board of management experts. 3.3. Risk analysis The following risks can arise if the CKI does not function sufficiently in the certification process: 1) the CKI fails to issue a certificate or incorrectly gives a certificate due to inadequate procedures and documentation of the certification process; 2) the CKI is incapable of being open about access to it certification process, the performance of the assessment and the requirements against which the assessment is made; 3) the CKI is not able to perform an adequate and objective assessment, because the CKI cannot act impartially due to a conflict of interest with, for example, training institutions, employers and clients; 4) the CKI does not pass on equal opportunities to the candidates during the exam breaches of impartiality towards the candidate; 5) the CKI cannot form an independent picture of the candidate's skills due to insufficient distance from the candidate's education; 6) the CKI cannot form an adequate picture of the candidate's skills by means of the exam due to insufficiently qualified examiners who do not have adequate knowledge, experience and attitude; 7) the CKI violates the confidentiality of assessment results or company details and personal details that became known during the assessment; 8) the CKI is not amenable to complaints regarding errors, omissions and unreasonable behavior experienced by candidates or stakeholders during the certification process; 9) the CKI judges on the basis of an additional RI&E that the safety of the candidates and the other parties involved during the practical exam is insufficiently guaranteed due to the insufficient deployment of its own personnel or facilities or the appropriate outsourcing thereof to third parties; 10) the CKI is unable to report dangerous situations due to insufficient knowledge of working under overpressure and inadequate processes in the provision of information; 11) the CKI does not provide adequate data for the central register, so that stakeholders and regulators cannot verify its validity. The requirements in this document regarding the CKI should mitigate the above-mentioned risks. 4. Requirements for the designation Machine Translated by Google 4.1. Personal certification when working under overpressure The assessment and designation of the CKIs for personal certification takes place on the basis of the requirements imposed on the certification body on the basis of the designation (see section 4.5 of this document) and the NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012, subject to the following additions and deviations: 4.1.1. Change of the certification scheme Notwithstanding the other provisions of section 8.4 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012, the CKI may not develop or change the certification scheme itself, contrary to this section. The CKI must use the certification scheme established by the minister. The CKI must submit any amendment proposal to the management foundation. The Central Board of Experts must assess an amendment proposal and can advise the board of the management foundation to submit an amendment proposal to the minister. The minister will assess the proposal and determine whether the amendment proposal will be adopted. 4.1.2. Sufficient staff The provisions of section 6.1.2 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 apply in full. 4.1.3. Development and maintenance of the certification scheme Without prejudice to the other provisions of section 8.6 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012, the CKI must take into account the procedure for changing the assessment requirements and assessment method, if the minister has laid down special provisions for this in a field-specific certification scheme. In addition to section 8 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012, when communicating about and applying changes to a field-specific certification scheme, the CKI must take into account the procedure for determining changes in accordance with section 4.2.1 of this document for designation and supervision. On the basis of the instruction by the minister and the agreement with the management foundation, the CKI must apply the assessment requirements and assessment method of the field-specific certification scheme. The management foundation has the task of managing and maintaining the certification schemes for the relevant fields. The CKI must monitor the activities of the Central Board of Experts established by the management foundation, which is responsible for the professional field-specific certification schemes, and can also contribute to this in terms of content. The CKI must itself evaluate the performance of the examination of the candidates in accordance with section 8.5 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. If the evaluation shows that the certification scheme requires adjustments, the CKI must submit an argument substantiated proposal to the Central Board of Experts. Machine Translated by Google 4.1.4. Work outsourced to third parties The provisions of section 6.3 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 apply in full. 4.1.5. Qualifications of examiners In addition to the provisions of section 6.2 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012, the CKI must apply the following requirements when selecting examiners and the other parties involved in the examination. The elaboration of the requirements for the examination staff should be included in competency profiles and other relevant documents, such as the quality manual of the certification body. A. Expertise requirements for examiners When selecting examination staff, the examination staff must be assessed on the basis of a portfolio on at least the following requirements: 1. General: •. be able to communicate adequately, not intimidating and convincingly with the candidates and other parties involved in the exam; •. be able to act with integrity, in good faith and without self-interest to perform; •. be able to maintain order and take corrective action where necessary steps; •. be able to exercise punctuality and accuracy in issuance of the assignments and the taking and elaborations. 2. Subject matter: •. be able to assess the candidate expertly and objectively by having followed theoretical and practical training as an examiner; •. have knowledge of the certification scheme, the examination regulations, the standards for passing and failing and the further rules of conduct; •. have demonstrable and up-to-date knowledge of the field of the relevant part of the practical or theoretical exam and have successfully passed the exam in the relevant exam part. The aforementioned requirements with regard to the examination staff apply in full to the examiner who is involved in the assessment of the examination work and practical components. An employee who does not have the substantive knowledge as referred to in point 2 may be deployed for supervision during the theory exam. B. Instruction of the other parties involved in the exam The CKI must ensure that persons who act as members of the diving team, but are not candidates themselves, receive sufficient instruction to ensure safety and independence during the exam. If the diving crew consists of several candidates, each of the diving crew members must be matched Machine Translated by Google instructed. The CKI must ensure that the briefing is based on a clear and unambiguous exam case. If those involved in the exam dive, they must have the personal diving work certificate (WSCS-WOD D or WSCS-WOD E). If the persons involved in the exam act as diving team leader or take over this role, they must have the personal certificate diving team leader (WSCS-WOD-F or WSCS-WOD-L). C. Independence The examiners, the other parties involved in the examination and the staff of the CKI must be able to act independently and without prejudice towards the examination candidate. The independence of all involved includes at least that they have not been personally involved in the candidate's training and that they demonstrably have sufficient independence in relation to the candidate's employer not to interfere with their performance during the examination and towards the candidate. to be influenced. The CKI must ensure that candidates are given equal opportunities during the exam and can take the exam safely. 4.1.6. Entries on the certificate In addition to the provisions of section 9.4.8 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012, the certificate must state: 1) the registration number of the CKI in the Trade Register at the Chamber of Commerce, except for CKIs who are not legally obliged to do so; 2) the logo of the CKI; 3) the reference to the designation order of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment; 4) the logo of the management foundation. 4.1.7. Supervision of the certificate holder The provisions of section 8.3 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 apply in full, but the CKI must take into account special regulations with regard to the supervision of the certificate holder, if the minister has special provisions for this in a field-specific certification scheme. established. 4.1.8. Recertification Without prejudice to the other provisions of paragraph 9.6 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012, the CKI must take into account special regulations with regard to recertification, if the minister has laid down special provisions for this in a field-specific certification scheme. 4.1.9. Use of the logo In addition to the provision of section 9.7 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012, when using a logo of the management foundation, the CKI must adhere to the regulations of the agreement between the management foundation and the CKI. Machine Translated by Google 4.2. Designation Criteria In the context of its designation on the basis of Articles 1.5a to 1.5d Working Conditions Decree, the CKI is assessed against the following criteria: 4.2.1 The designated CKI and the employees responsible for assessments conduct these with the greatest degree of professional integrity. 4.2.2 There is an integrity policy, which is set out in clear rules where necessary worked out. The staff has demonstrably complied with this. 4.2.3 The designated CKI acts with integrity and not outside its powers in the market. 4.2.4 The personnel of the designated CKI is demonstrably bound by professional secrecy with regard to all that has come to their knowledge in the performance of their duties within the framework of the decision, except vis-à-vis the competent government authorities. 4.2.5 The designated CKI is an administrative body within the meaning of the General Act administrative law and must comply with administrative legislation such as the General Administrative Law Act, the Open Government Act and the Public Records Act 1995. 4.2.6 The designated CKI must have third-party liability insurance that provides adequate cover for reasonably foreseeable risks. 4.2.7 The designated CKI must have a procedure in which it is arranged that in In the event of a suspected imminent threat to safety, this is immediately reported by the employee concerned, stating that the institution will inform the interested parties as soon as possible, including the relevant government agency if applicable. 4.2.8 Upon termination of the activities by the designated CKI, he/she must to inform the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment immediately. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines what the (formerly) appointed CKI should do with the files, and the (formerly) designated CKI must cooperate with this. This does not indemnify the (previously) appointed CKI from any liability for errors in inspections or assessments it has carried out. 4.2.9 The designated CKI must have the following procedures in writing: an opinion procedure (section 4.1.2 Awb), an objection procedure (chapters 6 and 7 Awb) and a complaints procedure (chapter 9 Awb). 4.2.10 The designated CKI must be demonstrably represented in the national consultation of the institutions, organized by the CCvD. The CCvD represents the Netherlands at the European NoBo consultation and the CKIs participate in the consultation with the CCvD. The CKIs must be able to demonstrate that they implement the agreements made in consultation with the CCvD. 4.2.11 Obligation to report the refusal, suspension or revocation of certificates to the other CKIs and to the management foundation. 4.2.12 With regard to the sanctions/measures to be imposed, the Cki adheres to the sanctions and measures policy established. In the event of manifest unreasonableness, the CKI has the authority to deviate from this on the basis of the Awb. Deviation only takes place on the basis of arguments to be put forward by the certificate holder. The substantiation for the deviation is included in the decision on the sanction imposed. Deviations are registered by the cki. Machine Translated by Google 4.2.13 All documents and registrations in communication with the government must be in Dutch unless otherwise agreed with the government. 4.2.14 Prohibition of subcontracting on the issuance of certificates and the related prior assessment and decision. 4.2.15. In the agreement between the management foundation and the CKI, referred to in Article 1.5a(1)(f) of the Decree provides: a. For the purpose of the exam taken by the applicant for a certificate, the management foundation manages an item bank in which several versions of the exam papers, assignments and case studies for the practical final exam are recorded. The theory exam contains generic test assignments, the practical final exam, on the other hand, contains specific test assignments; b. the CKI contributes to the establishment of the central item bank; c. the management foundation and the CKI do not provide information to third parties about the contents of the item bank, referred to in parts a and b; d. notwithstanding part c, the management board grants the Accreditation Council access to the item bank referred to in part a, if in the opinion of the Council for Accreditation is required; e. the management foundation ensures that shortcomings in the item bank that may become apparent during the assessments and audits referred to in part d are resolved as soon as possible so that this does not hinder a positive assessment of the CKI by the Dutch Accreditation Council; and f. which rules apply with regard to the application for the delivery of exam versions from the central item bank, the composition of versions, the delivery at the exam location and the maintenance of the central item bank. 5. Supervision In connection with the obligations in the context of supervision, the following articles apply; Articles 1.5b and 1.5c Working Conditions Decree and Article 1.1a Working Conditions Regulations. For the purpose of collecting information, the CKI must: a) Report to SZW in writing before 1 March each year about the legitimacy and effectiveness of the performance in each field of activity for which the institution has been designated by the Minister of SZW (the written justification is sent to the SZW Inspectorate). This written report covers at least the following topics: 1. the issued, suspended, withdrawn or rejected certificates; 2. changes in the accreditations, regulations and procedures relating to the professional field of the institution; 3. changes in the composition of the board; 4. amendments to the articles of association or the internal regulations; 5. work outsourced to third parties; 6. structural bottlenecks in the work field of the institution that have arisen in the implementation practice; Machine Translated by Google 7. the consultation and cooperation in the field with other certification bodies; 8. complaints received by the institution and the manner of handling of them; objections lodged against the decisions of the institution and 9. cases brought and the manner in which they are handled; 10. a financial report on the activities for which the setting is recommended. 11. The number of times per calendar year that the sanctions and measures policy are deviated from. b) To cooperate in checks on behalf of SZW (in practice this means: that the checks can be carried out by the Inspectorate SZW and the national accreditation body) . c) Provide timely and correct information that SZW needs to be able to assess whether it continues to meet the designation standards (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW or the national accreditation body). d) Immediately provide information to SZW and the Management Foundation in the context of their registration task, about individual certificates/certificate holders on which a sanction has been imposed (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW). e) Provide information to the Inspectorate SZW about the way in which they has issued depositary receipts and of the way in which it periodically assesses the actions of depositary receipt holders. f) To demonstrate to SZW that it adequately checks whether certificate holders continue to meet the certification requirements (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the SZW Inspectorate, or national accreditation body). In any case, the frequency, nature and extent (duration) of the checks are shown. g) to inform SZW as soon as it intends to terminate one or more of its tasks. h) inform hSZW as soon as it submits an application for an additional accreditation or assessment based on a legal specific scheme. 6. Measures If the designated institution no longer meets the requirements in this scheme, this may have consequences for the designation. See policy measure measures policy certification Working Conditions Act and Commodities Act, Stcrt. 2010, no. 10839 of July 14, 2010. Annex XVIa. belonging to Article 6.5, 1st paragraph Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diver doctor Document: WSCS-WOD-A Machine Translated by Google Index 1 Introduction 2 Definitions 3 Field-specific characteristics 3.1 General 3.2 Description of the scheme 3.3 Active parties 3.4 Risk analysis and infringement criteria 4 Certification Regulations 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Validity period of the certificate 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints procedure 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 4.10 Application for the certificate upon re-entry 5 Exam regulations 5.1 General 5.2 Implementation of the exam 5.3 Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff 5.4 Requirements for the exam 6 Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency of supervision 6.3 Implementation of supervision Machine Translated by Google 6.4 Report of findings 6.5 Measures 6.6 Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate 7 Subject of the certification 8 Entry criteria 9 Attainment targets 10 Test method at initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Result rule of the exam 11 Recertification 11.1 Test terms for recertification 11.2 Assessment method 11.3 Caesura of the rating 12 Certificate 13 Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure'. It concerns certification in the field of occupational health research by diving doctors. The board of the Working under Overpressure Foundation (SWOD) has approved the scheme. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This scheme supersedes previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the performance of an occupational health examination in connection with employees who perform diving work. In accordance with Article 6.13 paragraph 1 under letter a of the Working Conditions Decree, diving work is understood to mean the performance of diving work, caisson work and other work under excess pressure. The relevant occupational health examination is performed by diving doctors. The personal diving doctor certificate is required by law on the basis of Article 6.14a paragraph 3 of the Working Conditions Decree. Machine Translated by Google The certification system of the certification body must be structured in accordance with the requirements of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. 2. Definitions It is possible that some defined terms or abbreviations do not appear literally in the text of the certification scheme, but these terms or abbreviations are nevertheless included in the list of definitions in connection with the fact that the management foundation and the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment use these terms or abbreviations. directly related to this certification scheme. Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate applies to the certification body to issue a certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the Minister of Social Affairs business and Employment established Field-specific document for designation and supervision, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing to SZW and the relevant CKIs whether the institution is competent to legally Machine Translated by Google to issue mandatory certificates. When determining the Field-specific document for designation and supervision by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is linked as much as possible to international system and standards. management foundation : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. Caisson labour : Performing work in a space that is under a pressure of at least 10 4 Pa above atmospheric pressure and is wholly or partly surrounded by a liquid, as well as the stay in and transport to and from that space (Working Conditions Decree 6.13). CCvD WOD : The Central Board of Experts, part of and facilitated by the management foundation, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative Machine Translated by Google representation of these parties. Central : Commission within the Examination Committee structure of the management foundation that establishes a central item bank develops and manages. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Commodities Act . In addition, a certificate be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : The (legal) person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a (legal) person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, which leads to the issuance of a certificate of professional competence, including assurance of Machine Translated by Google the quality. Certification and : inspection Calibration or body Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score at which a fail and the lowest test score to which a sufficient. Competence : Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills and, where relevant, demonstrated personal attributes, as defined in the certification scheme. Compression chamber : Pressure vessel suitable or tank for human accommodation to support diving and overpressure work, both for controlled decompression and for the treatment of decompression symptoms and/or overpressure trauma, other than a hyperbaric treatment room. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister. Machine Translated by Google Dive (operational): Any immersion in a liquid or in a closed diving bell where a gas under positive pressure is used for breathing and where work is carried out under positive pressure in the context of a diving team. Diving work : performing work in a liquid or in a dry diving bell including residence in that liquid or in that dry diving bell, whereby a gas under a higher pressure than atmospheric pressure is used for breathing (Working Conditions Decree 6.13). Dive bell, closed or : dry A submersible room, including the directly with it connected parts up to the provision for connection with other equipment, lockable by means of one or two doors, intended for the transport of divers between the sub workplace and the surface or surface-located compression chamber. Dive bell, open or wet : Half open diving bell which is provided with a dry room filled with breathing gas where you can breathe (in case of emergency) Machine Translated by Google become. Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/or test assignments), intended to help the individual candidate to be able to assess the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the CKI. Examiner : The individual who acts on behalf of the CKI assessment of the candidate's examination work. Hyperbaric treatment room : or One in a hospital medical institution permanently installed compression chamber, Machine Translated by Google intended for the treatment of patients under positive pressure according to a treatment protocol prescribed by a doctor. Candidate : The individual who takes office for the exam to obtain the personal certificate. Portfolio : A (digital) personal folder with an inventory of personal competences, substantiated with proofs, related to a standard and provided with a personal step- by-step plan. Risk analysis : Analysis from which motivation, for choices to be made in field-specific problem area appears to be included in the intended certification scheme. Saturation Diving Work under overpressure where, related to time and depth, the body tissues are saturated with inert gas (saturation diving). SCUBA : Self contained underwater breathing apparatus, being a collective name for diving equipment that is characterized by supply of breathing air from pressure vessels that by the diver Machine Translated by Google be carried. SSE : Surface supplied equipment, being a collective name for diving equipment that is characterized by breathing air supply from the surface. Supervision : Collecting information by SZW or the CKI about whether an act or matter complies with the CKI resp. the certificate holder requirements, then forming an opinion about them and intervene if necessary. Field of competence: field of work, Indication of the the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a certain field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must meet in order to be appointed by the Minister of Machine Translated by Google SZW. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WDAT-WOD-P : Field specific document for Designation and Supervision at certification body and charged with personal certification in the field of working under pressure. Document: WDAT-WOD-P. WSCS : Term used for a certification scheme that has been accepted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment for use within a specific designation as a certifying institution for persons, products or systems. WSCS-WOD-A : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diver doctor. Document number: WSCS-WOD-A. WSCS-WOD-B : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Medical Supervisor. Document: WSCS-WOD-B. WSCS-WOD-D : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work. Document: WSCS-WOD-D. WSCS-WOD-E : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work performed by the fire brigade. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. Machine Translated by Google WSCS-WOD-F : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader at the fire service. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-L : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Team Leader. Document: WSCS-WOD-L. 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. General Diving work is a risky professional activity. In order to safeguard the social interest – health and safety of and around work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for assuring the professional competence of diving doctors. 3.2. Description of the scheme This field-specific certification scheme is referred to as WSCS-WOD-A, Personal Certificate Diver Physician. The certification scheme has been approved as a management foundation by the Working under Overpressure Foundation (SWOD) and presented to the Ministry of Social Affairs. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines the schedule. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can make changes to the established documents. This scheme supersedes previous versions. 3.3. Active parties Within the framework of this certification scheme, the following are active: •. designated certification bodies (CKIs); •. Working under overpressure foundation (SWOD) as a management foundation; •. Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure' as a board of experts from the management foundation (CCvD WOD). 3.4. Risk analysis and detriment criteria The risks when performing diving work are in the areas of: •. diving work: – diving diseases and long-term effects; – properties of the breathing gas; •. safety of work equipment: Machine Translated by Google – dependence on diving equipment; – injury from the use of hand tools and electrical, hydraulic and mechanical tools; •. safe layout of the dive sites: – extreme temperature, darkness, visual impairment and currents in the surroundings; – other activities above the dive site, such as lifting, loading and unload; – shipping traffic and traffic over bridges and quays; – dependence on the diving crew; – distance to medical assistance; •. other risks: – exposure to hazardous substances and biological agents; – physical strain; – working and rest times. The employee must have the mental and physical fitness to perform work under overpressure. This suitability can be established in an investigation prior to performing the work (inspection). Due to the physical strain that work under overpressure entails and the symptoms of aging, fitness can decrease over time. This is monitored by annually repeated inspections (re-inspections). The individual risk factors often occur in combination and by definition in combination with immersion in water. The consequences of an incident can therefore be very serious and require specific treatment due to the physical and physical phenomena associated with the overpressure. For the treatment of incidents under overpressure, a thorough knowledge of the nature of the diving work, diving diseases and treatment in compression facilities is necessary. A more extensive risk analysis is included in the document Field-specific document for designation and supervision of the certification bodies charged with personal certification in the field of diving work (WDAT-WOD-P). 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes the procedures for the application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions relating to certification, issuing certificates, procedures for carrying out assessments, handling complaints and submitting requests for review. . 4.2. Certification procedure Machine Translated by Google In accordance with these certification regulations, the applicant submits an application for (re)certification for the personal certificate diver doctor (WSCS-WOD-A) with a CKI. The certification body then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is made by an officer of the certification body who has not been involved in the assessment of the candidates. To this end, he is qualified and appointed in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the certification body has on the basis of the field-specific scheme for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate The validity period of the certificate is four years on the basis of the risk analysis. The risks of the work are limited by practical skill in the operations and familiarity with the techniques and the work involved in diving work. During this four-year period, it is necessary for the certificate holder to maintain and develop the ongoing professional experience. 4.5. Validity conditions Further conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If the conditions are not met, this will have consequences for the certificate. The conditions and the manner of supervision thereof by the certification body are described in part II of the certification scheme. 4.6. Complaints procedure 4.6.1. Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Machine Translated by Google 4.6.2. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. 4.6.3. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. Machine Translated by Google If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure 4.7.1. Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. 4.7.2. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure “objection procedure”, an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: – name and address of submitter – date Machine Translated by Google – a description of the contested decision – the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. 4.7.3. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. 4.7.4. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. Machine Translated by Google •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. 4.7.5. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The certification body registers the details of the certificate holder. This data is sent electronically to the de at least as often as changes occur management foundation. The agreement with the certification body will prescribe the digital format for the supply of data so that the data can be used for the SWOD Certificate Register. This register is set up in accordance with legal provisions and is made accessible via the internet. The management foundation is responsible for the management of the register, but bears no liability for any imperfections. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD WOD must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, certification bodies or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, different interpretations must be submitted to the Board. 4.10. Application for the certificate upon re-entry The candidate who has a certificate whose validity has expired and/or does not meet the requirements for the recertification procedure must apply for an initial certification. The CKI then proceeds to determine the theory exam and practical exam with which the professional competence of the candidate can be tested. The candidate must meet the entry requirements. The CKI takes the following into account: 1) training as a diving doctor on the basis of which the candidate previously certified has been; 2) historical experience as a diver doctor as evidenced by a complete overview of the medical records handled by him. 5. Exam Regulations 5.1. General Machine Translated by Google These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the personal certificate diving doctor (WSCS-WOD-A). The examination regulations are part of the certification scheme for diving physician. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the certifying institution and consists of the following components: •. practical exam; •. theory exam. The exam is administered by the certifying institution. 5.2. Execution of the exam The certifying institution further defines its working method with regard to the examinations in an implementing decree with regard to the examination regulations. The implementing decree contains at least the following provisions: 1) Certificate Effective Date 2) Entrance requirements for taking the exam 3) Application procedure 4) Confirmation of participation and call 5) Identification of the participants 6) Admission and absence 7) Exam duration and method of examination 8) Rules of conduct for candidates 9) Adjusted exam arrangement 10) Pass and Reject Standards 11) Announcement of the result 12) Retention period 13) Right of access 14) Validity period 15) Chances and resits of an exam (component) 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff The examination staff must meet the general and professional requirements as well as independence requirements set out in the Field Specific Document for Designation and Supervision for CKIs in Person Certification (WDAT-WOD-P). In addition to the WDAT-WOD-P, the following requirements apply to the examiner involved in the assessment of the practical exam, which demonstrates expertise: 1) Is in possession of the personal certificate diver doctor in category B and at least At least 5 years of work experience at this level. 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. seclusion Machine Translated by Google The employees of the certifying institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers. Confidentiality is maintained by the certifying institution. 5.4.2. General rules The requirements for the exam location for the theory exam are: •. absolute tranquility and a pleasant and ventilated indoor climate with adequate lighting; •. sanitary facilities for use during breaks; •. sufficient space for the reception of the candidates before, during and after the exam; •. individual work tables with chairs for the candidates who spaces of at least 1 meter in width and length are arranged; •. spacious work table with chair for the examiner or invigilator, so that the assignments can be handed out without any problems and the answers can be taken carefully. The requirements with regard to the exam resources for the theory exam are: •. a bundled examination paper for each individual candidate; •. sufficient paper and possibly forms for the elaboration; •. sufficient writing materials and possibly calculators for each individual candidate, unless the candidates are obliged to bring this themselves. The theory exam is taken in the Dutch language. The theory exam is in principle administered in writing. Taking an exam in any other way requires the prior consent of the Central Board of Experts. At the indication of the certifying institution, the exam is conducted in English for candidates with foreign pre-qualifications. The requirements with regard to the facilities for the practical exam are elaborated in detail by the certifying institution. 6. Supervision 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The certification body is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder continues to meet the requirements. Although the certification body does not normally carry out interim supervision due to the limited period of validity of four years, in certain situations the certification body must carry out interim supervision. These situations are further elaborated in section 6.2. The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the certification body, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. Machine Translated by Google The agreement between the certification body and the certificate holder includes the provisions necessary for this purpose, which include at least the following obligations of the certificate holder: 1) at all times, at the request of the certification body, access to the overview of the treated diving medical files; 2) to cooperate at the request of the certification body to carry out an interim assessment of practical activities; 3) to comply with the requests referred to under points 1 and 2 within 6 weeks to give; 4) to give permission to the certifying institution to provide the report of findings as referred to in section 6.4 and other known information to the SZW Inspectorate in the event of suspension, withdrawal or refusal of the certificate, as well as situations identified in which there is a risk to safety and health of employees or third parties during activities that are regulated by a certificate issued or yet to be issued. 6.2. Frequency of supervision The CKI carries out interim checks if necessary. The CKI must in any event check a certificate holder in the interim in the following situations: 1. if there is a serious suspicion of dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; following a serious complaint from an interested party such as 2. referred to in paragraph 4.6.2 and further; 3. on specific indication of the Inspectorate SZW. The risks of the work are limited by practical skill in the operations and familiarity with the techniques and the work involved in diving work. During the period of four years, it is necessary for the certificate holder to maintain and develop the continuous professional experience. The assessment of the ongoing professional experience is part of the recertification. The certificate holder provides the CB with insight into his ongoing annual professional experience by submitting an annual overview of re- or inspections and credits performed. This allows the CB to keep track of the ongoing professional experience with a view to recertification in a timely manner 6.3. Implementation of supervision 6.3.1. Implementation plan The CKI draws up a plan for carrying out an audit, as referred to in paragraph 6.2. The plan describes at least: 1. reason for the check; Machine Translated by Google 2. way in which the check is carried out; way in which the certificate holder must cooperate with the 3. control. The plan is communicated to the certificate holder in writing. The certificate holder must cooperate in carrying out the check within six weeks of the announcement. 6.3.2. Access to the overview of files If the certifying institution inspects the overview of the certificate holder's files, the method of administration and the presence of illogical data will be discussed. 6.3.3. Assessment of a practical operation If the certification body deems the assessment of a practical operation necessary, then the choice of the required performance must be substantiated in proportion to the reason for the audit and the attainment targets and test criteria of the certification scheme. The implementation plan can be drawn up in consultation with the certificate holder with regard to the time. The implementation plan also describes the location and the party that makes the equipment, the medical treatment room and possibly the diving team available and the party that bears responsibility for the equipment, the diving team and the certificate holder's operations. The party with which we work together is at the discretion of the certifying institution. The practical operation involved in the audit must be assessed in accordance with the requirements of the certification scheme. 6.4. Report of findings The certifying body prepares a report of the findings as a result of the checks in the context of the interim supervision. The report discusses: 1) reason for the check; 2) manner in which the audit was performed; 3) findings and results of the audit; 4) shortcomings that can be corrected by further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination; 5) anticipated consequences for the certificate holder at the time of recertification; 6) any measure imposed, as referred to in paragraph 6.5. The report is made available to the certificate holder. The certificate holder may submit a request for review in accordance with paragraph 4.7 against any measure imposed. 6.5. Measures Machine Translated by Google 6.5.1. Suspension The certification body decides to suspend a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. not receive the overview of files within six weeks of a request to that effect consults; 2. does not cooperate in carrying out an assessment of practical activities within six weeks of a request to that effect; 3. temporarily does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate; 4. temporarily poses a dangerous situation during activities that are regulated by an issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; 5. fail to fulfill its financial obligations towards the certification body and the management foundation complies; 6. misuses the logo of the management foundation or the certifying institution. If it appears that the certificate holder has a temporary shortcoming referred to under points 3 and 4, he will be given the opportunity within a reasonable period of time to correct the shortcoming through further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination. The suspension will be lifted if the certificate holder has corrected the shortcoming. The suspension is further lifted if the certificate holder has complied with the obligations referred to under points 1, 2 and 5, or has ceased the misuse of the logo and has repaired any damage. The suspension, as well as the lifting of the suspension, will be immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.2. Withdrawal The certification body decides to revoke a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. has not complied with the correction of a shortcoming that has been made known to him in the context of a suspension; demonstrably no longer meets the validity conditions of the 2. certificate; 3. demonstrably poses a hazardous situation in activities regulated by an issued certificate and which endangers or may endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties; 4. has been guilty of exam fraud or diver's logbook fraud through forgery or wrongful signing; 5. was ultimately judicially convicted of offenses in which he made serious mistakes or, through his own fault, seriously failed to comply with safety aspects in the performance of diving activities. Machine Translated by Google If a certificate holder wishes to be certified again after a withdrawal, the same procedure is followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the certification body indicates and registers that certification is allowed again after a period of one year. A request for recertification can be submitted one year after withdrawal of the certificate. Prior to issuing a certificate in the central register, the certifying institution verifies whether there has been a revocation with the associated waiting period. The withdrawal is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.3. Refusal The certification body decides to refuse a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. demonstrably does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate; 2. demonstrably constitutes a hazardous situation in activities that are regulated by a certificate yet to be issued and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered. The refusal of a recertification is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.6. Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate The certification body must immediately report to the Inspectorate SZW the facts known to it with regard to a candidate or certificate holder in the following cases: 1) suspension of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.1; 2) revocation of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.2; 3) refusal of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.3. 7. Subject of the certification The professional competence that is certified concerns the assessment of the physical and mental fitness of persons charged with performing diving work. In the field of work under overpressure, a distinction is made between: •.diving work: performing work in a liquid or in a dry diving bell including the stay in that liquid or in that dry diving bell, where respiration is made using a gas at a pressure higher than atmospheric pressure; •. caisson work: the performance of work in a space that is under pressure is at least 104 Pa above atmospheric pressure and is wholly or partly surrounded by liquid, as well as the accommodation and transport to and from that space; •. other work under excess pressure: performing work other than diving or caisson work in a space under pressure of at least 104 Pa above atmospheric pressure including residence in that space. Machine Translated by Google For all forms of diving work it is necessary that the person who is charged with that work is in such a physical and mental condition that he is able to recognize the dangers associated with the work to be performed by him and so possible to prevent or limit. A person may therefore only perform diving work if an occupational health examination shows that performing that work is permissible on medical grounds. Suitability is demonstrated by a certificate of fitness to perform diving work, issued by a diving doctor. If it appears that a person has only a limited ability to perform certain forms of diving work, the proof of fitness must contain restrictive regulations. With regard to the occupational health examination, a distinction is made between an initial examination (inspection) and a periodic examination (re-inspection). The inspection must be done prior to diving work. In the case of a re-examination, it is then assessed every twelve months whether the person continues to meet the conditions set for his physical and mental condition. The re-examination must be carried out by a diving doctor who is in possession of a certificate of competence to carry out a repetition of the occupational health examination on persons charged with performing diving work (diving doctor A). The diver doctor who performs the following tasks must be in possession of the certificate Diver doctor B, for these activities stricter requirements apply: •. carrying out the initial occupational health examination on persons who are charged with performing diving work; •. performing clinical treatment of a diving illness, such as decompression sickness, air embolism or conditions mentioned as an absolute contraindication (see table A); •. carrying out the occupational health examination in persons who be charged with performing diving work after the discovery of a diving illness, such as decompression sickness, air embolism or conditions mentioned as a contraindication (see table A) or after a diving-related accident; •. acting as a diving medical supervisor or as a diving medical adviser. •. Table A: At least the following aspects should be examined: Contraindication Research/Biometrics 1 Infectious diseases – if R untreated 2 Endocrine organs – diabetes mellitus A 3 Mental illness Machine Translated by Google – Psychosyndromes and A psychotic state images – claustrophobia a 4 nervous system *baseline – episodes of neurological status loss of consciousness, convulsions, loss of * vision vision, loss of motor skills and/or orientation – dizziness a – epilepsy a a 5 Circulatory tract * ergometry – septal defects – a angina pectoris A – decompensation A cordis – myocardial infarction A – arrhythmias – hypertension R R 6 * Respiratory tract 1st inspection: chest x-ray – air embolism a * lung function test – CARAI a 7 Digestive tract – hiatus R herniae/abdominal hernia – acute and/or chronic hepatitis or a - pancreatitis – haemorrhoids R 8 Urogenital tract – * urinalysis conditions with abnormal renal function 9 Throat Nose ear * tone audiogram – chronic otitis A media – middle ear plastics A – M. Ménière a – mastoiditis A – dental condition (loose R elements) Machine Translated by Google 10 * Haematology complete – thalassemia major A blood count incl. Hb, Ht and leucocytes * glucose * exclude sickle cell on indication 11 Other conditions – malignancy R Contraindication: A = absolute, R = relative (usually until correction). The certification scheme describes the requirements for: a) the diver physician skilled in performing a repeat of the occupational health examination of persons charged with performing work under excess pressure (diving doctor A); b) the diver physician competent to perform the initial occupational health examination of persons prior to performing work under overpressure, acting as a diving medical supervisor after or as amedical diving diving medical adviser incidents (divingorphysician carrying out B). the clinical treatment 8. Entry Criteria The candidate is admitted to the certification process to obtain the legally required personal certificate for diving doctor, if he meets the following entrance criteria: 1. he is registered as a doctor for work and health in the BIG register under the Individual Health Care Professions Act; 2. he has a certificate of theoretical and practical training of at least 25 teaching hours and 3 practical hours as a diving doctor who periodically conducts occupational health examinations on persons who perform work under overpressure. 3. the training institution is capable of providing the training in question, as evidenced by a published list recognized by the CKI on the basis of previously announced quality requirements In order to obtain the endorsement of diving doctor B qualification, the candidate also meets the following additional entrance criteria: 1. on the basis of the report of an occupational health expert, he has research into mental and physical fitness to perform diving work; 2. he meets the assessment requirements such as those for at least 2 calendar years apply to obtaining the personal certificate as a diving doctor with competence in performing periodic occupational health examinations on persons charged with diving work; Machine Translated by Google 3. he has demonstrably performed at least 10 diving medical repeat examinations per year in the previous 2 calendar years; 4. he has a certificate of theoretical and practical training of at least 60 teaching hours (in addition to the 25 teaching hours referred to under point 2) as a diving doctor who is trained to perform initial occupational health examinations on persons prior to performing work under overpressure and clinical treatment after diving medical incidents. As part of this training, the candidate has completed a practical internship with a diving doctor in category B. 5. the training institution is capable of providing the training in question, as evidenced by a published list recognized by the CKI on the basis of previously announced quality requirements It is the task of the certifying institution to determine, in consultation with an examiner at this WSCS, whether and to what extent a training as a diving doctor completed abroad is recognized by the medical professional association in the Netherlands. As an extension of this, the certifying institution can determine which additions are necessary to the training level of the candidate. 9. Attainment targets The candidate meets the following attainment targets and is therefore competent: 1. he has extensive knowledge in the field of physiology and pathology in relation to the performance of diving work; 2. he has basic knowledge of diving technology and safety as well as extensive knowledge of relevant standards and legislation and regulations; 3. he has expertise in the assessment of mental and physical fitness to perform work under excess pressure; 4. he has extensive knowledge of the medical consequences of a diving accident, knows how to treat diving incidents and can provide information about diving incidents make an inventory, group according to results and draw conclusions based on this; 5. he has knowledge of the practical course of diving work; 6. he has knowledge of the practical course of treatment in a compression facility. In order to obtain the endorsement of competence diver doctor B, the candidate also meets the following additional attainment targets: 7. he has expertise in the field of physiology and pathology in relation to diving work; and legislation he hasand expertise regulations; in diving technology and safety as well as 8. relevant standards 9. he has expertise in the assessment of mental and physical fitness prior to performing work under positive pressure; 10. he has expertise in the field of causes and treatment of diving accidents and diving incidents as well as rehabilitation after a diving accident; 11. he has extensive knowledge of developments in national and international diving medical research; Machine Translated by Google 12. he has practical experience in providing medical services on site assistance with diving accidents; 13. he has practical experience in the treatment of diving accidents in the compression chamber and has extensive knowledge of the complications that can arise from hyperbaric treatment as well as rehabilitation after diving accidents. 10. Testing methodology for initial certification The description of the final and test objectives refers to basic knowledge, extensive knowledge and expertise. These three indications of the level of knowledge are taken from the 'Diving Industry Personnel Competence Standards', which were issued by the European Diving Technology Committee in March 2003. In this certification scheme, the levels of knowledge are interpreted as follows: Elementary or basic: the candidate knows the core concepts and elementary logic of the theory of this area of knowledge, which makes him aware of the main practical facts. practical application by himself or by others the candidate knows the extended: expertise underlying theory in this area of knowledge and can independently increase his knowledge in this area, so that he forms a role model and can transfer his knowledge to others 10.1. Key terms The certifying institution ensures that the test criteria continue to comply at least with the current EDTC regulation. The certifying body applies a Machine Translated by Google standard methodology to assess whether the candidate meets the attainment targets. The professional competence of the candidate is assessed against the following assessment criteria: 1. The candidate has extensive knowledge in the field of physiology and pathology in relation to diving work 1.1 Extensive knowledge of hyperbaric physics, including at least knowledge of gas laws, fluid dynamics, bubble models, tissue theories and M-values 1.2 Extensive knowledge of diving medical physiology and the consequences of overpressure and immersion in a fluid for lung function, the organ of hearing, balance and heat regulation 1.3 Extensive knowledge of hyperbaric pathophysiology, including at least the diving reflex, the blackout mechanism including apnea, psychology, underwater work and endurance, the theories of decompression and gas bubble formation 1.4 Extensive knowledge of hyperbaric pathology, including acute disorders (barotraumata, decompression sickness) and chronic disorders (long-term effects) 1.5 Basic knowledge of Machine Translated by Google the effect of drugs under excess pressure 1.6 Extensive knowledge of oxygen intoxication, effects of hypoxia, intoxication with CO 2 and CO and effects of inert gases, such as anesthesia and high pressure nervous syndrome (HPNS) 1.7 Basic knowledge of drowning, the influence of hypothermia and underwater accidents 2. The candidate has basic knowledge of diving technology and safety as well as extensive knowledge of relevant standards and legislation and regulations 2.1 Basic knowledge of operational diving procedures 2.2 Basic knowledge of diving and caisson stock 2.3 Basic knowledge of dive tables 2.4 Basic knowledge of safety planning and monitoring during the dive operation 2.5 Extensive knowledge of relevant standards and laws and regulations 3. The candidate has expertise in the assessment of mental and physical fitness to perform work under positive pressure 3.1 Expertise in the field of medical criteria and contraindications to physical and mental fitness 3.2 Expertise in the field of diagnostic research in the diver Machine Translated by Google 3.3 Expertise in the field of national and international standards and laws and regulations with regard to diving medical examination 4. The candidate has extensive knowledge of the medical consequences of a diving accident as well as basic knowledge of the treatment of diving accidents and diving incidents 4.1 Basic knowledge of the causes and consequences of diving accidents and incidents during work under pressure 4.2 Basic knowledge of the treatment of diving accidents 4.3 Basic knowledge of rehabilitation after a diving accident and the application of criteria to declare the diver fit for his work 5. The candidate is familiar with the practical course of diving work 5.1 Basic knowledge of diving work 6. The candidate is familiar with the practical course of treatment in a compression facility 6.1 Basic knowledge of the treatment of a diving accident in a compression facility In addition, in order to obtain the endorsement of competence in performing the diver doctor B, the certifying institution tests against the following additional assessment criteria: 7. The candidate has expertise in the field of physiology and pathology in relation to performing work under overpressure as well as Machine Translated by Google diving accidents 7.1 knowledge areas Expertise mentioned in all under point 1 of the attainment targets 7.2 Expertise in the field of the application of hyperbaric oxygen and the associated treatment tables 8. The candidate has expertise in diving technology and safety as well as relevant standards and legislation 8.1 Extensive knowledge of operational diving procedures 8.2 Expertise in all other areas of knowledge referred to under point 2 of the attainment targets 9. The candidate has expertise in the assessment of mental and physical fitness prior to performing work under pressure. 9.1 Expertise in the field of medical criteria and contraindications for physical and mental fitness 9.2 Practical experience where the candidate is supervised by a certified diver doctor B carries out an inspection on at least 5 patients. 10. The candidate has expertise in the field of causes and treatment of diving accidents and diving incidents as well as rehabilitation after a diving accident 10.1 Expertise in all knowledge areas mentioned under points 3, 4, 5 and 6 of the attainment targets Machine Translated by Google 11. The candidate is familiar with developments in national and international diving medical research 11.1 Participation in at least 2 congresses or the provision of at least 2 publications or a combination of at least 1 congress and at least 1 publication 12. The candidate has practical experience in providing medical assistance on site in the event of diving accidents. diver doctor in at least 5 work situations involving diving scenarios in andwork around andthe where diving accident area have been demonstrably taken into account compression tank or hyperbaric treatment chamber 13. The candidate has practical experience in diving accident treatment and rehabilitation after diving accidents 13.1 Have been involved at least 5 clinical cases of diving accidents, where the nature of the disorders is determined by the current supply of patients at the institution where the candidate gains his experience Machine Translated by Google Compliance with the test criteria is assessed by means of a written exam, a practical exam and a performance booklet. The written exam takes a maximum of 1.5 hours. The knowledge of the candidate with regard to each of the test terms is tested on the basis of each exam paper. The candidate can obtain a maximum of 200 points according to the table below. Weighting of the test terms diver doctor A: Keyword Points 1 Physiology and Pathology 1.1 Hyperbaric physics 10 1.2 Diving Medical Physiology 10 1.3 Hyperbaric 10 pathophysiology 1.4 Hyperbaric pathology 10 1.5 Effect of 10 medicines under overpressure 1.6 Oxygen Intoxication And 10 Effects Of Inert gasses 1.7 Drowning 10 2 Diving technology, safety and laws and regulations 2.1 Operational 5 Diving Procedures 2.2 To dive 5 caisson stock (standard) 2.3 Composition of dive 5 tables 2.4 Safety planning and 5 -monitoring during the diving operation 2.5 Relevant standards, 20 occupational health and safety rules and laws and regulations related to diving work 3 Assessment of mental and physical fitness 3.1 Contraindications for 30 work under overpressure Machine Translated by Google 3.2 Preventive Diagnostic 30 Exam 3.3 Standards and laws and 15 regulations regarding the diving medical examination 4 Diving Accidents and Diving Incidents 4.1 Monitoring 5 diving accidents and incidents, diagnosing and drawing up a treatment plan 4.2 Treatment of 5 diving victims 4.3 Rehabilitation after a 5 diving accident Total 200 The test criteria 5.1 and 6.1 are tested by checking the candidate's performance book. The performance record must be signed by the diving supervisor in the case of attended diving activities and by a category B diver doctor in the case of a demonstration in a compression facility. The activities for the assessment criteria 5.1 and 6.1 jointly comprise at least 3 practical hours of the candidate. The candidate can obtain 50 points per test term, so a total of 100 points. To obtain the endorsement of proficiency in conducting the initial diving medical assessment and conducting clinical treatment after a diving medical incident, a specific exam must be passed. The exam consists of a written and an oral part. The written exam lasts a maximum of 1.5 hours and consists of 5 main components for which a total of 150 points can be obtained according to the table below. Additional weighting of the test terms diver doctor B: Keyword Points 7 Physiology and Pathology 7.1 Hyperbaric Physics, 40 Diving Medical Physiology, Hyperbaric Pathophysiology, Hyperbaric Pathology and Machine Translated by Google effect of drugs under excess pressure 7.2 Application of 10 hyperbaric oxygen and the associated treatment tables 8 Diving technology, safety and laws and regulations 8.1 Operational 10 Diving Procedures 8.2 To dive 40 caisson equipment, dive tables, relevant standards and laws and regulations and safety planning and monitoring during the dive operation 9 Inspection 9.1 Expertise in 25 Medical Criteria and contraindications to physical and mental fitness 10 Prevention and treatment of diving accidents and diving incidents 10.1 Assessment of 25 mental and physical fitness, causes and consequences of diving accidents and incidents, treatment of diving accidents Total 150 The oral part of the exam consists of assessing the candidate's abreast of developments in the field and his practical experience in the dive site and in a clinical environment. The oral exam takes a maximum of 1.5 hours. The topics are represented by the test terms 11, 12 Machine Translated by Google and 13. The discussion of the performance booklet is part of the oral exam. The candidate must be able to place the studied cases in the context of the theory of the test criteria 7, 8, 9 and 10. The supervision and final assessment is in the hands of a certified diver doctor in category B, who moreover has no functional relationship with the candidate outside the examination. Test term 9.2 is tested by a practical exam consisting of a minimum of 10 practical hours in which the candidate carries out an inspection on at least 5 patients under the supervision of a certified diving doctor. The supervision and final assessment is in the hands of a certified diving doctor in category B, who also has no functional relationship with the candidate outside the practical exam. The candidate can obtain a maximum of 100 points with the practical exam. Test term 11 is tested on the basis of credits obtained. Each participation in a conference or publication yields 15 credits per publication, per day or part thereof. The achievement of the credit is demonstrated by the candidate by the publication, proof of attendance or a report of the event being performed. The candidate must have obtained 30 credits in the year prior to certification. If the candidate performs 4 or more events, the maximum number of points is 50. Test terms 12 and 13 are tested by checking the performance book. The performance book must be signed off by a supervisor in case of work situations under overpressure. In the case of attended clinical treatments of diving incidents, the procedure book must be signed by a diving doctor in category B. A maximum of 100 points can be obtained on the basis of the procedure book. The practical experience that is assessed in the context of assessment term 9.2, 12.1 and 13.1 jointly comprises at least 10 practical hours of the candidate. 10.2. Result rule of the exam The result rule of the exam is regulated in the central item bank and in the executive order of the CKI. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms for recertification The following test terms apply for the subsequent issue of the legally required personal diving doctor certificate: 1. The candidate has applied knowledge in the field of physiology and pathology in relation to performing work under positive pressure 1.1 Recognizing Hyperbaric pathology, including acute conditions (barotraumata, decompress Machine Translated by Google mental illness) and chronic conditions (long- term effects) 2. The candidate has up-to-date knowledge in the field of diving technology and safety as well as extensive knowledge of applicable standards and legislation and regulations 2.1 Basic knowledge of developments in the safety aspects of operational diving procedures and the use of diving and caisson equipment 2.1 Up-to-date knowledge of relevant standards and legislation and regulations 3. The candidate has expertise in the assessment of mental and physical fitness to perform work under positive pressure 3.1 Current knowledge in the field of national and international standards and legislation regulations regarding the diving medical examination 3.2 Practical experience in performing at least 10 periodic diving medical examinations (re-examinations) per year in the previous 2 years 4. The candidate has up-to-date knowledge of the causes of recent diving accidents and diving incidents as well as the treatment of the medical consequences 4.1 Current knowledge of the causes and consequences from recent diving accidents and incidents while performing work under overpressure Machine Translated by Google 4.2 Experience or extensive knowledge in the field of rehabilitation after a diving accident and resume work by the diving worker In order to obtain the endorsement of competence in performing the initial occupational health examination again upon recertification, the candidate must also meet the following test criteria: 5. The candidate is an expert in the field of hyperbaric medicine including the treatment of diving accidents and rehabilitation after a diving accident 5.1 Mental and physical fitness to perform work under pressure 5.2 Ongoing employment in an institution with a specialization in the field of work under pressure or practical experience in performing at least 10 initial dive medical examinations (examinations) per year in the previous 2 years 6. The candidate is aware of developments in the field of diving technology and safety as well as relevant standards and legislation and regulations 6.1 Extensive knowledge of developments in the safety aspects of operational diving procedures and the use of diving and caisson equipment Machine Translated by Google 6.2 Up-to-date knowledge of relevant standards and legislation and regulations 7. The candidate is familiar with developments in national and international diving medical research 7.1 Participation in conferences or taking care of publications 7.2 Taking care of courses as an instructor, teacher or trainer 11.2. Assessment method 11.2.1. Recertification The recertification is assessed by means of a document examination and the demonstration of credits. The document examination with regard to practical experience provides the candidate with 5 points per inspection, but together a maximum of 100 points and consists of: •. truthful overview of results and any imposed restrictions with regard to all repeat inspections carried out by the candidate, which can be traced back to individual files on the basis of the inspection dates also stated. The candidate must demonstrate that he keeps abreast of new developments in his field and that he is constantly expanding his professional knowledge. He does this through publications, participation in courses, seminars and conferences. Every participation in a congress, publication or day on which accredited education is given in the field yields 15 credits. The achievement of the credit is demonstrated by the candidate by the publication or a report of the event being staged. The candidate must have obtained 30 credits in the 2 calendar years prior to certification. If the candidate performs 4 or more events, the maximum number of points is 50. The candidate must submit the documents in full to the certifying body. The certification body may nevertheless take the initiative to supplement or verify the documents with the authority that issued the documents. The certifying body can invite the candidate for an explanatory interview. The certifying body must conduct an explanatory interview with at least 30% of the candidates and each candidate must have had an explanatory interview at least once every twelve years. The explanatory interview takes place after the candidate has demonstrated the evidence for the document examination and the credits. In the explanatory conversation, the overview of the performed diving medical examinations is reviewed and Machine Translated by Google associated with the test criteria 1 to 4. The test criteria 1.1 and 4.1 occupy the most important position in this regard. The explanatory interview lasts a maximum of 1.5 hours and provides the candidate with a maximum of 150 points on the following distribution: Keyword Points 1 Physiology and Pathology 1.1 Acute and chronic 40 conditions 2 Diving technology, safety and laws and regulations 2.1 Operational 10 diving procedures and diving and caisson equipment 2.2 Relevant standards 10 and laws and regulations 3 Assessment of mental and physical fitness 3.1 Current knowledge 40 4 Diving Accidents and Diving Incidents 4.1 Causes and consequences 40 of diving accidents and incidents 4.3 Treatment and 10 rehabilitation after a diving accident Total 150 11.2.2. Recertification with endorsement The recertification with the endorsement of competence in performing the diver physician B is assessed through a documentary review consisting of: 1) proof of mental and physical fitness to perform work under overpressure; 2) declaration of a commitment to an institution specializing in the field of work under pressure; 3) publications, proof of participation in congresses or statements that the candidate has acted as an instructor, teacher or trainer. The candidate must submit the documents in full to the certifying body. The certification body may nevertheless take the initiative to accept the documents Machine Translated by Google to be completed or verified with the authority that issued the documents. The certifying body can invite the candidate for an explanatory interview. The certifying body must conduct an explanatory interview with at least 30% of the candidates and each candidate must have had an explanatory interview at least once every twelve years. In order to regain the endorsement of proficiency in conducting the initial occupational health examination, the candidate must already hold a valid diving doctor's certificate with the same endorsement. 11.3. Pass of the rating The cut-off point for the assessment is further specified in the central item bank and in the CKI's implementing decree. 12. Certificate The certificate must contain at least the following information: 1) name of the certified person; 2) unique certificate number; 3) name, registration number Chamber of Commerce (if applicable), and logo of the CKI; 4) name and logo of Stichting Werken onder Overdruk; 5) reference designation decision of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment 6) reference to the standard document WSCS-WOD-A personal certificate diver doctor 7) validity conditions and category of the certificate, being periodic occupational health examination (re-examination) or initial occupational health examination (inspection, clinical treatment of diving medical incidents); 8) effective date and the date on which the validity ends. The certificate will contain the text that the certifying institution declares that the person concerned meets the requirements of the standard document WSCS-WOD-A Personal Certificate Diver Physician and as a result is competent as a diving physician to perform periodic occupational health examinations on persons who perform diving work. In the cases of certification with annotation, the text is added to this that the competence also concerns the initial occupational health examination of persons charged with diving work. The text also states whether the certificate was issued on the basis of an initial certification or a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions Machine Translated by Google During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. 1) The diver doctor continues to meet the entry criteria and the stated inclusion in the registers for company doctors; 2) The diver doctor will demonstrably continue to work at the level and area of specialization for which the certificate has been issued; 3) The diver doctor with the endorsement for the initial occupational health examination remains affiliated with an institution specializing in the field of work under overpressure. The certificate can be suspended if the certificate holder cannot demonstrate relevant work experience. Annex XVIb. belonging to Article 6.5, 2nd paragraph Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving supervisor Document: WSCS-WOD-L Index 1 Introduction 2 Definitions 3 Field-specific characteristics 3.1 General 3.2 Description of the scheme 3.3 Active parties 3.4 Risk analysis and infringement criteria 4 Certification Regulations 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Validity period of the certificate 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints procedure 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register for Machine Translated by Google professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 4.10 Application for the certificate upon re-entry 5 Exam regulations 5.1 General 5.2 Implementation of the exam 5.3 Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff 5.4 Requirements for the exam 6 Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency of supervision 6.3 Implementation of supervision 6.4 Report of findings 6.5 Measures 6.6 Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate 7 Subject of the certification 8 Entry criteria 8.1 diving team leader 9 Attainment targets 9.1 General 9.2 diving team leader 10 Test method at initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Assessment method 10.3 Pass of the exam 11 Recertification 11.1 Test terms for recertification 11.2 Assessment method Machine Translated by Google 11.3 Result rule of the assessment 12 Certificate 13 Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure'. It concerns certification in the field of leading a diving team. The board of the Working under Overpressure Foundation (SWOD) has approved the scheme. This schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns acting as a diving team leader. The diving team leader certificate is required by law on the basis of Article 6.16 paragraph 3 of the Working Conditions Decree. The diving team leader leads a diving team in which at least one person carries out diving work. In accordance with Article 6.13 paragraph 1 under letter a of the Working Conditions Decree, diving work is understood to mean performing work in a liquid or in a closed diving bell, including the stay in that liquid or in that closed diving bell, where respiration is used. of a gas at a pressure higher than atmospheric pressure. The CKI's certification system must be structured in accordance with the requirements of WDAT- WOD-P. 2. Definitions It is possible that some defined terms or abbreviations do not appear literally in the text of the certification scheme, but these terms or abbreviations are nevertheless included in the list of definitions in connection with the fact that the management foundation and the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment use these terms or abbreviations. directly related to this certification scheme. If the definitions in this document deviate from the definitions in NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 and mandatory documents, the definitions in this document apply. Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate submits an application to the certification body for the issuance of a Machine Translated by Google certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs Business and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of settings based on the Minister of Social Affairs business and Employment established Field-specific designation and supervision document, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing to SZW and the relevant CKIs whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates. When determining the Field specific document for designation and supervision by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is aligned as much as possible with international systems and standards. management foundation : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. Caisson labour : Performing Machine Translated by Google work in a space that is under a pressure of at least 10 4 Pa above atmospheric pressure and is wholly or partly surrounded by a liquid, as well as the stay in and transport to and from that space (Working Conditions Decree 6.13). CCvD WOD : The Central Board of Experts, part of en facilitated by the management foundation, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Central : Commission within the Examination Committee structure of the management foundation that develops and manages a central item bank. Certificate : A certificate in the meaning of article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Commodities Act . In addition a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and Machine Translated by Google EN standards. Certificate Holder : The (legal) person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a (legal) person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, which leads to the issuance of a certificate of professional competence, including quality assurance. Certification and : Calibration or inspection body Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score at which a fail and the lowest test score to which a sufficient. Competence : Power Demonstrated Machine Translated by Google to impart knowledge and skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal characteristics, as defined in the certification scheme. Compression chamber : Pressure vessel suitable or tank for human accommodation to support diving and overpressure work, both for controlled decompression as for the treatment of decompression symptoms and/or overpressure trauma, other than a hyperbaric treatment room. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the Minister's rules for assessment. Dive (operational): Any immersion in a liquid or in a closed diving bell where a gas under positive pressure is used for breathing and where work under pressure is carried out in the context of a diving team conducted. Diving work : performing work in a liquid or in a dry diving bell including residence in that liquid or in that Machine Translated by Google dry diving bell, whereby a gas under a higher pressure than atmospheric pressure is used for breathing (Working Conditions Decree 6.13). Dive bell, closed or : dry A submersible room, including the directly related parts up to the facility for connection to other equipment, lockable by means of one or two doors, intended for the transport of divers between the underwater workplace and the surface or the compression chamber located on the surface. Dive bell, open or wet : Half open diving bell which is provided with a dry space filled with breathing gas where you can breathe (in case of emergency). Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of Machine Translated by Google test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to be able to assess the individual candidate in the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards satisfies. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are held declined. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the CKI. Examiner : The individual person who carries out the assessment of the candidate's examination work on behalf of the CKI. Hyperbaric treatment room : A compression chamber permanently installed in a hospital or medical institution, intended for the treatment of patients under overpressure according to a doctor's instructions. prescribed treatment protocol. Candidate : The individual who takes the exam to obtain the personal certificate. Portfolio : A (digital) personal folder with an inventory of personal competencies, substantiated with Machine Translated by Google proofs, related to a standard and provided with a personal step- by-step plan. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. Saturation Diving Work under overpressure where, related to time and depth, the body tissues are saturated with inert gas (saturation diving). SCUBA : Self contained underwater breathing apparatus, being a collective name for diving equipment that is characterized by breathing air supply from pressure vessels supplied by the diver be carried. SSE : Surface supplied equipment, being a collective name for diving equipment that is characterized by breathing air supply from the surface. Supervision : The collection of information by SZW or the CKI about whether an act or matter complies with the CKI resp. requirements set by the certificate holder, the subsequent formation of a judgment about it and Machine Translated by Google possibly as a result of this intervene. Field of competence: field of work, Indication of the the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a particular field or profession, are made of persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must meet in order to be appointed by the Minister of SZW. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WDAT-WOD-P : Field specific document for Designation and Supervision at a certification body and charged with personal certification in the field of working under overpressure. Document: WDAT-WOD-P. WSCS : Term used for a certification scheme that by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is Machine Translated by Google accepted for use within a specific designation as a certification body for persons, products or systems. WSCS-WOD-A : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diver doctor. Document: WSCS- WOD-A. WSCS-WOD-B : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Medical Supervisor. Document: WSCS-WOD-B. WSCS-WOD-D : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work. Document: WSCS-WOD-D. WSCS-WOD-E : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work done by the fire brigade. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-F : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader at the fire service. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-L : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Team Leader. Document: WSCS-WOD-L. 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. General Machine Translated by Google Diving work is a risky professional activity. In order to safeguard the public interest – health and safety of and around work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for assuring the professional competence of persons who lead a diving team. 3.2. Description of the scheme This field-specific certification scheme is referred to in full as a personal certificate diving team leader. The abbreviated designation is WSCS-WOD-L. The certification scheme has been approved as a management foundation by the Working under Overpressure Foundation (SWOD) and presented to the Ministry of Social Affairs. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines the schedule. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. 3.3. Active parties Within the framework of this certification scheme, the following are active: •. designated certification bodies; •. Working under overpressure foundation (SWOD) as a management foundation; •. Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure' as a board of experts from the management foundation (CCvD WOD). 3.4. Risk analysis and detriment criteria The risks when performing diving work are in the areas of: •. diving work: – diving diseases and long-term effects; – properties of the breathing gas; •. safety of work equipment: – dependence on diving equipment; – injury from the use of hand tools and electrical, hydraulic and mechanical tools; •. safe layout of the dive sites: – low temperature, darkness, visibility limitation and current in the surroundings; – other activities above the dive site, such as lifting, loading and unload; – shipping traffic and traffic over bridges and quays; – dependence on the diving crew; – distance to medical assistance; •. other risks: – exposure to hazardous substances and biological agents; – physical strain; – working and rest times. Machine Translated by Google The individual risk factors often occur in combination and by definition in combination with immersion in a liquid. The consequences of an incident can therefore be very serious. In practice, compliance with regulations and the use of proper diving and caisson equipment appear to be the most important factors in preventing incidents. These incidents can be prevented by: •. compliance with laws and regulations; •. basic knowledge of physics, physiology and diving diseases; •. extensive knowledge of operational diving procedures, safety measures and the functioning of the diving crew; •. effective leadership in the dive crew, including leadership in crisis situations. It is important for the safety and health of the diver that the working and rest times are respected and that the diving crew is effectively managed under all circumstances. The diving supervisor ensures compliance with the diver's responsibility that he is mentally and physically ready for the work. The diving team leader monitors the validity of the diving crew's certificates. The diver is responsible for being mentally and physically ready for the work. If the (reserve) diver has doubts about his readiness or is sure that he is not ready for diving work, he must immediately report this to the diving team leader. The person who performs diving work is also dependent on equipment and on the other members of the diving team. The diving team leader ensures that the diving crew and the diving equipment are properly deployed. 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes, among other things, the procedures for the application, admission, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, issuing certificates, procedures for carrying out assessments, handling complaints and submitting requests. to review. 4.2. Certification procedure In accordance with these certification regulations, the candidate submits an application for (re)certification for the personal certificate diving team leader (WSCS-WOD-L) at a CKI. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision Machine Translated by Google The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who was not involved in the assessment of the candidates. To this end, he is qualified and appointed in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the certification body has on the basis of the field-specific scheme for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate The validity period of the certificate is four years on the basis of the risk analysis. The risks of the work are limited by practical leadership skills, familiarity with the work environment and familiarity with the functioning of a diving team. During the period of four years, it is necessary for the certificate holder to maintain the continuous professional experience. 4.5. Validity conditions Further conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If the conditions are not met, this will have consequences for the certificate. The conditions and the manner of supervision thereof by the CKI are described in part II of the certification scheme. 4.6. Complaints procedure 4.6.1. Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. 4.6.2. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. Machine Translated by Google However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. 4.6.3. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. Machine Translated by Google If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure 4.7.1. Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. 4.7.2. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure “objection procedure”, an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: – name and address of submitter – date – a description of the contested decision – the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default Machine Translated by Google •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. 4.7.3. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. 4.7.4. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. 4.7.5. administrative judge Machine Translated by Google •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. This data is sent electronically to the management foundation at least as often as changes occur. The agreement with the CKI will prescribe the digital format in which the data must be supplied, so that the data can be used for the SWOD Certificate Register. This register is set up in accordance with legal provisions and is made accessible via the internet. The management foundation is responsible for the management of the register, but bears no liability for any imperfections. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure' must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, different interpretations must be submitted to the Board. 4.10. Application for the certificate upon re-entry The candidate who has a certificate whose validity has expired and/or does not meet the requirements for the recertification procedure must apply for an initial certification. The CKI then proceeds to determine the theory exam and practical exam with which the professional competence of the candidate can be tested. In any case, the candidate must meet the entry requirements. The CKI takes the following into account: 1) training as a diving team leader on the basis of which the candidate was previously found to be competent; 2) historical experience as a diving supervisor as evidenced by a complete and correctly administered diving supervisor logbook. 5. Exam Regulations 5.1. General These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the Personal Certificate diving team leader (WSCS-WOD-L). It Machine Translated by Google exam regulations are part of the diving team leader certification scheme. The exam is administered by the CKI. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the CKI and consists of the following components: •. portfolio assessment; •. theory exam; •. practical exam. 5.2. Execution of the exam The CKI lays down its working method with regard to the examinations in more detail in an implementing decree with regard to the examination regulations. The implementing decree contains at least the following provisions: 1) Certificate Effective Date 2) Entrance requirements for taking the exam 3) Application procedure 4) Confirmation of participation and call 5) Identification of the participants 6) Admission and absence 7) Exam duration and method of examination 8) Rules of conduct for candidates 9) Adjusted exam arrangement 10) Pass and Reject Standards 11) Announcement of the result 12) Retention period 13) Right of access 14) Validity period 15) Chances and resits of an exam (component) 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff The examination staff must meet the general and professional requirements as well as independence requirements set out in the Field Specific Document for Designation and Supervision for CKIs in Person Certification (WDAT-WOD-P). In addition to the WDAT-WOD-P, the following requirements apply to the examiner involved in the practical exam, which demonstrates expertise: 1) Is able to accurately implement diving procedures and safety precautions feed; 2) has knowledge of performing emergency procedures and providing assistance in the event of calamities; 3) is able to instruct and guide candidates in a self-employed capacity performing the work and giving them feedback on the performance; 4) is able to assess the candidate during the demonstration and to decide on the further course of the demonstration; 5) has at least the following experience in the subcategory to be assessed; Machine Translated by Google 6) a. in the past eight years at least two years as a diver and four years as a diving supervisor, or b. in the past eight years at least six years as a diving team leader, or c. Ongoing professional experience as an examiner at the level of diving team leader as laid down in the implementing decree of the CKI. In case the examiner dives during the exam, he must have the Personal Certificate Diving Work (WSCS-WOD-D); 7) has up-to-date and demonstrable knowledge of diving procedures, diving equipment and safety measures and has passed the theory exam diving team leader with a validity period of 4 years. In the event that the examiner has or takes over the diving leadership during the exam, he must have the Personal Certificate Diving Team Leader (WSCS-WOD-L). 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. seclusion The employees of the CKI are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers. Confidentiality is maintained by the CKI. 5.4.2. General rules The requirements for the exam location for the theory exam are: •. absolute tranquility and a pleasant and ventilated indoor climate with adequate lighting; •. sanitary facilities for use during breaks; •. sufficient space for the reception of the candidates before, during and after the exam; •. individual work tables with chairs for the candidates, which are arranged with intervals of at least 1 meter in width and length; •. spacious work table with chair for the examiner or invigilator, so that the assignments can be handed out without problems and the answers can be carefully be taken. The requirements with regard to the exam resources for the theory exam are: •. a bundled examination paper for each individual candidate; •. sufficient paper and possibly forms for the elaboration; •. regulations and dive tables necessary for the elaboration; •. sufficient writing materials and possibly calculators for each individual candidate, unless the candidates are obliged to bring this themselves. The theory exam is in principle administered in writing in the Dutch language. The requirements with regard to the facilities for the demonstration of the leadership skill are detailed in the agreement between the training institution and the CKI. The CKI supervises the correct design, maintenance and correct Machine Translated by Google use of the facilities. To this end, the CKI can carry out checks and be assisted by external advisers. The facilities for the demonstration of the leadership skill and the practical examination shall meet at least the following requirements: •. processes are set up on the basis of a risk inventory and evaluation and a task risk analysis, the description of which will be made known to the CKI; •. adequate accommodation, sanitary facilities, relaxation area, food and drink to be used by the candidate before and after the operations; •. adequate diving equipment and tools for various operations as well as emergency equipment; •. complete and qualified diving crew, the members of which are in possession of the legally required personal certificates. 6. Supervision 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder continues to meet the requirements. The CB carries out interim supervision in certain situations. These situations are further elaborated in section 6.2. The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder includes the necessary provisions for this purpose, including at least the following obligations of the certificate holder: 1) at all times, at the request of the CKI, access to his diving team leader's logbook to give; 2) to cooperate at the request of the CKI to carry out an interim assessment of practical activities; 3) to comply with the requests referred to under points 1 and 2 within 6 weeks to give; 4) give permission to the CKI to report findings such as referred to in section 6.4 and other known information to be provided to the SZW Inspectorate in the event of suspension, withdrawal or refusal of the certificate, as well as situations identified in which there is a danger to the health and safety of employees or third parties during work carried out by an issued or still certificate to be issued are regulated. 6.2. Frequency of supervision The CKI carries out interim checks if necessary. The CKI must in any case check a certificate holder in the following situations: 1) if there is a serious suspicion of dangerous situations during activities that regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and thus Machine Translated by Google the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; following a serious complaint from an interested party such as 2) referred to in paragraph 4.6.2 and further; 3) on specific indication of the Inspectorate SZW. The risks of the work are limited by practical leadership skills, familiarity with the work environment and familiarity with the functioning of a diving team. The period of two years is necessary for the certificate holder to maintain this continuous professional experience. The verification of the continuous professional experience is part of the recertification. The certificate holder shall provide to the at least two annual CB access to his continuous professional experience of at least 20 dives he has led for subcategory A1, A2 and B1 or at least 30 dives for the other subcategories he has led and by to submit an overview of this at least twice a year or as soon as this requirement of continuous professional experience per 24 months has been met. 6.3. Implementation of supervision 6.3.1. Implementation plan The CKI draws up a plan for carrying out an audit, as referred to in paragraph 6.2. The plan describes at least: 1) reason for the check; 2) manner in which the check is carried out; 3) manner in which the certificate holder must cooperate with the inspection. The plan is communicated to the certificate holder in writing. The certificate holder must cooperate in carrying out the check within six weeks of the announcement. 6.3.2. Access to the diving supervisor's logbook If the CKI inspects the diving team leader's logbook of the certificate holder, the following topics are discussed: 1) method of administration and presence of illogical data; 2) number of dives made in relation to the validity of the certificate; 3) level of dives supervised in relation to the category of diving activities for which the certificate has been issued. 6.3.3. Assessment of a practical operation If the CKI deems the assessment of a practical operation necessary, the choice of the required performance must be substantiated in proportion to the reason for the check and the final objectives and test criteria of the certification scheme. Machine Translated by Google The implementation plan can be drawn up in consultation with the certificate holder with regard to time. In addition, the plan also describes the location and the party that makes the equipment and the diving team available and the party bears responsibility for the equipment, the diving team and the certificate holder's activities. The CKI only acts as an assessor of the practical performance and there is therefore no employer- employee. The party with which the cooperation takes place is at the discretion of the CKI. The provisions of paragraph 4.2 apply mutatis mutandis here. The practical operation involved in the audit must be assessed in accordance with the requirements of the certification scheme. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI prepares a report of the findings as a result of the checks in the context of the interim supervision. The report discusses: 1) reason for the check; 2) manner in which the audit was performed; 3) findings and results of the audit; 4) shortcomings that can be corrected by further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination; 5) anticipated consequences for the certificate holder at the time of recertification; 6) any measure imposed, as referred to in paragraph 6.5 The report is made available to the certificate holder. The certificate holder may submit a request for review in accordance with paragraph 4.7 against any measure imposed. 6.5. Measures 6.5.1. Suspension The certification body decides to suspend a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. not receive the overview of files within six weeks of a request to that effect consult; 2. does not cooperate in carrying out an assessment of practical activities within six weeks of a request to that effect; 3. temporarily does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate; 4. temporarily poses a dangerous situation during activities that are regulated by an issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; 5. fail to fulfill its financial obligations towards the certification body and the management foundation complies; 6. misuses the logo of the management foundation or the certifying institution. Machine Translated by Google If it appears that the certificate holder has a temporary shortcoming referred to under points 3 and 4, he will be given the opportunity within a reasonable period of time to correct the shortcoming through further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination. The suspension will be lifted if the certificate holder has corrected the shortcoming. The suspension is further lifted if the certificate holder has complied with the obligations referred to under points 1, 2 and 5, or has ceased the misuse of the logo and has repaired any damage. The suspension, as well as the lifting of the suspension, will be immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.2. Withdrawal The certification body decides to revoke a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. has not complied with the correction of a shortcoming that has been made known to him in the context of a suspension; demonstrably no longer meets the validity conditions of the 2. certificate; 3. demonstrably poses a hazardous situation in activities regulated by an issued certificate and which endangers or may endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties; 4. has been guilty of exam fraud or diver's logbook fraud through forgery or wrongful signing; 5. was ultimately judicially convicted of offenses in which he made serious mistakes or, through his own fault, seriously failed to comply with safety aspects in the performance of diving activities. If a certificate holder wishes to be certified again after a withdrawal, the same procedure is followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the certification body indicates and registers that certification is allowed again after a period of one year. A request for recertification can be submitted one year after withdrawal of the certificate. Prior to issuing a certificate in the central register, the certifying institution verifies whether there has been a revocation with the associated waiting period. The withdrawal is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.3. Refusal The certification body decides to refuse a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. demonstrably does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate; Machine Translated by Google 2. demonstrably constitutes a hazardous situation in activities that are regulated by a certificate yet to be issued and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered. The refusal of a recertification is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.6. Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate The CKI must immediately report the facts known to it with regard to a candidate or certificate holder to the Inspectorate SZW in the following cases: 1) suspension of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.1; 2) revocation of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.2; 3) refusal of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.3. 7. Subject of the certification The professional competence that is certified concerns leading a diving team, in which diving work is performed. Diving work is understood to mean performing work in a liquid or in a closed diving bell, including staying in that liquid or in that closed diving bell, whereby for respiration use is made of a gas at a higher pressure than atmospheric pressure. In the certification scheme, categories are distinguished on the basis of the diving equipment used, the maximum achievable depth and the nature of the environment in which the dive takes place. The certification scheme describes the requirements for professional competence in the following categories: diving team leader, stating the nature of the activities that are supervised: 1) diving work using SCUBA (category A); 2) diving work using SSE (category B); 3) diving work with a closed diving bell (category C). 8. Entry Criteria 8.1. diving team leader The candidate is admitted to the certification process to obtain the legally required personal certificate diving team leader, if he meets the following entrance criteria: 1.1 he has reached the age of at least 21 years for A1 and for diving team leader at A2 and A3, A3, B1, B2, B3 or B4 reached at least 24 years of age; 1.2 he meets or has met the assessment requirements that apply to obtaining the personal certificate for diving medical supervisor; Machine Translated by Google 1.3 he meets or has complied with the assessment requirements that apply to obtaining the diving work certificate in the category related to the type of work that will be performed under his responsibility; 1.4 he has at least 1 calendar year experience with diving work A1 and has made at least 30 dives, or he has 2 calendar years work experience as a diver and made at least 100 dives for the other certificates (A2, A3, B1, B2, B3 or B4); 1.5 he has a certificate of training or has been admitted to a theoretical and practical training as a diving team leader in the category of diving activities for which the certificate is requested and which training meets the following requirements: a. In order to provide the relevant training, the training institution must demonstrably meet the requirements of ISO 9001 for sector 37 (Training), based on an assessment by an independent and competent organization, which the training institution can demonstrate by submitting an ISO 9001 certificate issued by an institution accredited by an IAF/MRA partner; b. the training followed by the candidate must demonstrably meet the requirements that this certification scheme sets for the concerning training curriculum, namely: •. at least 40 hours of education, including; •. at least 2 practical simulations in which the candidate is acted as manager. 9. Attainment targets 9.1. General The description of the final and test objectives refers to elementary knowledge and extensive knowledge. These indications of the level of knowledge are interpreted in this certification scheme as follows: Elementary: the candidate knows the key concepts and main lines of thought of the theory of this area of expertise, so that he is aware of the main practical facts the Extended: candidate masters the theory of this knowledge area, which makes him familiar with backgrounds of the practical application Machine Translated by Google by himself or by others 9.2. diving team leader The candidate is competent as a diving team leader if he meets the following attainment targets: 1.1 he has extensive knowledge in the field of relevant legislation and regulations; 1.2 he has basic knowledge in the field of gases and pressure containers; 1.3 he has basic knowledge of decompression procedures for A1 and A2; 1.4 he has extensive knowledge of decompression procedures for A3, B1, B2, B3 and B4; 1.5 he is able to apply emergency procedures and to take charge of calamities; 1.6 he masters the operational processes related to diving activities; 1.7 he is able to effectively lead a diving crew. 10. Testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms 10.1.1. diving team leader The CKI uses a standard methodology to assess whether the candidate meets the requirements attainment targets. The professional competence of the candidate is tested against the following test criteria for obtaining the personal certificate diving team leader: Test terms marked with a star do not apply to diving supervisor A1 and A2. 1.1 The candidate has extensive knowledge in the field of legislation and regulations 1.1.1 Relevant regulations in the field of working least conditions, the Working including Conditions at Decree Chapter 3, Section 2 'Additional Construction Site Regulations' and Chapter 6, Section 5 Machine Translated by Google 'Working under overpressure' 1.1.2 Relevant Mining Regulations 1.1.3 Relevant European regulations, including English rules for offshore and German rules for inland waters 1.2 The candidate has basic knowledge in the field of gases and pressure containers 1.2.1 Theory about the behavior of gases, including oxygen and nitrox 1.2.2 Practice of using breathing gases, including breathing gas measurement, oxygen level and gas analysis equipment 1.2.3 Knowledge of the used equipment based on product data sheets 1.3 The candidate has knowledge of decompression procedures 1.3.1 Diving team leader A1 and A2 The candidate has basic knowledge of decompression tables and decompression procedures Dive Team Leader A3, B1, B2, B3, B4 The candidate has extensive knowledge of decompression tables and decompression procedures and can apply the decompression tables and decompression procedures 1.4 The candidate applies the emergency procedures and takes charge in the event of calamities 1.4.1 Extensive knowledge of Machine Translated by Google necessary diving medical care, including at least the oxygen case and other aids and the deployment of personnel Applying accident 1.4.2 management in the event of calamities and unexpected circumstances 1.5 The candidate masters the operational processes surrounding diving activities 1.5.1 Ensuring safety and health within the diving team, including knowledge of the drawing up the risk inventory and evaluation and this in the daily work situation to carry out 1.5.2 Applying quality assurance 1.5.3 Oversee documentation and records, including at least the diver logs of the members of the diving crew 1.5.4 Supervise user maintenance and verify the state of maintenance of the equipment 1.5.5 Dealing with execution of assignments, tasks and responsibilities, including possibly contract monitoring, communication with the client and organization 1.6 The candidate can effectively manage Machine Translated by Google a diving crew 1.6.1 Effectively provide work instructions, briefings and debriefings to the diving crew 1.6.2 Leadership and in the special leadership in emergencies 1.6.3 Diving team leader A1 and A2 Demonstration where the candidate has performed in at least 1 practical simulation (case) in which emergency procedures and management in case of calamities are discussed Dive Team Leader A3, B1, B2, B3, B4 Demonstration where the candidate has performed in at least 1 practical simulation (case) or role play as a result of a diving-related situation and in which decompression, emergency procedures and management in the event of a calamity have been discussed. have been raised Dive Team Leader A3, B1, B2. B3, B4 1.6.4 Demonstration Machine Translated by Google with at least 1 actual diving operation performed that the candidate has led and where decompression, emergency procedures and management in case of calamities have been discussed 10.2. Assessment method 10.2.1. General requirements for the diving supervisor logbook The candidate's managerial experience also assessed against the diving supervisor log, which includes at least: nature of the dive; followed schedule of the stated dive; 1) tracked decompression course; residence time under water. date of the dive; start and end time of the dive; nature of the diving equipment used; nature of the work performed; special sessions, such as emergency procedures, safety measures and 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) 8) 9) additional competences; 10) maximum depth reached; 11) Dive supervisor's signature on each dive supervised given; 12) Signing off by the employer at each dive supervised. The assessment of the ongoing professional experience is part of the recertification. At least every two years, the certificate holder provides the CB with access to his continuous professional experience of at least 20 dives he has supervised for the diving team leader A1, A2 and B1 or at least 30 dives he has supervised for the other subcategories or once this requirement of continuous professional experience has been met. 10.2.2. Entry criteria Meeting the entry criteria is assessed by portfolio assessment of the documents submitted by the candidate. The documents for the respective categories consist of: Machine Translated by Google Dive Team Leader: 1. copy of the valid identity document; 2. personal certificate limited diving medical attendant (first aid diving work) or comparable certificate of competence for A1 or personal certificate (extended) diving medical attendant (mad A or mad B) or comparable certificate of competence for A2, A3, B1, B2, B3 and B4; 3. personal diving work certificate in the category related to the type of work that will be performed under his responsibility or comparable proof of professional competence and, if necessary, evidence of the relevant work experience gained since the expiry of the certificate; 4.complete and correctly administered diver's logbook; 5.certificate or proof of admission to a general diving team leader course with the requested scope of the diving activities. The candidate must submit the documents in full to the CKI. To prevent fraud with certificates, the candidate must always be able to present a valid proof of identity. The CKI may nevertheless take the initiative to verify with the authority that issued the documents. 10.2.3. General Meeting the test criteria is assessed by a portfolio assessment, a theory exam and a practical exam. 10.2.4. Portfolio Review The candidate demonstrates his leadership skills in the context of a document search with a portfolio in which: 1) proof of attendance during the theoretical and practical parts of the training provided by the candidate when applying for certification; a complete and properly administered dive supervisor logbook that is 2) signed off; 3) a performance card with an assessment, indication of the learning progress and interim evaluation with regard to each exercise made as part of the training and which is signed by the instructor. The portfolio must show that the candidate has acted as a supervisor in at least 2 exercises as part of his education: 1) directing an actual diving operation; 2) leading a role play in response to a diving related situation. The role play is a simulated situation in which the candidate has to imitate the behavior of a diving supervisor or act in certain situations in order to demonstrate that he has leadership skills as a diving supervisor. Machine Translated by Google The educational institution can provide the CKI with a student tracking system or test card, which provides the CKI with insight into: 1) proof of attendance during the theoretical and practical parts of the training provided by the candidate when applying for certification; 2) a performance card with an assessment, indication of the learning progress and interim evaluation with regard to each exercise made as part of the training and which is signed by the instructor. 10.2.5. Theory exam for diving team leader The theory exam for the diving team leader consists of 2 parts: Part 1: 1) Operational and emergency procedures; 2) Safety and decompression. Part 2: 1) Quality assurance, pressure containers and equipment; 2) Laws and regulations. In the examination subjects, the candidate must demonstrate his knowledge of the test criteria: Courses of the Test Terms Theory Exam (Part 1) Operational procedures 1.4.1; 1.4.2; 1.5.1 and emergency procedures Safety and For A1 and A2: 1.3.1 decompression For 1.2.1; A3, 1.3.1 B1, B2, B3 and B4: Courses of the Key terms theory exam (Part 2) Quality assurance, For A1 and A2: 1.5.2; pressure containers and 1.5.3; 1.5.4; For equipment 1.5.5 A3, B1, B2, B3 and B4: 1.2.2; 1.5.4;1.2.3; 1.5.51.5.2; 1.5.3; Laws and regulations 1.1.1; 1.1.2; 1.1.3 The exam lasts a maximum of 40 minutes for each subject. If the courses are taken consecutively, there is a 5-minute break after each course. In an exam consisting of several subjects, every 85 minutes, namely after 2 subjects and 1 short Machine Translated by Google break, 15 minute break. The exam can be spread over partial exams. 10.2.6. Practical exam The diving team leader's leadership skills are tested against test criteria 1.6.1 to 1.6.4, which also includes the practical application of the other test criteria. The practical exam consists of a case supplied by the CKI in which the candidate must fulfill the role of manager. The practical exam can consist of an actual diving operation or a role play. During the practical exam, the examiner pays attention to the practical activities of the candidate, which include at least: a) function as a manager in a diving team; b) provision and compliance with the work instructions; c) application of the security measures; d) proficiency in directing the diving operation. 10.3. Pass of the exam The elaboration of the cut-off point is further elaborated in the implementing decree of the CKI and in the case of several CKIs on this WSCS also in the central item bank. The results of the diving team leader exam are graded on a scale from 1 to 10, for which the following applies: 1 = very bad 2 = 6 = sufficient 7 = more than bad 3 = very pass 8 = good 9 = unsatisfactory 4 = very good 10 excellent 5 = not = unsatisfactory sufficient The candidate passes the theory exam if he has obtained a mark of at least 6 for each separate exam subject. To do this, he must have answered at least 70% of the questions correctly. The exam result consists of the mark for the theory exam, the demonstration of leadership skills and the practical exam. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms for recertification The following test terms apply for the subsequent issue of the legally required personal certificate for diving team leader: Machine Translated by Google H 1 The candidate is employed as a diving team leader for activities within the scope of his valid certificate H1.1 Practical experience consisting of 20 dives for diving supervisor with the scope subcategory A1, A2 and B1 and 30 dives for the other subcategories he has led in the previous 24 months. H 2 As a diving team leader, the candidate has knowledge of applying decompression guidelines and having decompression techniques performed. H2.1 Extensive knowledge and skills of decompression guidelines and decompression methods, including the operation and operation of the compression tank H 3 As a diving team leader, the candidate directs the practice of (emergency) procedures in a diving team H3.1 Leading the practice of (emergency) procedures by the divers and a diving team, depending on the nature of the diving work may include: a) raising a diver in distress, or b) working with power tools, or c) performing inspection of structures or ships, or d) detecting people and animals on and in the water to a maximum depth of 15 Machine Translated by Google meter and rescue it, or e) working with hoists or a lift bag, or f) Working with an open diving bell. H.2.1 does not apply to the diving team leader A1 and A2. 11.2. Assessment method The recertification is assessed by means of a document examination, a theory exam and a practical exam. The document review assesses test term H1.1 and the document review consists at least of checking a fully administered dive supervisor logbook, showing practical experience over the past 24 months. The assessment of the ongoing professional experience is part of the recertification. At least every two years, the certificate holder shall provide the CB with access to his continuous professional experience of at least 20 dives he has led for the subcategories A1 and A2 or 30 dives he has led for the other subcategories or as soon as this requirement is met of ongoing professional experience is met. Compliance with test term H2.1 is examined in a theory exam for diving team leader A3, B1, B2, B3 and B4. Compliance with the test term H3.1 is examined once every four years in a practical exam consisting of a practical work exercise. Any diving team leader who: 1) reports the performance of the exercises to the CKI in advance; 2) signs off the performed exercises under the responsibility of the CKI; 3) has the following experience; a. in the past eight years at least two years as a diver and four years as a diving team leader, or b. in the past eight years at least six years as a diving team leader or c, continuous professional experience as an examiner as laid down in the executive order of the CKI. In case the examiner dives during the exam, he must have the Personal Certificate Diving Work (WSCS-WOD D). In the event that the examiner has or takes over the diving leadership during the exam, he must have the Personal Certificate Diving Team Leader (WSCS-WOD-L); 4) has received prior training and instruction about performing and examining the exercises; 5) meets the requirements set for the professional competence of diving team leader as stated in the certification scheme WSCS-WOD-L, which the diving team leader can demonstrate by submitting a personal certificate issued by a CKI or a comparable certificate of professional competence or has current and demonstrable Machine Translated by Google knowledge of diving procedures, diving equipment and safety measures and has passed the theory exam diving team leader with a validity period of 4 years. 11.3. Result rule of the assessment The recertification is granted if the practical experience demonstrated with the diving team leader's logbook meets the stated requirement and the theoretical and practical exam for recertification has been successfully completed. 12. Certificate The certificate must contain at least the following information: 1) name of the certified person; 2) unique certificate number; 3) name, registration number Chamber of Commerce (if applicable), and logo of the CKI; 4) name and logo of Stichting Werken onder Overdruk; 5) reference to the designation order of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment; 6) reference to the standard document WSCS-WOD-L, Personal certificate diving team leader; 7) scope of diving supervisors validity conditions of the certified competence; 8) effective date of the certificate and the date on which the validity ends. The certificate includes the text that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements of the standard document WSCS-WOD-L personal certificate diving team leader and is therefore competent as a diving team leader to supervise diving activities in the category stated on the certificate. The text also states whether the certificate was issued on the basis of an initial certification or a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to: 1) The certificate holder remains active as a diving team leader in diving activities in the category of diving work for which the certificate has been issued; The certificate holder participates as a diving team leader in at least 30 2) dives in any 24-month period; If these conditions are not met, the certificate may be suspended or revoked. Annex XVIc. belonging to Article 6.5, paragraph 3 Machine Translated by Google Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work Document: WSCS-WOD-D Index 1 Introduction 2 Definitions 3 Field-specific characteristics 3.1 General 3.2 Description of the scheme 3.3 Active parties 3.4 Risk analysis and infringement criteria 4 Certification Regulations 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Validity period of the certificate 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints procedure 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 5 Exam regulations 5.1 General 5.2 Implementation of the exam 5.3 Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff 5.4 Requirements for the exam 6 Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency of supervision Machine Translated by Google 6.3 Implementation of supervision 6.4 Report of findings 6.5 Measures 6.6 Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate 7 Subject of the certification 8 Entry criteria 8.1 Diving work with SCUBA 8.2 Diving work with SSE 8.3 Diving work with a closed bell 8.4 Requirements for the training curriculum 8.5 General requirements for the diver's logbook 8.6 Assessment of the entry criteria 9 Attainment targets 9.1 Diving work with SCUBA 9.2 Diving work with SSE 9.3 Diving work with a closed diving bell 10 Test method at initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Structure of the exam 10.3 Result rule of the exam 11 Recertification 11.1 Key terms for recertification 11.2 Test method 11.3 Caesura of the rating 12 Certificate Machine Translated by Google 13 Validity conditions 1 Introduction This professional field-specific certification scheme for persons has been adopted in an amended form by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment on the basis of a scheme proposed by the Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure'. This scheme supersedes previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns diving work. The personal diving work certificate is required by law on the basis of the Working Conditions legislation. In accordance with Article 6.13, paragraph 1, under letter a of the Working Conditions Decree, diving work is understood to mean performing work in a liquid or in a closed diving bell, including the stay in that liquid or in that closed diving bell, where breathing is used. made from a gas at a higher pressure than atmospheric pressure. The certification body of the certification body (CKI) must be structured in accordance with the requirements of WDAT-WOD-P. 2. Definitions It is possible that some defined terms or abbreviations do not appear literally in the text of the certification scheme, but these terms or abbreviations are nevertheless included in the list of definitions in connection with the fact that the management foundation and the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment use these terms or abbreviations. directly related to this certification scheme. If the definitions in this document deviate from the definitions in NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 and mandatory documents, the definitions in this document apply. Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who joins the certificate certification body applies for the issue of a certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulation by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the Field-specific document for designation and supervision established by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, on the basis of which the national accreditation body writes Machine Translated by Google reports to SZW and the relevant CKIs whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates. When establishing the Field-specific document for designation and supervision by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment, the international system and standards are adhered to as much as possible. management foundation : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. Caisson labour : Performing work in a space that is under a pressure of at least 10 4 Pa above atmospheric pressure and is wholly or partly surrounded by a liquid, as well as the stay in and the transport to and from that space (Working Conditions Decree 6.13). CCvD WOD : The Central Board of Experts, part of and facilitated by the management foundation, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or branch the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Central : Commission within the structure of the Examination Committee management foundation that develops and manages a central item bank. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Commodities Act . In addition, a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : The (legal) person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities through which a CKI assesses and decide whether a (legal) person, product or system complies and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to perform the certification process per certification scheme, leading to issuance Machine Translated by Google of a certificate of competence, including quality assurance. Certification and : inspection Calibration or body conformity assessment bodies such as (CKI) certification bodies, inspection services of users, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score to which a fail and the lowest test score to which a pass is awarded. Competence : Demonstrated ability to share knowledge and apply skills and, where relevant, demonstrated personal attributes, as defined in the certification scheme. Compression chamber : Pressure vessel suitable for human accommodation or tank to support diving and overpressure work, both for controlled decompression and for the treatment of decompression symptoms and/or overpressure trauma, not being a hyperbaric treatment room. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the Minister's applicable assessment rules. Dive (operational): Any immersion in a liquid or in a closed diving bell where a gas under positive pressure is used for breathing and where work is carried out under positive pressure in the context of a diving team. Diving work : performing work in a liquid or in a dry diving bell, including the stay in that liquid or in that dry diving bell, in which respiration is made of a gas under a higher pressure than atmospheric pressure (Working Conditions Decree 6.13). Dive bell, closed or : dry A submersible chamber, including the parts directly connected to it up to the facility for connection to other equipment, lockable by means of one or two doors, intended for the transport of divers between the underwater workplace and the surface or the compression chamber located on the surface. Dive bell, open or wet : Semi-open diving bell which is equipped with a dry space filled with breathing gas where you can breathe (in case of emergency). Machine Translated by Google Dive minutes : Time unit of the dive work shown in minutes excluding surface decompression . Attainment targets : A description of the whole of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the purpose of testing examination candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must meet in order to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The entirety of test assignments (test questions and/or test assignments), intended to be able to assess the individual candidate to the extent that he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are administered. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of exams in the relationship between the candidate and the CKI. Examiner : The individual person who carries out the assessment of the candidate's examination work on behalf of the CKI. Hyperbaric treatment room : A compression chamber permanently installed in a hospital or medical institution, intended for the treatment of patients under overpressure according to a treatment protocol prescribed by a doctor. Candidate : The individual who takes office for the exam to obtain the personal certificate. Portfolio : A (digital) personal folder with an inventory of personal competencies, substantiated with evidence, related to a standard and provided with a personal step-by- step plan. Risk analysis : Analysis from which motivation, for choices to be made in field-specific problem area, appears to be included in the intended certification scheme. Saturation Diving Activities under positive pressure where, related to time and depth, the body tissues are saturated with inert gas (saturation diving). SCUBA : Self contained underwater breathing apparatus, being a collective name for diving equipment that Machine Translated by Google is characterized by the supply of breathing air from pressure vessels that are carried by the diver. SSE : Surface supplied equipment, being a collective name for diving equipment that is characterized by the supply of breathing air from the surface. Supervision : Collection of information by SZW or the CKI on the question of whether an act or matter complies with the CKI resp. requirements imposed on the certificate holder, then forming an opinion about them and possibly intervening in response to this. Competency Area: a set of tasks to which certain professional Indication competence of the field ofrequirements work, the position, relate.or a Professional Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a particular field of work or a certain professional group, to persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must meet in order to be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WDAT-WOD-P : Field-specific document for Designation and Supervision of certification bodies charged with personal certification in the field of working under overpressure. Document: WDAT-WOD-P. WSCS : Term used for a certification scheme accepted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment for use within a specific designation as a certification body for persons, products or systems. WSCS-WOD-A : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diver doctor. Document: WSCS-WOD-A. WSCS-WOD-B : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Medical Supervisor. Document: WSCS-WOD-B. WSCS-WOD-D : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work. Document: WSCS-WOD-D. WSCS-WOD-E : Field-specific certification scheme for the Machine Translated by Google personal certificate Diving work performed by the fire brigade. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-F : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader at the fire service. Document: WSCS- WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-L : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader. Document: WSCS- WOD-L. 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. General Diving work is a risky professional activity. In order to safeguard the social interest – health and safety of and around work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for guaranteeing the professional competence of persons charged with diving work. 3.2. Description of the scheme This field-specific certification scheme is referred to as WSCS-WOD-D. This professional field-specific certification scheme for persons has been adopted in an amended form by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment on the basis of a scheme proposed by the Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure'. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. Comments about the certification scheme can be submitted to the Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure'. 3.3. Active parties Within the framework of this certification scheme, the following are active: •. designated certification bodies (CKIs); •. Working under overpressure foundation (SWOD) as a management foundation; •. Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure', as a board of experts from the management foundation (CCvD WOD). 3.4. Risk analysis and detriment criteria The risks when performing diving work are in the areas of: a) diving work: •. diving diseases and long-term effects; •. properties of the breathing gas; b) safety of work equipment: •. dependence on diving equipment; Machine Translated by Google •. injury from the use of hand tools and electrical, hydraulic and mechanical tools; c) safe layout of the dive sites: •. low temperature, darkness, visibility limitation and current in the surroundings; •. other activities above the dive site, such as lifting, loading and unload; •. shipping traffic and traffic over bridges and quays; •. dependence on the diving crew; •. distance to medical assistance; d) other risks: •. exposure to hazardous substances and biological agents; •. physical strain; •. working and rest times. The individual risk factors often occur in combination and by definition in combination with immersion in a liquid. The consequences of an incident can therefore be very serious. In practice, compliance with laws and regulations or procedures and the use of proper diving and caisson equipment appear to be the most important factors in preventing incidents. These incidents can be prevented by: •. knowledge of physics, physiology and diving diseases; •. proficiency in handling diving equipment and tools; •. knowledge of operational diving procedures, safety measures and the functioning of the diving crew; •. correct and complete administration of the diver's logbook; •. careful observance of working and rest times. Practical experience with diving activities is decisive for the assessment of the diver, because only this shows his well-being and good functioning. The theoretical instruction of divers is of preconditional importance. The assessment of practical diving skills therefore takes a central place. 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes, among other things, the procedures for the application, admission, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, issuing certificates, procedures for carrying out assessments, handling complaints and submitting requests. to review. 4.2. Certification procedure Machine Translated by Google In accordance with these certification regulations, the candidate submits an application for (re)certification for the SWOD Personal Certificate Diving Work at a CKI. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who has not been involved in the examination of the candidates. He is qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the CKI has on the basis of the field-specific schedule for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate The validity period of the certificate is 4 years on the basis of the risk analysis. The risks of the work are limited by practical skill in the operations, familiarity with the working environment and familiarity with the functioning of a diving team. The period of 4 years is necessary for the certificate holder to maintain this continuous professional experience. 4.5. Validity conditions Further conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If the conditions are not met, this will have consequences for the certificate. The conditions and the manner of supervision thereof by the CKI are described in part II of the certification scheme. 4.6. Complaints procedure 4.6.1. Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. 4.6.2. Complaints about the company or person Machine Translated by Google If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. 4.6.3. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. Machine Translated by Google If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure 4.7.1. Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. 4.7.2. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure “objection procedure”, an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: – name and address of submitter – date Machine Translated by Google – a description of the contested decision – the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. 4.7.3. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. 4.7.4. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. Machine Translated by Google •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. 4.7.5. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. This data is sent electronically to the management foundation at least as often as changes occur. The agreement with the CKI will prescribe the digital format in which the data must be supplied, so that the data can be used for the SWOD Certificate Register. This register is set up in accordance with legal provisions and is made accessible via the internet. The management foundation is responsible for the management of the register, but bears no liability for any imperfections. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure' must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, different interpretations must be submitted to the Board. 4.10. Application for the certificate upon re-entry The candidate who has a certificate whose validity has expired and/or does not meet the requirements for the recertification procedure must apply for an initial certification. The CKI then proceeds to determine the theory exam and practical exam with which the professional competence of the candidate can be tested. The candidate must meet the entry requirements. The CB can, from the point of view of safety, impose as an additional measure that the candidate must first follow a training (module) before an exam can be taken. The CKI takes the following into account: 1. diving training or certification on the basis of which the candidate was previously found competent; correct 2. historical administered experience diver'swith logbook. diving work as evidenced by a complete and Machine Translated by Google 5. Exam Regulations 5.1. General These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the personal diving work certificate (WDAT-WOD-D). The exam regulations are part of the diving work certification scheme. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the CKI and consists of the following examination components: •. portfolio assessment; •. theory exam; •. practical exam. The exam is administered by the CKI. 5.2. Execution of the exam The CKI lays down its working method with regard to the examinations in more detail in an implementing decree with regard to the examination regulations. The implementing decree contains at least the following provisions: 1. Certificate Effective Date 2. Entrance requirements for taking the exam 3. Application procedure 4. Confirmation of participation and call 5. Identification of the participants 6. Admission and absence 7. Exam duration and method of examination 8. Rules of conduct for candidates 9. Adjusted exam arrangement 10. Pass and Reject Standards 11. Announcement of the result 12. Retention period 13. Right of access 14. Validity period 15. Chances and resits of an exam (part) 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff The examination staff must meet the general and professional requirements as well as independence requirements set out in the Field Specific Document for Designation and Supervision for CKIs in Person Certification (WDAT-WOD-P). In addition to the WDAT-WOD-P, the following requirements apply to the examiner involved in the practical exam, which demonstrates expertise: 1. Is able to read a diver's logbook and assess the candidate's learning progress against the portfolio; Machine Translated by Google 2. Is able to assess whether the candidate is able to work independently carry out operations, whereby the briefing and guidance from the diving team is limited to the level that is usual during a dive; 3. has the following experience; a. in the past eight years at least two years as a diver and four years as a diving team leader, or b. in the past eight years at least six years as a diving team leader or c, continuous professional experience as an examiner as laid down in the CB implementing decision. In case the examiner dives during the exam, he must have the Personal Certificate Diving Work (WSCS-WOD D); 4. has up-to-date and demonstrable knowledge of diving procedures, diving equipment and safety measures and has successfully passed the theory exam diving team leader with a validity period of four years. In the event that the examiner acts as a diving team leader, he must have the Personal Certificate Diving Team Leader (WSCS WOD-P). 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. seclusion The employees of the CKI are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers. Confidentiality is maintained by the CKI. 5.4.2. General rules The requirements for the exam location for the components of the theory exam are: •. absolute tranquility and a pleasant and ventilated indoor climate with adequate lighting; •. sanitary facilities for use during breaks; •. sufficient space for the reception of the candidates before, during and after the exam; •. individual work tables with chairs for the candidates who spaces of at least 1 meter in width and length are arranged; •. spacious work table with chair for the examiner or invigilator, so that the assignments can be handed out without any problems and the answers can be taken carefully. The requirements with regard to the exam resources for the theory exam are: •. a bundled examination paper for each individual candidate; •. sufficient paper and possibly forms for the elaboration; •. regulations and dive tables necessary for the elaboration; •. sufficient writing materials and possibly calculators for each individual candidate, unless the candidates are obliged to bring this themselves. The theory exam is in principle administered in writing in the Dutch language. The facilities for the practical examination must meet at least the following requirements: Machine Translated by Google •. processes are set up on the basis of a risk inventory and evaluation and a task risk analysis, the description of which is made known to the CKI; •. adequate accommodation, sanitary facilities, relaxation area, food and drink to be used by the candidate before and after the operations; •. adequate diving equipment and tools for various operations as well as emergency equipment; •. complete and qualified diving crew, the members of which are in possession of the legally required personal certificates; •. sufficient supervisors and instructors to guide the candidate during the duration of the practical exam. 6. Supervision 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder continues to meet the requirements. The CKI carries out interim supervision in certain situations. These situations are further elaborated in section 6.2. The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder includes the necessary provisions for this purpose, including at least the following obligations of the certificate holder: 1. at the request of the CKI to provide access to his diver's logbook within the term to be specified by the CKI; 2. to cooperate at the request of the CKI to carry out an interim assessment of practical activities; 3. to comply with the requests referred to under points 1 and 2 within 6 weeks to give; 4. give permission to the CKI to report findings such as referred to in section 6.4 and other known information to be provided to the SZW Inspectorate in the event of suspension, withdrawal or refusal of the certificate, as well as situations identified in which there is a danger to the health and safety of employees or third parties during work carried out by an issued or still certificate to be issued are regulated. 6.2. Frequency of supervision The CKI carries out interim checks if necessary. The CKI must in any event check a certificate holder in the interim in the following situations: 1. if there is a serious suspicion of dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; 2. following a serious complaint from an interested party such as referred to in paragraph 4.6.2 and further; Machine Translated by Google 3. on specific indication of the Inspectorate SZW. The risks of the work are limited by practical skill in the operations, familiarity with the working environment and familiarity with the functioning of a diving team. The period of two calendar years is necessary for the certificate holder to maintain this continuous professional experience. The assessment of the ongoing professional experience is part of the recertification. At least every two years, the certificate holder provides the CB with access to his continuous professional experience of at least 20 dives for subcategory A1, A2 and B1 or at least 30 dives for the other categories A3 and B2, B3, B4. For category C, a bell run (closed bell) was made at least 10 times in 24 months, 5 times acting as a bell man and 5 times a lock out was made. As soon as the requirement of continuous professional experience per 24 months of the relevant (sub)category has been met, the certificate holder can already provide inspection to the CKI. 6.3. Implementation of supervision 6.3.1. Implementation plan The CKI draws up a plan for carrying out an audit as referred to in paragraph 6.2. The plan describes at least: 1. reason for the check; 2. way in which the check is carried out; way in which the certificate holder must cooperate with the 3. control. The plan is communicated to the certificate holder in writing. The certificate holder must cooperate in carrying out the check within six weeks of the announcement. 6.3.2. Access to the diver's logbook If the CKI inspects the diver's logbook of the certificate holder, the following topics will be discussed: 1. method of administration and presence of illogical data; 2. number of dives made in relation to the validity of the certificate; level of the dives in relation to the category of diving activities 3. for which the certificate has been issued. 6.3.3. Assessment of a practical operation If the CKI deems the assessment of a practical operation necessary, the choice of the required performance must be substantiated in proportion to the reason for the check and the final objectives and test criteria of the certification scheme. The implementation plan can be drawn up in consultation with the certificate holder with regard to the time. The implementation plan also deals with the location, the party supplying the equipment and Machine Translated by Google makes available to the diving crew and the party that bears responsibility for the equipment, the diving crew and the operations of the certificate holder. The CB only acts as an assessor of the practical performance and there is therefore no employer-employee responsibility on that basis. The party with which the cooperation takes place is at the discretion of the CKI. The provisions of paragraph 4.2 apply mutatis mutandis here. The practical operation involved in the audit must be assessed in accordance with the requirements of the certification scheme. 6.3.4. Assessment following complaints If the CKI receives complaints about the certificate holder from interested parties, the CKI must assess whether the complaint gives rise to an inspection in the context of supervision. The complainant and the certificate holder will be informed in writing of the decision. A possible check is carried out as described in paragraphs 6.3.1 to 6.3.3. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI prepares a report of the findings as a result of the checks in the context of the interim supervision. The report discusses: 1. reason for the check; 2. manner in which the audit was performed; 3. findings and results of the audit; 4. shortcomings that can be corrected by further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination; 5. anticipated consequences for the certificate holder at the time of recertification; 6. any measure imposed, as referred to in paragraph 6.5. The report is made available to the certificate holder. The certificate holder may submit a request for review in accordance with paragraph 4.7 against any measure imposed. 6.5. Measures 6.5.1. Suspension The certification body decides to suspend a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. not receive the overview of files within six weeks of a request to that effect consults; 2. does not cooperate in carrying out an assessment of practical activities within six weeks of a request to that effect; 3. temporarily does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate; 4. temporarily poses a dangerous situation during activities that are regulated by an issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; Machine Translated by Google 5. fail to fulfill its financial obligations towards the certification body and the management foundation complies; 6. misuses the logo of the management foundation or the certifying institution. If it appears that the certificate holder has a temporary shortcoming referred to under points 3 and 4, he will be given the opportunity within a reasonable period of time to correct the shortcoming through further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination. The suspension will be lifted if the certificate holder has corrected the shortcoming. The suspension is further lifted if the certificate holder has complied with the obligations referred to under points 1, 2 and 5, or has ceased the misuse of the logo and has repaired any damage. The suspension, as well as the lifting of the suspension, will be immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.2. Withdrawal The certification body decides to revoke a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. has not complied with the correction of a shortcoming that has been made known to him in the context of a suspension; demonstrably no longer meets the validity conditions of the 2. certificate; 3. demonstrably poses a hazardous situation in activities regulated by an issued certificate and which endangers or may endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties; 4. has been guilty of exam fraud or diver's logbook fraud through forgery or wrongful signing; 5. was ultimately judicially convicted of offenses in which he made serious mistakes or, through his own fault, seriously failed to comply with safety aspects in the performance of diving activities. If a certificate holder wishes to be certified again after a withdrawal, the same procedure is followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the certification body indicates and registers that certification is allowed again after a period of one year. A request for recertification can be submitted one year after withdrawal of the certificate. Prior to issuing a certificate in the central register, the certifying institution verifies whether there has been a revocation with the associated waiting period. The withdrawal is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.3. Refusal Machine Translated by Google The certification body decides to refuse a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. demonstrably does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate; 2. demonstrably constitutes a hazardous situation in activities that are regulated by a certificate yet to be issued and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered. The refusal of a recertification is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.6. Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate The CKI must immediately report the facts known to it with regard to a candidate or certificate holder to the Inspectorate SZW in the following cases: 1. suspension of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.1; 2. revocation of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.2; 3. refusal of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.3. 7. Subject of the certification The professional competence that is certified concerns the performance of diving work. In the certification scheme, categories are distinguished on the basis of the diving equipment used and the maximum depth reached. The certification scheme describes the following categories of diving work: A. Diving work using SCUBA, where the following subcategories be distinguished: A1. Diving work using breathing air SCUBA in swimming pools, aquariums and similar closed tanks that meet each of the following criteria: a) maximum attainable depth of 9 meters; b) at least 4 meters visibility, if the size of the pool, aquarium or similar closed basin that allows; c) a flow rate of less than 0.5 meters per second; d) possibility of free ascent at all times. A2. Diving work using SCUBA with breathing air in the context of the exercising public order and safety up to and including a diving depth of 15 meters and with a maximum diving time of 60 minutes. A3. Diving work using SCUBA with breathing air up to a depth of 30 meters. Diving work using SSE, distinguishing the following subcategories B.: B1. Diving work using SSE with breathing air in the context of the exercising public order and safety up to and including a diving depth of 15 meters and with a maximum diving time of 60 minutes. B2. Diving work using SSE with breathing air up to a depth from 30 meters. B3. Diving work using SSE with breathing air up to a depth of 50 meters, excluding diving from an open diving bell (wet bell). Machine Translated by Google B4. Diving work using SSE with breathing air up to a depth of 50 meters, including diving from an open diving bell (wet bell). c. Diving work using a closed bell with mixture gas. The scope of the certificate must always state the full indication of the category concerned, including any conditions imposed. 8. Entry Criteria 8.1. Diving work with SCUBA The candidate is admitted to the certification process to obtain the legally required personal certificate of diving work with an endorsement of category A1, A2 or A3, if he meets the following entrance criteria: 1. he has reached the age of at least 18 years; 2. he can submit a certificate of training or proof of admission to theoretical and practical training in diving activities in the subcategory for which the certificate is requested, and which training meets the following requirements: a. the training institution concerned must be recognized by the CKI in order to provide the relevant training, according to a list published by the CKI on the basis of qualification requirements that have been announced in advance. b. in all cases, the training followed by the candidate must demonstrably comply with the requirements of this certification scheme for the concerning training curriculum. requirements: He is in possession of a fully completed diver's logbook that meets the 3. following a. it has a passport photo; b. it states that the candidate has been medically approved by a diver doctor; c. it lists the dives that have been made. 8.2. Diving work with SSE The candidate is admitted to the certification process to obtain the legally required personal certificate for diving work with an endorsement of category B1, B2, B3 or B4, if he meets the following entrance criteria: 1. He can submit a certificate of training or proof of admission to theoretical and practical training in diving activities in the subcategory for which the certificate is requested, and which training meets the following requirements: a. the training institution concerned must be recognized by the CKI in order to provide the relevant training, according to a list published by the CKI on the basis of qualification requirements that have been announced in advance. Machine Translated by Google b. in all cases, the training followed by the candidate must prove to be a certificate issued by the training institution, the diver's logbook and the candidate's portfolio demonstrably meet the requirements of this certification scheme for the concerning training curriculum. In the case of an application for certification in subcategory B1, it complies with 2. according to the result of a practical exam taken by an independent and competent organization, at least the assessment requirements that apply to obtaining the personal certificate for diving work in subcategory A2, which the candidate can demonstrate by submitting the relevant personal certificate issued by a CKI; 3. In case of an application for certification in subcategory B2, B3 or B4 according to the result of a practical exam taken by an independent and competent organization, he meets at least the assessment requirements that apply to obtaining the personal certificate for diving work in subcategory A3, which the candidate can demonstrate by submitting the relevant personal certificate that has been issued by a CKI handed in; requirements: He is in possession of a fully completed diver logbook that meets the 4. following a. it has a passport photo; b. it states that the candidate has been medically approved by a diving doctor (see Article 6.14a, paragraph 3, Working Conditions Decree); c. it lists the dives that have been made; d. in paragraph 8.4.5, under the heading 'Diving skills', under a, replace the number '500' with '350'. 8.3. Diving work with a closed bell The candidate is admitted to the certification process to obtain the legally required personal certificate for diving work with an endorsement of category C, if he meets each of the following entrance criteria: 1. according to the result of an independent and competent organization conducted practical exam at least to assessment requirements that apply to obtaining the personal certificate diving work in subcategory B4, which the candidate can demonstrate by submitting the relevant personal certificate issued by a CKI; 2. he has completed at least 50 hours of diving work with SSE; 3. he is in possession of a fully completed diver logbook that meets the following requirements: a) it has a passport photo; b) it states that the candidate has been medically approved by a diving doctor (see Article 6.14a paragraph 3 Working Conditions Decree); c) it lists the dives that have been made; 4. he has a certificate of training or has been admitted to a theoretical and practical training in the performance of diving activities in the main category for which the certificate is requested and which training meets the following requirements: Machine Translated by Google a) the training institution must be accredited by the CKI for the provision of the relevant training according to a published list on the basis of quality requirements made known in advance; b) the training followed by the candidate must demonstrably meet the requirements that this certification scheme sets for the concerning training curriculum. 8.4. Requirements for the training curriculum 8.4.1. Training curriculum A1 (SCUBA in swimming pools and aquariums or similar basins) up to and including a depth of 9 meters) In the diving training that gives access to the certification in subcategory A1, at least the following learning objectives are distinguished and taught: Diving Skill The student has experience with the use of SCUBA diving equipment for the performance of work in the context of a diving team, during which at least 600 diving minutes are made by the student and the following conditions are met: a) at least 400 dive minutes to a depth of 3.5 meters in a swimming pool: b) at least 200 diving minutes in a diving tower or conditioned diving pool to a maximum depth of 9 metres, making at least 6 dives. Diving exercises In the context of the aforementioned dives for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has gained knowledge and experience by performing these exercises himself with: a) the operation and maintenance of various SCUBA type diving equipment designed for use in aquariums, swimming pools or comparable basins up to a depth of 9 metres; b) performing emergency procedures, including raising a diver in distress and performing a controlled ascent; c) performing full pre-dive checks; d) performing full post-dive checks; e) implementing relevant working methods; f) performing simple craftsmanship; g) providing reporting. Theoretical Instruction Machine Translated by Google In relation to diving for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has acquired theoretical knowledge with regard to: a) basic physics, physiology and knowledge of diving diseases and the associated first aid procedures in accordance with the First Aid Diving Work course; decompression guidelines; b) underwater engineering and safety including team responsibilities, c) diving and emergency procedures; d) communications, including line signals and visual signals; e) simple craftsmanship; f) relevant laws and regulations; g) application of the Working Conditions Catalogue. 8.4.2. Training curriculum A2 (SCUBA up to a depth of 15 meters / maximum dive time of 60 minutes) In the diving training that gives access to the certification in subcategory A2, at least the following learning objectives are distinguished and taught: Diving Skill The student has experience with the use of SCUBA diving equipment for the performance of work in the context of a diving team, where at least 300 diving minutes are made by the student and the following conditions are met: a) a maximum of 100 diving minutes in a swimming pool or conditioned diving basin with a maximum achieved depth of 15 meters for practicing underwater work; b) minimum 200 dive minutes in open water, with at least 6 dives made at a depth of 9 to 15 meters. Diving exercises In the context of the aforementioned dives for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has gained knowledge and experience by performing these exercises himself with: a) the operation and maintenance of various SCUBA diving equipment; b) Inwater decompression experience associated with diving to a depth of 15 metres; c) work with non-powered hand tools, such as diamond hammer, seat belt cutter, knife and handsaw; d) inspections, search and working methods; e) providing reporting. Theoretical Instruction In relation to diving for the performance of work related to a The diving team has given the student theoretical knowledge with regard to: Machine Translated by Google a) decompression guidelines and methods to a depth of 15 meters; b) basic meteorology and basic nautical theory; c) underwater communication and navigation; d) relevant laws and regulations; e) application of the Working Conditions Catalogue. 8.4.3. Training curriculum A3 (SCUBA up to 30 meters) In the diving training that gives access to the certification in subcategory A3, at least the following learning objectives are distinguished and taught: Diving Skill The student has experience with the use of SCUBA diving equipment for the performance of work in the context of a diving team, during which at least 200 diving minutes are made by the student and the following conditions are met: a. at least 200 minutes of diving in open water at a depth of 20 to 30 meters; b. at least 1 dive at a depth between 28 and 30 meters. Diving exercises In the context of the aforementioned dives for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has gained knowledge and experience by performing these exercises himself with: a) the operation and maintenance of various SCUBA diving equipment; b) experience with inwater and surface decompression; c) performing more extensive engineering work and rigging (rigging) d) work with various tools and use of hoists and a lifting bag (lifting); e) inspections, search and working methods; f) providing reporting. Theoretical Instruction In relation to diving for the performance of work related to a The diving team has given the student theoretical knowledge with regard to: a) decompression guidelines and methods; b) relevant laws and regulations; c) application of the Working Conditions Catalogue. 8.4.4. Training curriculum B1 (SSE up to and including 15 metres/max dive time 60 min) In the diving training that gives access to the certification in subcategory B1, at least the following learning objectives are distinguished and taught: Machine Translated by Google Diving Skill The student has experience with the use of surface breathing gas (SSE) diving equipment for the performance of work in the context of a diving crew, during which at least 300 diving minutes are made by the student and the following conditions are met: a) at least 70 minutes of diving in a pool; b) at least 30 diving minutes in a diving tower with an accessible depth of 9 meters; at least 150 minutes of diving in open water at a depth of up to and including 10 c) meters; d) at least 50 minutes of diving in open water at a depth between 10 and 15 meters. Diving exercises In the context of the aforementioned dives for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has gained knowledge and experience by performing these exercises himself with: a) the operation and maintenance of various diving equipment with surface breathing gas supply (SSE); b) performing emergency procedures, including raising a diver in distress and performing emergency ascent; performing full pre-dive checks; c) performing full post-dive checks; d) conducting search and working methods, including conducting e) inspections; f) performing simple construction work and rigging (lifting straps and cables); g) providing reporting. Theoretical Instruction In relation to diving for the performance of work related to a The diving team has given the student theoretical knowledge with regard to: a) relevant laws and regulations; b) application of the working conditions catalogue; c) various diving equipment; d) diving procedures; e) emergency procedures; f) team responsibilities; g) decompression methods; h) simple construction work and rigging (lifting straps and cables). 8.4.5. Training curriculum B2 (SSE up to and including 30 meters) Machine Translated by Google In the diving training that gives access to the certification in subcategory B2, in addition to and in addition to the learning objectives for subcategory B1, the following learning objectives are in any case distinguished and taught: Diving Skill The student has experience with the use of surface breathing gas (SSE) diving equipment for the performance of work in the context of a diving crew, during which at least 600 diving minutes are made by the student and the following conditions are met: a) minimum 500 dive minutes for work at depths up to and including 10 meters; b) at least 50 minutes of diving in open water at a depth between 10 and 20 meter coupled to inwater decompression and surface decompression; c) at least 50 minutes of diving in open water at a depth between 20 and 30 meter linked to inwater decompression and surface decompression. Diving exercises In the context of the aforementioned dives for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has gained knowledge and experience by performing these exercises himself with: a) performing in-water decompression and surface decompression; b) use of mechanical (at least the bolt nailer), air-powered tools (at least the reaction gun), underwater hydraulic and electrical tools (at least the cutting torch, underwater burning and welding equipment); diving in open water with a maximum flow rate of 0.5 metres c) per second; d) inspection methods with regard to ships and structures; e) more extensive planning and rigging. Theoretical instruction In relation to diving for the performance of work related to a The diving team has given the student theoretical knowledge with regard to: a) more extensive relevant legislation and regulations; b) more extensive application of the subscription catalog; c) theory of the use of mechanical, hydraulic and electrical underwater tools, including, for example, nail gun, cutting torch, underwater burning and welding equipment; d) more comprehensive decompression methods including operation and control from the decompression tank; e) inspection of works of art; f) more extensive engineering work and rigging; 8.4.6. Training curriculum B3 (SSE up to 50 meters) Machine Translated by Google In the diving training that gives access to the certification in subcategory B3, in addition to and in addition to the learning objectives for subcategory B1 and B2, the following learning objectives are in any case distinguished and taught: Diving Skill The student has experience with the use of surface breathing gas (SSE) diving equipment for the performance of work in the context of a diving crew, during which at least 150 diving minutes are made by the student and the following conditions are met: at least 80 minutes of diving at a depth of 30 to 40 meters in at least 6 a) dives of at least 10 dive minutes; b) a minimum of 70 minutes of diving at a depth of 40 to 50 meters, with at least 2 dives of a minimum of 25 minutes; c) at least one dive in a hot water suit in a conditioned diving pool; d) experience with both inwater and surface decompression. Diving exercises In the context of the aforementioned dives for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has gained knowledge and experience by performing these exercises himself with: a) performing an inwater and a surface decompression; b) use of a hot water suit Theoretical Instruction In relation to diving for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has acquired theoretical knowledge with regard to: a) theory related to dynamic positioning systems; b) theory of use of the hot water suit. c) safety at sea. 8.4.7. Training curriculum B4 (SSE with open diving bell) In the diving training that gives access to the certification in subcategory B4, in addition to and in addition to the learning objectives for subcategory B1, B2 and B3 identified and taught at least the following learning objectives: Diving Skill The student has experience with the use of surface breathing gas (SSE) diving equipment for the performance of work in the context of a diving crew, during which at least 230 diving minutes are made by the student and the following conditions are met: a) at least 30 minutes of diving at a depth of 0 to 15 meters from an open diving bell; Machine Translated by Google b) at least 60 minutes of diving at a depth of 15 to 30 meters from an open diving bell; c) at least 40 minutes of diving at a depth of 30 to 40 meters, of which at least at least 2 dives from an open diving bell with a dive time of at least 10 minutes; d) minimum of 100 minutes of dive time at a depth of 40 to 50 meters, of which at least 1 dive from an open diving bell with a minimum dive time of 25 minutes. Diving exercises In the context of the aforementioned dives for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has gained knowledge and experience by performing these exercises himself with: a) act as both diver and bellman; b) performing the emergency procedures associated with the open diving bell. Theoretical Instruction In relation to diving for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has acquired theoretical knowledge with regard to: a) functioning and equipment of an open diving bell; b) procedures when using an open diving bell. 8.4.8. Training Curriculum C (Closed Diving Bell with Mixed Gas) In the diving training that gives access to the certification in main category C, at least the following learning objectives are distinguished and taught: Diving Skill The student has experience with the use of a closed diving bell for performing work in the context of a diving team by performing: minimum of three bounce dives with the diving bell to 55, 75 and 100 . respectively a) meters; b) at least one saturation dive. Diving exercises In the context of the aforementioned dives for the performance of activities in the context of a diving team, the student has gained knowledge and experience by performing these exercises himself with: a) operating a decompression tank and performing all necessary procedures; b) work as a member of the surface and dive crews on both bounce and saturation dives; Machine Translated by Google c) performing as a diver and bellman of procedures for lock-out and transport under pressure (TUP) according to the requirement program; d) operating the dry diving bell including performing the necessary controls and emergency procedures. Theoretical Instruction In relation to diving for the performance of work related to a diving team from a closed diving bell, the student has acquired theoretical knowledge with regard to: a) physics, physiology and knowledge of diving diseases with the associated connected first aid procedures for mixed gas diving; b) theory related to decompression tank (gas systems, gas monitoring, firefighting, sanitation systems, communications and emergency procedures); c) diving bell theory (gas systems, scrubbers, heating, communications and ballasting); d) theory related to gas recovery systems and survival equipment; e) relevant regulations. 8.5. General requirements for the diver's logbook The candidate's diving experience with regard to the entry criteria and the test criteria is also assessed on the basis of the diver's logbook. Keeping a diving logbook is mandatory for every person who has performed diving work pursuant to Article 6.16 paragraph 5 of the Working Conditions Decree. The diver's logbook only records diving work performed. The decision requires the diver's logbook to include at least: •. nature of the dive •. followed schedule of the stated dive •. tracked decompression course •. diving minutes In addition to these requirements and without prejudice to paragraph 8.1, the diver's logbook for assessments under this certification scheme must meet the following additional requirements: •. date of the dive •. start and end time of the dive •. nature of the diving equipment used •. nature of the work performed •. special sessions, such as emergency procedures, safety measures and additional competences •. maximum depth reached •. Diver's signature on every dive •. Signing off by the diving supervisor at each dive Machine Translated by Google •. the diver logbook has page numbers and is numbered sequentially 8.6. Assessment of the entry criteria Compliance with the entry criteria is assessed by checking the portfolio. The portfolio consists of at least for the respective categories: A. Diving work with SCUBA: 1. copy of the valid identity document; 2. copy of the diver's logbook; 3. proof of admission to theoretical and practical training in diving activities in the category for which the certificate is requested. 4. certificate of completed training b. Diving work with SSE: 1. personal certificate of diving work in category A2 or A3 respectively or a comparable certificate of professional competence; 2. copy of the diver's logbook; 3. proof of admission to theoretical and practical training in diving activities in the category for which the certificate is requested. 4. certificate of completed training c. Diving work using a closed bell: 1. personal certificate of diving work in category B or comparable certificate of professional competence; 2. complete and correctly administered diver's logbook; 3. proof of admission to theoretical and practical training in diving activities in the category for which the certificate is requested. 4. certificate of completed training The candidate must submit the documents in full to the CKI. To prevent fraud with certificates, the candidate must always be able to present a valid proof of identity. The CKI may take the initiative to verify the documents or with the authority that issued the documents. 9. Attainment targets 9.1. Diving work with SCUBA The candidate is able to perform diving work in category A1, if he meets the following attainment targets: T1. he has knowledge in the fields of physics, physiology and diving diseases. T2. he is able to prepare and finish individually and in a team work in a diving crew. T3. he is able to act as a reserve diver. T4. he is able to support other divers in performing diving work. Machine Translated by Google T5. he is able to perform emergency procedures and provide assistance in case of emergencies. T6. he has knowledge of the dangers of diving work up to a depth of 9 meters and is able to carry out the relevant safety measures. T7. it is able to live in an aquarium, swimming pool (or similar basin) under water perform light work. The candidate is competent in performing diving work in category A2, if he meets the attainment targets T1 to T5 and, in lieu of T6 and T7, meets the following attainment targets: T6. he has knowledge of the dangers of diving work in open water up to and including a depth of 15 meters for a maximum of 60 minutes and is capable of carrying out the relevant safety measures. T7. he is able to perform a variety of light tasks in open water to a depth of 15 meters using SCUBA and using non-powered hand tools, such as a diamond hammer, seat belt cutter, knife and handsaw. The candidate is competent in performing diving work in category A3, if he meets the attainment targets T1 to T5 and, in lieu of T6 and T7, meets the following attainment targets: T6. he has knowledge of the dangers of diving work in open water up to and including a depth of 30 meters and is able to carry out the relevant safety measures. T7. he is capable of a wide range of activities in open water up to and including a depth of 30 meters using SCUBA using tools and aids such as hoists and a lift bag. 9.2. Diving work with SSE The candidate is competent in performing diving work in category B1, if, in addition to the attainment targets of category A2, he meets the following attainment targets: T8. he is able to operate and maintain diving equipment for surface breathing gas supply. T9. he is able to participate in the functioning of the diving team in which diving with SSE in open water up to a depth of 15 meters. And is able to support other divers in the performance of their duties and act as a reserve diver. T10. he is aware of the dangers of diving work with breathing gas supply from the surface to a depth of 15 meters and for a maximum dive time of 60 minutes and is capable of carrying out the relevant safety measures and emergency procedures; T11. he is able to carry out a variety of activities under water and is able to use hand tools. The candidate is competent in performing diving work in category B2, if, in addition to the final objectives of category A3, he meets the following objectives: Machine Translated by Google T8b2. he is able to operate and maintain surface breathing gas supply diving equipment, such as those used in operations up to and including 30 meters. T9b2. he is able to participate in the functioning of the diving team in which diving with SSE in open water up to a depth of 30 meters. And is able to support other divers in the performance of their duties and act as a reserve diver. T10b2. he is aware of the dangers of diving work with breathing gas supply from the surface to a depth of 30 meters and is able to carry out the relevant safety measures and emergency procedures. T11b2. he is able to perform a variety of activities under water and to use powered tools. The candidate is competent in performing diving work in category B3, if he, in addition to the final objectives of category A3, meets the final objectives T11b2 and, in lieu of the final objectives T8b2, T9b2 and T10b2, meets the following objectives: R8b3. he is able to operate and maintain surface breathing gas supply diving equipment, such as those used in operations up to and including 50 meters. T9b3. he is able to participate in the functioning of the diving team in which diving with SSE is carried out in open water up to a depth of 50 meters. And is able to support other divers in the performance of their duties and act as a reserve diver. T10b3. he is aware of the dangers of diving work with breathing gas supply from the surface to a depth of 50 meters and is able to carry out the relevant safety measures and emergency procedures. The candidate is competent in performing diving work in category B4, if, in addition to the final objectives of category A3 and B3, he meets the following objectives: R8b4. he is able to remove diving equipment for breathing gas supply from the surface use and maintain it, including the open diving bell. R9b4. he is able to participate in the functioning of the diving team in which diving with SSE is carried out from an open diving bell in open water. And is able to support other divers in the performance of their duties and act as a reserve diver. T10b4. he is aware of the dangers of diving work with breathing gas supply from the surface in and around an open diving bell and is able to carry out the relevant safety measures and emergency procedures; T11b4. he is able to perform various activities underwater from an open diving bell. 9.3. Diving work with a closed bell The candidate is competent in performing diving work in category C, if, in addition to the attainment targets of category A and B, he meets the following attainment targets: T12. he has extensive knowledge in the field of physics, physiology and acute and chronic diving diseases in relation to diving work in which saturation occurs in the diver's body. Machine Translated by Google T13. he is able to operate for himself and others the equipment used in closed bell diving and saturation diving. T14. he is aware of the dangers of using the closed diving bell and is able to carry out the relevant safety measures and emergency procedures. T15. he is able to carry out the procedures for lock-out and transport under pressure. 10. Testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms The description of the final and test objectives refers to elementary knowledge and extensive knowledge. These indications of the level of knowledge are interpreted in this certification scheme as follows: Elementary or basic: the candidate knows the core concepts and main lines of thought of the theory of this area of knowledge, so that he is aware of the main practical facts extended: the candidate masters the theory of this area of knowledge, as a result of which he is familiar with backgrounds of the practical application by himself or by others 10.1.1. Diving work with SCUBA The CKI uses a standard methodology to assess whether the candidate meets the requirements attainment targets. The professional competence of the candidate is tested against the following relevant test criteria for obtaining the personal certificate for diving work in category A1, A2 and A3: T1 The candidate has basic knowledge in the field of physics, physiology and diving diseases Machine Translated by Google T1.1 Basic knowledge of physics, including at least hyperbaric physics, the gas laws and the physical effects of overpressure T1.2 Basic knowledge of diving medical physiology, diving diseases and the long-term effects of diving T2 The candidate carries out preparatory and final work individually and in a team in a diving crew T2.1 Extensive knowledge and skills in preparing and clearing simple tools for underwater use and various types of SCUBA including user maintenance, all this geared to use up to and including the maximum depth belonging to the category of the requested certificate. T2.2 For A1: Skills and basic knowledge with regard to painting existing from handling ropes, making lines and tying basic knots, especially the square knot, half-stitch masterthrow and bowline. For A2: Skills and basic knowledge Machine Translated by Google with regard to schiemanswerk and rigging (rigging) consisting of the recognition of different species ropes, lifting straps and cables and their handling, tying various knots and stitches. For A3: Skills and extensive knowledge and skills regarding schiemanswerk and rigging (rigging) consisting of the recognition of different types of ropes and cables and how to handle it, how to tie different knots and stitches T2.3 For A1: Skills and basic knowledge of diver log keeping For A2: Skills and extensive knowledge of diver log keeping For A3: Skills and extensive knowledge related to the maintenance of the diver logbook and basic knowledge and skills related to the reporting on work performed under water Machine Translated by Google T3 The candidate acts as a reserve diver. Skills of the participationand as T3.1 a reserve extensive diver knowledge in the diving team, all this geared to diving up to and including the maximum depth belonging to the category of the requested certificate. T4 The candidate supports other divers in performing diving work T4.1 For A1: Skills and extensive knowledge of communication with divers underwater and with the environment, including the use of line signals and visual signals For A2 and A3: Skills and extensive knowledge regarding communication with divers underwater and with the environment, including the use of line signals and visual signals as well as electronic communication equipment T5 The candidate carries out emergency procedures and provides emergency assistance T5.1 Skills and extensive knowledge of the prescribed course of action in the event of an accident or incident T5.2 For A1: Carrying out safety and emergency procedures: a) Check equipment Machine Translated by Google and prepare for use b) Carrying out and undergoing predive and postdive checks c) Diver in need of a safely raise a depth of 9 meters d) Perform emergency ascent as free ascent from a depth of 9 meters For A2: As for A1 with the addition that the case is performed for (simulated) activities with hand tools For A3: As for A1 with the addition that the case is performed during (simulated) work with hoists or a lift bag T6 The candidate recognizes the dangers of diving work and implements the relevant safety measures T6.1 Extensive knowledge of the relevant laws and regulations T6.2 Skills and extensive knowledge of the operational diving procedures, safety and various means of communication T6.3 Basic knowledge of the application of decompression guidelines and the decompression methods T6.4 Skills and extensive knowledge of the audit Machine Translated by Google and user maintenance from SCUBA, all tailored to diving up to and including the maximum depth associated with the category of the requested certificate. T6.5 Extensive knowledge of the risk inventory and evaluation of specific hazards associated with the working environment T6.6 Only for A2 and A3: Basic knowledge of the specific hazards associated with the working environment, for example working in environments with marine traffic, poor visibility or flow T6.7 Only for A2 and A3: Elementary knowledge at with regard to seamanship, including at least nautical theory, navigation, elementary meteorology and the use of tidal atlases and flow charts T7 The candidate performs a variety of underwater activities using SCUBA T7.1 Diving experience with SCUBA according to the scheme for categories A1, A2 or A3 is required in the training curriculum as shown in Machine Translated by Google chapter 8 'Entrance requirements' of this certification scheme T7.2 For A1 and A2: Performing a descent to a depth of 9 meters and trimming correctly For A3: Performing a descent to 20 meters with proper trimming followed by an ascent with inwater decompression. to the category of the requested certificate. T7.3 T7.4 Skills and extensive knowledge and skills with regard to the use of trimming methods, all this geared to use up to and including the maximum depth belonging to the category of the requested certificate. T7.5 For A3: Skills and extensive knowledge regarding inspection methods on ships, architectural structures T7.6 For A3: Skills Machine Translated by Google and extensive knowledge and respect for the use of the lift bag. T7.7 For A1 basic knowledge of the dry suit and at least 1 dive with dry suit For A2 and A3 skills and extensive knowledge of the dry suit 10.1.2. Diving work with SSE For the assessment to obtain the personal diving work certificate, the candidate's professional competence is: a) in category B1 tested against the assessment criteria for the personal diving work certificate in category A2, and; b) in category B2, B3 or B4 tested against the test criteria for the diving work personal certificate in category A3, each of which is supplemented with the following relevant assessment criteria: T8 The candidate uses and maintains equipment for breathing gas supply from the surface Skills and T8.1 extensive knowledge with regard to equipment with regard with breathing to construction gas supply workfrom andthe rigging surface, all this geared to use up to and including the maximum depth belonging to the category of the requested certificate: B1: maximum 15 meters B2: maximum 30 meters B3: maximum 50 meters B4: maximum 50 meters from an open Machine Translated by Google diving bell T8.2 For B1, B2, B3 and B4: Extensive knowledge of the theory of the functioning of the breathing gas supply of the surface and composition of the breathing gas T9 The candidate participates in the functioning of the diving team in which diving with SSE, supports other divers in the performance of their work and acts as a reserve diver T9.1 Skills and extensive knowledge of communication with divers in various situations during the diving operation, all this geared to use up to and including the maximum depth belonging to the category of the requested certificate. T9.2 Skills and extensive knowledge and skills with regard to the support of divers in the performance of their activities, all this geared to use up to and including the maximum depth belonging to the category of the requested certificate. T9.3 Skills and extensive knowledge regarding Machine Translated by Google emergency procedures and participation as a reserve diver in the diving team, all this geared to use up to and including the maximum depth belonging to the category of the requested certificate. T10 The candidate recognizes the dangers of diving with surface breathing gas and implements the relevant safety measures and emergency procedures T10.1 Extensive knowledge of the behavior of breathing gaseswhen pressure underusing positive SSE Extensive knowledge of T10.2 the relevant laws and regulations T10.3 For B1: Carrying out safety and emergency procedures in a case involving (simulated) working with hand tools: a) checking equipment and preparing it for use b) performing and undergoing pre-dive and post-dive checks c) diver in distress from a safely raise a depth of 9 meters d) switch to bail-out facility followed by an ascent from a depth of 9 meters For B2 and B3: Executing safety and Machine Translated by Google emergency procedures in a case in which (simulated) work is carried out with powered tools: a) checking equipment and preparing it for use b) performing and undergoing predive and postdive checks c) diver in distress from a safely raise a depth of 9 meters d) switch to bail-out facility followed by an ascent from a depth of 9 meters For B4: Executing safety and emergency procedures in a case of working from an open diving bell (simulated) with powered tools: a) checking equipment and preparing it for use b) performing and undergoing pre-dive and post-dive checks c) into a diver at a depth of 12 meters bring emergency into the open diving bell safely at a depth of 9 meters and carry out procedures T10.4 For B1: Skills and extensive knowledge from decompression guidelines and decompression methods for diving up to a Machine Translated by Google depth of 15 meters For B2, B3 and B4: Skills and extensive knowledge of decompression guidelines and decompression methods including the operation and operation of the compression tank T10.5 For B4: Skills and extensive knowledge related to the open diving bell, including emergency procedures T11 The candidate performs various activities under water and uses several types of equipment with breathing gas supply from the surface, auxiliary equipment and various tools T11.1 Diving experience with SSE according to the schedule for categories B1, B2, B3 or B4 is required in the training curriculum as shown in chapter 8 of this certification scheme T11.2 For B1: Performing a descent to a depth of 9 meters For B2 and B3: Performing a descent to 20 meters followed by an ascent with inwater decompression For B4: Performing a descent and ascent using an open water diving bell coupled with inwater decompression T11.3 For B2, B3 and B4 Skills and extensive knowledge regarding the use Machine Translated by Google of a underwater camera T11.4 For B2, B3 and B4: Skills and extensive knowledge of mechanical, hydraulic and electrical underwater tools T11.5 For B3 and B4: Elementary knowledge of the theory with related to dynamic positioning systems 10.1.3. Diving work with a closed bell The professional competence of the candidate is tested against the following additional test criteria in order to obtain the personal certificate for diving work in category C: T12 The candidate has extensive knowledge in the field of physics, physiology and acute and chronic diving diseases in relation to diving work in which saturation occurs in the diver's body T12.1 Extensive knowledge of the physical theory of the use of mixture gas and its consequences for the anatomy T12.2 Skills and extensive knowledge of the functioning of the diving crew when using mixture gas and saturation T13 Candidate operates for himself and others the equipment used in closed bell diving and saturation diving Extensive T13.1 theoretical knowledge with pertaining to the Machine Translated by Google saturation system, including gas systems, gas monitoring, firefighting, sanitation systems, communications and emergency procedures T13.2 Skills and basic knowledge at regarding the operation of a compression tank and the performance of all necessary procedures T13.3 Skills and extensive theoretical knowledge at regarding the closed diving bell, including gas systems, scrubbers, heating, communications and the ballast T13.4 Skills and extensive knowledge regarding the operation of the closed diving bell including carrying out the necessary checks T14 The candidate recognizes the dangers of using the closed diving bell and carries out the relevant safety measures and emergency procedures. Extensive T14.1 theoretical knowledge equipment is usedand or simulated. one dive in which survival T14.2 Extensive knowledge of the relevant laws and regulations T15 The candidate is skilled in carrying out the procedures for entry and exit Machine Translated by Google (lock-out) and pressurized transportation of the T15.1 surfaceExperience and dive crew as aon member both bounce and saturation dives T15.2 Diving experience with a open diving bell according to the schedule for category C is required in the training curriculum as shown in chapter 8 'Entrance requirements' of this certification scheme 10.2. Structure of the exam Compliance with the test criteria is assessed by an exam administered by the CKI. The exam consists of each of the following parts: 1. portfolio assessment; 2. theory exam; 3. practical exam. 10.2.1. Portfolio Review The diving proficiency is assessed by a document examination during the portfolio assessment against the test criteria T7.1, T11.1 and T15.2. The candidate's certificate of completed diving training as well as his diver logbook must demonstrate that the candidate has completed at least the diving minutes and diving exercises required in the training curriculum. The educational institution can provide the CKI with a student tracking system or test card, which provides the CKI with insight into: description of each operation that is part of the training a) done; b) presence of the candidate during all theoretical and practical parts of the training; c) indication of details; d) an assessment; e) an indication of the learning progress; f) Interim evaluations signed off by the instructor. Machine Translated by Google If the candidate's diving skills are assessed as unsatisfactory in the context of the entrance criteria for the exam, the certification must be refused or it must be prescribed as a measure that the candidate supplements his diving skills in the context of diving training that meets the quality requirements. 10.2.2. Theory exam SCUBA The theory exam for diving work in category A1, A2 and A3 consists of 6 subjects, which are subdivided into main and secondary subjects: 1. Diving diseases (major subject); 2. Decompression (major subject); 3. Diving general (major subject); 4. Safety , legislation and regulations (major subject); 5. Physics (subject); 6. Seamanship (secondary subject). The theory test must be aligned by the CKI to the category of certification requested by the candidate. If parts of the theory do not apply to the category, these parts will lapse. In the exam subjects, the candidate must demonstrate his knowledge of the relevant test terms: Main subjects of the Test terms theory exam Diving diseases T1.2 Decompression T6.3 Diving general T4.1; T2.1; T2.2; T2.3; T3.1; T5.1; T6.2; T6.4;; T7.3; T7.4; T7.5; T7.6 Safety, legal and T6.1; T6.5subjects regulations of the Minor theory exam Physics T1.1 Seamanship T2.1; T6.6; T6.7 The exam lasts a maximum of 40 minutes for each subject. If the courses are taken consecutively, there is a 5- minute break after each course. In an exam consisting of several subjects, a 15-minute break is taken every 85 minutes, namely after 2 subjects and 1 short break. The exam can be spread over partial exams. 10.2.3. Theory exam SSE Machine Translated by Google The theory exam for diving work in category B consists of 4 subjects, which are subdivided into main and secondary subjects: 1. Decompression (major subject); 2. Diving general (major subject); 3. Safety, Law and Regulations (major subject) 4. Physics (secondary subject). In the exam subjects, the candidate must have knowledge of the test criteria demonstrate: Main subjects of the Test terms theory exam Decompression T10.4 Diving general T8.1; T8.2;T9.1; T9.2; T9.3; T10.5; T11.3; T11.4; T11.5 Safety, law and T10.2; T10.5 regulations and organization Minor subjects of the theory exam Physics T10.1 The exam lasts a maximum of 40 minutes for each subject. If the courses are taken consecutively, there is a 5-minute break after each course. In an exam consisting of several subjects, a 15-minute break is taken every 85 minutes, namely after 2 subjects and 1 short break. The exam can be spread over partial exams. 10.2.4. Theory exam Closed diving bell The theory exam for diving work in category C consists of 4 subjects, which are subdivided into main and secondary subjects: 1. Decompression (major subject); 2. Closed diving bell operation (main compartment); 3. Safety, legislation and regulations (major subject); 4. Physics (secondary subject). In the examination subjects, the candidate must demonstrate his knowledge of the test criteria: Main subjects of the Test terms theory exam Decompression Operation closed T13.1; T13.2; T13.3; T12.2 Machine Translated by Google diving bell T13.4; T15.1 Safety, law and T14.1; T14.2 regulations and organization Minor subjects of the theory exam Physics T12.1 The exam lasts a maximum of 40 minutes for each subject. If the courses are taken consecutively, there is a 5- minute break after each course. In an exam consisting of several subjects, a 15-minute break is taken every 85 minutes, namely after 2 subjects and 1 short break. The exam can be spread over partial exams. 10.2.5. Practical exam The candidate is admitted when the portfolio assessment has been completed with a satisfactory result. The practical exams must be organized by the CKI in such a way that they meet the following criteria: Practical exam A1 Key terms: A5.2 and A7.2 Location: Diving tower or conditioned diving pool Components: In a case with (simulated) work in connection with a diving crew: 1. Check and prepare equipment prepare to use 2. Complete and perform full pre-dive and post-dive checks 3. Descend to 9 meters and trim appropriately 4. Safely raise a diver in distress from a depth of 9 meters 5. Controlled perform ascent Machine Translated by Google from a depth of 9 meter Practical exam A2 Same as for A1, but in addition to this in a case with (simulated) work with hand tools in the context of a diving team. Practical exam A3 Same as for A1 and in addition to this: 1. a descent to a depth of 20 meters followed by an ascent with inwater decompression; 2. in a case involving (simulated) work with hoists or a lift bag in the context of a diving team. Practical exam B1 Key terms: T10.3 and Location: T11.2 Diving tower or conditioned diving pool Components: In a case involving (simulated) work with hand tools in the context of a diving crew: 1. Check equipment and prepare it for use 2. Complete and perform full pre-dive and post- dive checks 3. Descend to 9 meters 4. Safely raise a diver in distress from a depth of 9 meters 5. From a depth of 9 meters switch to bail-out and make an ascent. Machine Translated by Google Practical exam B2 Same as for B1 and in addition to this: 1. a descent to a depth of 20 meters followed by an ascent with inwater decompression; 2. in a case with (simulated) work with powered tools in the context of a diving crew. Practical exam B3 Same as for B2. Practical exam B4 Key terms: T10.3 and T11.2 Location: open water Components: In a case with simulated emergency procedure in connection with a diving crew: 1. perform a bell check and before prepare for use; 2. undergo and perform full predive and postdive checks; 3. make descent with an open diving bell at a depth of 9 meters to a depth of 12 meters; 4. At a depth of 12 meters, safely place a diver in distress in the open diving bell at 9 meters and carry out procedures. Portfolio assessment C For category C, the CKI carries out a portfolio assessment if this shows that the candidate has been tested during his or her study programme. 10.3. Result rule of the exam Machine Translated by Google The withdrawal rule is further laid down by the CKI in the implementing decree. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms for recertification The following test terms apply for the subsequent issue of the legally required personal diving work certificate: H 1 The candidate works as a diver and carries out work underwater H1.1 Continuous diving experience of at least 20 dives in 24 months for subcategory A1 and A2 or at least 30 dives in 24 months for the other subcategories A and B. For category C, a bell run (closed bell) was made at least 10 times in 24 months, 5 times acting as a bell man and 5 times a lock out was made. H 2 The candidate has knowledge and understanding of relating to the performance of (emergency) procedures within the scope of subcategory H2.1 General: Procedures for the rescue of a diver in distress. For A1, A2 and B1: Elevating a diver in distress from a maximum depth of 9 meters. A3, B2, B3 and B4: Carrying out current safety and (emergency) procedures For C: Machine Translated by Google Current safety and (emergency) procedures to carry out. 11.2. Test method Compliance with test term H1 is assessed on the basis of the diver's logbook. Compliance with test term H2.1 is tested at least once every four years by an examiner from the CKI. If the certificate holder has certificates in several categories, one recertification for the most extensive scope will suffice. Any diving team leader who: reports the performance of the exercises to the CKI in advance; signs off the performed exercises stating his role as 1) 2) examiner; 3) has received prior training and instruction about performing and examining the exercises; 4) meets the requirements set for the professional competence of a diving team leader as stated in the certification scheme WOD-L, which the diving team leader can demonstrate by submitting a personal certificate issued by a CKI or a comparable certificate of professional competence. If the diver log review shows that the certificate holder does not meet the requirements for recertification, the certificate holder must complete a practical examination as required for initial certification. 11.3. Pass of the rating The recertification is granted if the practical experience demonstrated with the diving log and exercises assessed by the CKI meet the test criteria H1 and H2. 12. Certificate The certificate must contain at least the following information: 1. name of the certified person; 2. unambiguous certificate number; 3. name, registration number Chamber of Commerce, and logo of the CKI; 4. name and logo Stichting Werken under Overdruk 5. reference to the designation order of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment; reference to the standard document WSCS-WOD-D, Personal Certificate 6. diving work; 7. category and conditions of validity of the certified professional competence; 8. effective date of the certificate and the date on which the validity ends. Machine Translated by Google The certificate will contain the text that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements of the standard document WSCS-WOD-D Personal Certificate Diving Work and as a result is competent as a diver to perform diving work with the equipment in the category of certificate. The text also states whether the certificate was issued on the basis of an initial certification or a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to: 1. The certificate holder remains active in diving work; 2. The certificate holder makes at least 20 dives in the subcategory A1, A2 and B1 or for the other subcategories at least 30 dives in every 24 month period. For category C, a bell run (closed bell) was made at least 10 times in 24 months, 5 times acting as a bell man and 5 times a lock out was made. Failure to meet these conditions may result in the certificate being suspended or revoked. Annex XVId. belonging to Article 6.5, paragraph 4 Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Medical Supervisor Document: WSCS-WOD-B Index 1 Introduction 2 Definitions 3 Field-specific characteristics 3.1 General 3.2 Description of the scheme 3.3 Active parties 3.4 Risk analysis and infringement criteria 4 Certification Regulations Machine Translated by Google 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Validity period of the certificate 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints procedure 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 4.10 Application for the certificate upon re-entry 5 Exam regulations 5.1 General 5.2 Implementation of the exam 5.3 Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff 5.4 Requirements for the exam 6 Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency of supervision 6.3 Implementation of supervision 6.4 Report of findings 6.5 Measures 6.6 Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate 7 Subject of the certification 8 Entry criteria 9 Attainment targets 10 Test method at initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Assessment method Machine Translated by Google 10.3 Result rule of the exam 11 Recertification 11.1 Test terms for recertification 11.2 Assessment method 11.3 Pass of the rating 12 Certificate 13 Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure'. It concerns certification in the field of diving medical supervision in a diving team. This schedule has been approved by the Foundation for Working under Overpressure and has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This scheme supersedes previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns acting as a diving medical supervisor. The personal certificate for diving medical supervisor is required by law on the basis of Article 6.16 paragraph 7 of the Working Conditions Decree. The diving medical attendant is part of the diving team and supports the person who carries out diving work. In accordance with Article 6.13 paragraph 1 under letter a of the Working Conditions Decree, diving work is understood to mean performing work in a liquid or in a closed diving bell, including the stay in that liquid or in that closed diving bell, where respiration is used. of a gas at a pressure higher than atmospheric pressure. The certification system of the certification body must be structured in accordance with the requirements of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. 2. Definitions It is possible that some defined terms or abbreviations do not appear literally in the text of the certification scheme, but these terms or abbreviations are nevertheless included in the list of definitions in connection with the fact that the management foundation and the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment use these terms or abbreviations. directly related to this certification scheme. If the definitions in this document deviate from the definitions in NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 and mandatory documents, the definitions in this document apply. Machine Translated by Google Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate applies to the certification body to issue a certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs business and Employment opportunities. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the Minister of Social Affairs business and Employment established Field-specific document for designation and supervision, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing to SZW and the concerned CKIs or the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates. When establishing the Field- specific document for designation and supervision by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is linked as much as possible to Machine Translated by Google international system and standards. management foundation : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. Caisson labour : Carrying out work in a space that is under a pressure of is at least 10 4 Pa above atmospheric pressure and is wholly or partly surrounded by a liquid, as well as the residence in and transport to and from that space (Working Conditions Decree 6.13). CCvD WOD : The Central Board of Experts, part of and facilitated by the management foundation, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or branch the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Central : Commission within the Examination Board structure of the management foundation that develops and manages a central item bank. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Commodities Act . In addition Machine Translated by Google a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : The (legal) person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assess and decide whether a (legal) person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including quality assurance. Certification and : Calibration or inspection body Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The border between the Machine Translated by Google highest test score with an unsatisfactory and the lowest test score to which a sufficient. Competence : Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal characteristics, as defined in the certification scheme. Compression chamber : Pressure vessel suitable or tank for human accommodation to support diving and overpressure work, both for controlled decompression and for the treatment of decompression symptoms and/or overpressure trauma, other than a hyperbaric treatment room. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister. Dive (operational): Any immersion in a liquid or in a closed diving bell where a gas under positive pressure is used for breathing and where, in the context of a diving team, work under become overpressured Machine Translated by Google conducted. Diving work : performing work in a liquid or in a dry diving bell including the stay in that liquid or in that dry diving bell, where respiration is made using a gas at a pressure higher than atmospheric pressure (Working Conditions Decree 6.13). Dive bell, closed or : dry A submersible room, including the directly with it connected parts up to the provision for connection with other equipment, lockable by means of one or two doors, intended for the transport of divers between the sub workplace and the surface or surface-located compression chamber. Dive bell, open or wet : Half open diving bell which is provided with a dry room filled with breathing gas where (in case of emergency) breathing can be taken. Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as Machine Translated by Google previous education and work experience, which the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to help the individual candidate to be able to assess the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the CKI. Examiner : The individual who acts on behalf of the CKI assessment of the candidate's examination work. Hyperbaric treatment room : or One in a hospital medical institution permanently installed compression chamber, intended for treatment of patients under overpressure according to a treatment protocol prescribed by a doctor. Candidate : The individual who takes the exam to obtain the Machine Translated by Google personal certificate. Portfolio : A (digital) personal folder with an inventory of personal competencies, substantiated with evidence, related to a standard and provided with a personal step-by-step plan. Risk analysis : Analysis from which motivation, for choices to be made in field-specific problem area appears to be included in the intended certification scheme. Saturation Diving Work under overpressure where, related to time and depth, the body tissues are saturated with inert gas (saturation diving). SCUBA : Self contained underwater breathing apparatus, being a collective name for diving equipment that is characterized by supply of breathing gas from cylinders carried by the diver. SSE : Surface supplied equipment, being a collective name for diving equipment that is characterized by supplying breathing gas from the surface. Supervision : Collection of information by SZW or the CKI on the question of whether Machine Translated by Google an act or matter meets the requirements of CKI resp. requirements set by the certificate holder, the subsequent formation of an opinion on this and, if necessary, intervene as a result. Field of competence : Indication of the field of work, the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a certain field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must comply with to be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WDAT-WOD-P : Field specific document for Designation and Supervision of a certification body and charged with personal certification in the field of works Machine Translated by Google under overpressure. Document: WDAT-WOD-P. WSCS : Term used for a certification scheme issued by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is accepted for use within a specific designation as a certification body for persons, products or systems. WSCS-WOD-A : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diver doctor. Document: WSCS-WOD-A. WSCS-WOD-B : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Medical Supervisor. Document: WSCS-WOD-B. WSCS-WOD-D : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work. Document: WSCS-WOD-D. WSCS-WOD-E : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work performed by the fire service. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-F : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader at the fire brigade. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-L : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader. Document: WSCS-WOD-L. Machine Translated by Google 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. General Diving work is a risky professional activity. In order to safeguard the public interest – safety and health in and around work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for assuring the professional competence of persons who provide diving medical supervision. 3.2. Description of the scheme This field-specific certification scheme is referred to as WSCS-WOD-B. The certification scheme has been approved as a management foundation by the Working under Overpressure Foundation (SWOD) and presented to the Ministry of Social Affairs. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines the schedule. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can make changes to the established documents. This scheme supersedes previous versions. Comments about the certification scheme can be submitted to the Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure'. 3.3. Active parties Within the framework of this certification scheme, the following are active: •. designated certification bodies (CKIs); •. Working under overpressure foundation (SWOD) as a management foundation; •. Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure', as a board of experts from the management foundation (CCvD WOD). 3.4. Risk analysis and detriment criteria The risks when performing diving work are in the areas of: •. diving work: – diving diseases and long-term effects; – properties of the breathing gas; •. safety of work equipment: – dependence on diving equipment; – injury from the use of hand tools and electrical, hydraulic and mechanical tools; •. safe layout of the dive sites: – low temperature, darkness, visibility limitation and current in the surroundings; – other activities above the dive site, such as lifting, loading and unload; – shipping traffic and traffic over bridges and quays; – dependence on the diving crew; – distance to medical assistance; Machine Translated by Google •. other risks: – exposure to hazardous substances and biological agents; – physical strain; – working and rest times. The individual risk factors often occur in combination and by definition in combination with immersion in water. The consequences of an incident can therefore be very serious. In practice, compliance with legal and regulatory requirements and the use of proper diving and caisson equipment appear to be the most important factors in preventing incidents. These incidents can be further prevented by: •. basic knowledge of physics, physiology and diving diseases; •. knowledge of operational diving procedures, safety measures and the functioning of the diving crew; •. dive medical assistance at the dive site in case of crisis situations. The person who performs diving work is dependent on equipment and on the other members of the diving team. The dive site is often far from medical assistance and specific complications can arise in relation to diving. The diving medical supervisor in the diving team is able to provide immediate assistance in the event of an emergency. A more extensive risk analysis is included in the document Work field-specific document for the designation and supervision of the certifying bodies charged with personal certification in the field of working under overpressure (WDAT-WOD-P). 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes the procedures for the application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions relating to certification, issuing certificates, procedures for carrying out assessments, handling complaints and submitting requests for review. . 4.2. Certification procedure In accordance with these certification regulations, the applicant submits an application for the Personal Certificate for Diving Medical Attendant at a certifying institution (CKI). The certification body then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is made by an officer of the certification body who has not been involved in the assessment of the candidates. He is for that Machine Translated by Google qualified and appointed in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the certification body has on the basis of the field-specific scheme for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate The validity period of the certificate of limited diving medical supervisor (first aid diving work), diving medical supervisor (mad A) and extended diving medical supervisor (mad B) is two calendar years on the basis of the risk analysis. The risks of the work are limited by practical skill in the operations, familiarity with the working environment and familiarity with the functioning of a diving team. After four years, the certificate holder follows a refresher course and has to take another theoretical and practical exam. The refresher training and examination is necessary, because the professional competence concerns activities that are only applied in emergency situations and in which the certificate holder normally does not gain practical experience. For the extended diving medical attendant (mad B), the validity is limited to 1 year on the basis of other laws and regulations due to the reserved medical procedures. 4.5. Validity conditions Further conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If the conditions are not met, this will have consequences for the certificate. The conditions and the manner of supervision thereof by the certification body are described in part II of the certification scheme. 4.6. Complaints procedure 4.6.1. Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. 4.6.2. Complaints about the company or person Machine Translated by Google If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. 4.6.3. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. Machine Translated by Google If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure 4.7.1. Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. 4.7.2. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure “objection procedure”, an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: – name and address of submitter – date Machine Translated by Google – a description of the contested decision – the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. 4.7.3. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. 4.7.4. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. Machine Translated by Google •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. 4.7.5. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The certification body registers the details of the certificate holder. This data is sent electronically at least as often as changes occur to the management foundation. The agreement with the certification body will prescribe the digital format for the supply of data so that the data can be used for the SWOD Certificate Register. This register is set up in accordance with legal provisions and is made accessible via the internet. The management foundation is responsible for the management of the register, but bears no liability for any imperfections. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure' must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field- specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, certification bodies or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, different interpretations must be submitted to the Board. 4.10. Application for the certificate upon re-entry The candidate who has a certificate whose validity has expired and/or does not meet the requirements for the recertification procedure must apply for an initial certification. The CKI then proceeds to determine the theory exam and/or practical exam with which the professional competence of the candidate can be tested. The candidate for extended diving medical supervisor (mad B) must undergo a practical internship in a hospital in order to be allowed to do reserved actions, followed by a practical exam by the supervising doctor. In any case, the candidate must meet the entry requirements. The CKI takes the following into account: 1) training for first aid diving work, mad A, or mad B on the basis of which the candidate was previously found competent; 2) current work experience relevant to the position as (limited/extensive) diving medical attendant; Machine Translated by Google 3) historical experience as a (limited/extensive) diving medical supervisor as evidenced by a complete and correctly administered report of his activities in the recent past. 5. Exam Regulations 5.1. General These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the Personal Certificate of Diving Medical Supervisor (WSCS-WOD-B). The exam regulations are part of WSCS-WOD-B. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the certifying institution and consists of the following components: •. practical exam •. theory exam The exam is administered by the certifying institution. 5.2. Execution of the exam The certifying institution further defines its working method with regard to the examinations in an implementing decree with regard to the examination regulations. The implementing decree contains at least the following provisions: 1) Certificate Effective Date 2) Entrance requirements for taking the exam 3) Application procedure 4) Confirmation of participation and call 5) Identification of the participants 6) Admission and absence 7) Exam duration and method of examination 8) Rules of conduct for candidates 9) Adjusted exam arrangement 10) Pass and Reject Standards 11) Announcement of the result 12) Retention period 13) Right of access 14) Validity period 15) Chances and resits of an exam (component) 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff The examination staff must comply with the general and professional requirements as well as independence requirements set out in the Field Specific Document for Designation and Supervision for Certification Bodies in Person Certification (WDAT-WOD-P). Machine Translated by Google In addition to the WDAT-WOD-P, the examiner involved in the assessment of the practical skills demonstration and the practical final examination has the following requirements, demonstrating expertise: 1. Is demonstrably expert in the field of first aid diving work and diving medical supervision. In the event that the examiner dives during the exam, he must have the personal certificate diving medical supervisor (WSCS-WOD-B). In the event that the examiner is in charge of diving, he must have the Personal Certificate Diving Team Leader (WSCS-WOD-L). 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. seclusion The employees of the certifying institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers. Confidentiality is maintained by the certifying institution. 5.4.2. General rules The requirements for the exam location for the theory exam are: •. absolute tranquility and a pleasant and ventilated indoor climate with adequate lighting; •. sanitary facilities for use during breaks; •. sufficient space for the reception of the candidates before, during and after the exam; •. individual work tables) with chairs for the candidates with equal spaces of at least 1 meter in width and length are arranged; •. spacious work table with chair for the examiner or invigilator, so that the assignments can be handed out without any problems and the answers can be taken carefully. The requirements with regard to the exam resources for the theory exam are: •. a bundled examination paper for each individual candidate; •. sufficient paper and possibly forms for the elaboration; •. sufficient writing materials and possibly calculators for each individual candidate, unless the candidates are obliged to bring this themselves. The theory exam is taken in the Dutch language. The theory exam is in principle administered in writing. Taking an exam in any other way requires the prior consent of the Central Board of Experts. At the indication of the certifying institution, the exam is conducted in English for candidates with foreign pre-qualifications. The requirements with regard to the facilities for the practical exam are elaborated by the certifying institution. The certifying body supervises the correct layout, maintenance and correct use of the facilities. The certifying body can carry out checks for this. Machine Translated by Google 6. Supervision 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The certification body is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder continues to meet the requirements. Although the certification body does not normally carry out interim supervision due to the limited period of validity of two calendar years, the certification body must carry out interim supervision. Under other laws and regulations, a continuous annual professional experience is required for the extended diving medical attendant in order to be allowed to perform reserved medical procedures. The CKI must carry out interim supervision of this. These situations are further elaborated in section 6.2. The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the certification body, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The agreement between the certification body and the certificate holder includes the provisions necessary for this purpose, which include at least the following obligations of the certificate holder: 1) cooperate at the request of the certification body to carry out an interim assessment of practical activities; 2) to comply with the above-mentioned request within 6 weeks; 3) to give permission to the certifying institution to provide the report of findings as referred to in section 6.4 and other known information to the SZW Inspectorate in the event of suspension, withdrawal or refusal of the certificate, as well as situations identified in which there is a risk to safety and health of employees or third parties during activities that are regulated by a certificate issued or yet to be issued. 6.2. Frequency of supervision The CKI carries out interim checks if necessary. The CKI must in any event check a certificate holder in the interim in the following situations: 1) if there is a serious suspicion of dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; following a serious complaint from an interested party such as 2) referred to in paragraph 4.6.2 and further; 3) on specific indication of the Inspectorate SZW. The risks of the work are limited by practical skill in the operations, familiarity with the working environment and familiarity with the functioning of a diving team. After two calendar years, the certificate holder follows a refresher course and has to take another theoretical and practical exam. The refresher training and examination is necessary, because the professional competence Machine Translated by Google concerns operations that are only applied in emergency situations and in which the certificate holder normally does not gain practical experience. 6.3. Implementation of supervision 6.3.1. Implementation plan The CKI draws up a plan for carrying out an audit as referred to in paragraph 6.2. The plan describes at least: 1) reason for the check; 2) manner in which the check is carried out; 3) manner in which the certificate holder must cooperate with the inspection. The plan is communicated to the certificate holder in writing. The certificate holder must cooperate in carrying out the check within six weeks of the announcement. 6.3.2. Assessment of a practical operation If the certification body deems the assessment of a practical operation necessary, then the choice of the required performance must be substantiated in proportion to the reason for the audit and the attainment targets and test criteria of the certification scheme. The implementation plan can be drawn up in consultation with the certificate holder and also describes the time and location of the inspection. The practical operation involved in the audit must be assessed in accordance with the requirements of the certification scheme. 6.4. Report of findings The certifying body prepares a report of the findings as a result of the checks in the context of the interim supervision. The report discusses: 1) reason for the check; 2) manner in which the audit was performed; 3) findings and results of the audit; 4) shortcomings that can be corrected by further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination; 5) anticipated consequences for the certificate holder at the time of recertification; 6) any measure imposed. Machine Translated by Google The report is made available to the certificate holder. The certificate holder may submit a request for review in accordance with paragraph 4.7 against any measure imposed. 6.5. Measures 6.5.1. Suspension The certification body decides to suspend a certificate if the certificate holder: 1) does not cooperate in carrying out an assessment of practical activities within six weeks of a request to that effect; 2) temporarily does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate such as referred to in Article 1.5e, fourth of the Working Conditions Decree; 3) temporarily forms a dangerous situation during activities that are regulated by an issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or can be endangered as referred to in Article 1.5e fifth of the Working Conditions Decree; 4) fail to fulfill its financial obligations towards the certification body and the management foundation complies; 5) misuses the logo of the management foundation or the certifying institution. If it appears that the certificate holder has a temporary shortcoming as referred to under points 2 and 3, he will be given the opportunity within a reasonable period of time to correct the shortcoming through further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination. The suspension will be lifted if the certificate holder has corrected the shortcoming. The suspension is further lifted if the certificate holder has complied with the obligations referred to under points 1 and 4 or has ceased the misuse of the logo and has repaired any damage. The suspension as well as the lifting of the suspension will be immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.2. Withdrawal The certification body decides to revoke a certificate if the certificate holder: 1) has not complied with the correction of a shortcoming that has been made known to him in the context of a suspension; 2) demonstrably no longer meets the validity conditions of the certificate as referred to in Article 1.5e, fourth of the Working Conditions Decree; 3) demonstrably constitutes a dangerous situation with activities that are regulated by an issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or can be endangered as referred to in Article 1.5e fifth of the Working Conditions Decree; 4) has been guilty of exam fraud; Machine Translated by Google 5) was ultimately judicially convicted of offenses in which he made serious mistakes or, through his own fault, seriously failed to comply with safety aspects in the performance of diving activities. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the certification body must indicate and register that certification is allowed again after one calendar year. A request for recertification can be submitted one year after withdrawal of the certificate. Prior to issuing a certificate, the certifying body must verify in the central register whether there has been a revocation with the associated waiting period. The withdrawal is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.3. Refusal The certification body decides to refuse a certificate if the certificate holder: 1) demonstrably does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate as referred to in Article 1.5e, fourth of the Working Conditions Decree; 2) demonstrably constitutes a dangerous situation with activities that are regulated by a certificate yet to be issued and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or can be endangered as referred to in Article 1.5e fifth of the Working Conditions Decree. The refusal of a recertification is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.6. Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate The certification body must immediately report the facts known to it with regard to a candidate or certificate holder to the Inspectorate SZW in the following cases: 1) suspension of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.1; 2) revocation of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.2; 3) refusal of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.3. 7. Subject of the certification The professional competence that is certified concerns the participation in a diving team as a diving medical supervisor. The diving medical attendant supports the diver in performing diving work. For the purposes of this document, diving work is understood to mean performing work in a liquid or in a closed diving bell, including the stay in that liquid or in that closed diving bell, whereby for breathing a gas under a higher pressure than atmospheric is used. pressure. Machine Translated by Google The diving team that supports the diver in performing diving work consists of at least the diver, a reserve diver and a diving team leader. A person with the qualifications as a diving medical attendant must also be present in the diving team. Usually the diving team leader acts as a diving medical supervisor, but this function can also be performed by another member of the diving team other than the diver or the reserve diver. The certification scheme describes the requirements for: •. the person who is competent in providing limited diving medical supervision: First Aid Diving Work (WSCS-WOD-B-B1) ; •. the person competent in providing diving medical supervision (mad A) (WSCS- WOD-B-B2); •. the person who is competent in providing comprehensive diving medical supervision with the endorsement that he is authorized to perform reserved medical procedures (mad B) (WSCS-WOD-B-B3). 8. Entry Criteria There is no entry criterion for the certification of limited diving medical supervision (WSCS-WOD-B-B1) with limitation to diving work. Meeting the entry criteria for the Dive Medical Attendant (WSCS-WOD-B-B2) is assessed by portfolio review of the documents submitted by the candidate. The documents consist of: 1. a first aid diploma with a CPR certificate or another document showing that the candidate has followed training in first aid; 2. proof of admission to a theoretical and practical training course, including practical hours as a diving medical supervisor, whereby it applies that the training institution for this training course is recognized by the CKI on the basis of quality requirements made known in advance, according to a published list. In order to obtain the endorsement of authorization to perform comprehensive diving medical supervision (WSCS-WOD-B-B3) with reserved medical procedures (mad B), the portfolio assessment is extended with the examination of the following additional documents: 1. a valid personal diving medical attendant certificate (mad A) or comparable certificate of professional competence; 2. proof of admission to a theoretical and practical training course as an extended diving medical supervisor with authorization to perform reserved medical procedures, whereby it applies that the training institution for this training is recognized by the CKI according to a published list on the basis of quality requirements made known in advance It is the task of the certifying institution to determine whether and to what extent a training for first aid diving work completed abroad, mad A or mad B, is recognized in the Netherlands. As an extension of this, the certifying institution can determine which possible additions to the training level of the candidate are necessary in order to be classified. Machine Translated by Google The candidate must submit the documents in full to the certifying body. To prevent fraud with certificates, the candidate must always be able to present a valid proof of identity. The certification body may nevertheless take the initiative to verify the documents with the authority that issued the documents. The certifying institution may instruct the candidate to provide further details of his training for first aid diving work, mad A or mad B, in order to assess the level of this training. This data may consist of the contact details of the training institution and trainers and the curriculum of the training. If the certifying institution does not have data to assess the level of the training, the training will not be recognised. 9. Attainment targets The following attainment targets (WSCS-WOD-B-B1) apply to the restricted diving medical supervisor with a limitation to diving work in basins (first aid diving work): 1.1 he is able to administer first aid procedures and cardiopulmonary resuscitation to suit; 1.2 he has knowledge of the medical risks associated with diving and is in able to take preventive measures; 1.3 he has knowledge of physics and has extensive knowledge of anatomy and physiology; 1.4 he is able to recognize the symptoms of diving diseases; 1.5 he is able to administer first aid treatment of basic diving medical conditions; The following attainment targets apply to the diving medical attendant (mad A) (WSCS-WOD-B B2): 2.1 he is able to administer first aid procedures and cardiopulmonary resuscitation to suit; 2.2 he has knowledge of the medical risks associated with diving and is in state to take preventive measures; 2.3 he has knowledge of physics and has extensive knowledge of anatomy and physiology; 2.4 he is able to recognize the symptoms of diving diseases and basic perform physical and neurological examinations; 2.5 he is capable of the first aid treatment of diving medical conditions to fit; In order to obtain the endorsement of competence in performing reserved medical procedures (mad B), the candidate also meets the following attainment targets (WSCS-WOD-B-B3): 3.1 he is able to perform a comprehensive physical examination; 3.2 he is able to perform reserved medical procedures; Machine Translated by Google 3.3 he has practical experience in providing diving medical supervision and performing reserved medical procedures. 10. Testing methodology for initial certification The professional competence requirements are presented as attainment targets and are elaborated in test terms in the next chapter. The description of the final and test objectives refers to elementary knowledge and extensive knowledge. These indications of the level of knowledge are interpreted in this certification scheme as follows: Elementary or basic: the candidate knows the core concepts and main lines of thought of the theory of this area of expertise, so that he is aware of the main practical facts Extended: the candidate masters the theory of this area of knowledge, through which he is familiar with backgrounds of the practical application by himself or by others 10.1. Key terms The certifying institution uses a standard method to assess whether the candidate meets the attainment targets. The following test terms (WSCS-WOD-B-B1) 2.1 up to and including 2.6 apply to the restricted diving medical attendant (first aid diving work), but with the exception of the test terms 2.4.2 and 2.5.1. The professional competence of the candidate diving medical supervisor (mad A) is tested against the following test criteria (WSCS-WOD-B-B2): 2.1 The candidate applies first aid procedures and cardiopulmonary resuscitation 2.1.1 Extensive knowledge and of the course practical material exercises related to Machine Translated by Google first aid diving work 2.1.2 Extensive knowledge of the teaching material and practice exercises related to cardiopulmonary resuscitation 2.2 The candidate knows the medical risks related to diving and is aware of preventive measures 2.2.1 Extensive knowledge of the specific medical risks related to diving work 2.2.2 Extensive knowledge of accident prevention and acute and chronic diving diseases 2.3 The candidate has basic knowledge of physics and has extensive knowledge of anatomy and physiology Extensive knowledge of 2.3.1 anatomy and physiology 2.3.2 Basic knowledge of the physical aspects of diving work 2.4 The candidate diagnoses diving diseases and performs physical examination 2.4.1 Basic knowledge of diagnosing diving diseases 2.4.2 Basic knowledge of performing a physical examination including neurological examination 2.5 The candidate starts the treatment of disorders 2.5.1 Extensive knowledge of the treatment of decompression sickness and pulmonary embolism 2.5.2 Extensive knowledge of how to use the Machine Translated by Google oxygen case 2.6 The candidate has practical experience in providing diving medical supervision 2.6.1 Demonstration of practical skills based on at least 3 cases using simulations In order to obtain the endorsement of competence in performing reserved medical procedures (mad B), the following assessment criteria are also tested (WSCS-WOD-B-B3): 3.1 The candidate performs a comprehensive physical examination 3.1.1 Extensive knowledge of performing a physical examination 3.2 The candidate performs reserved medical procedures under the supervision of a physician 3.2.1 Subcutaneous, intramuscular and intravenous injection 3.2.2 Stitching wounds 3.2.3 Assisting in performing a chest puncture 3.2.4 Insertion of a bladder catheter 3.2.5 Insertion of an intravenous infusion and implementation of the infusion policy 3.2.6 Artificial mechanical ventilation Intubation 3.2.7 practical experience 3.3inThe providing candidate diving has medical supervision and performing reserved medical procedures 3.3.1 Practical internship as a candidate diving medical supervisor under the supervision of a doctor Machine Translated by Google 10.2. Assessment method Compliance with the test criteria is assessed by a theory exam and a practical exam. The test terms 2.1 to 2.6 below apply to the limited diving medical supervisor (first aid diving work), but with the exception of the test terms 2.4.2 and 2.5.1. The theory exam for the diving medical supervisor (mad A) consists of 4 subjects, which are subdivided into main subjects and secondary subjects: 1) Anatomy (major subject); 2) Pathology (major subject); 3) Diagnostics and treatment (major subject); 4) Physics aspects (secondary subject). In the exam subjects, the candidate must have knowledge of the test criteria demonstrate: Subjects of the Key terms theory exam Anatomy 2.3.1 Pathology 2.2.1; 2.2.2 Diagnostics and 2.1.1; 2.1.2; 2.4.1; treatment Physical 2.4.2; 2.5.1; 2.5.2 aspects 2.3.2 The theory exam is taken in writing and in the Dutch language. The theory exam lasts a maximum of 40 minutes for each subject, with a 5-minute break after each subject. Every 85 minutes, namely after 2 courses and 1 short break, there is a 15-minute break. In principle, the theory exam is taken on 1 day. The final term 2.6.1 for the first aid diving work certificate or mad A is assessed in a practical exam. The candidate demonstrates his performance for the practical exam by means of a performance booklet. The practical exam is conducted under the supervision of an examiner. The practical exam counts as a main subject. In order to obtain the endorsement of extended diving medical qualification with the performance of reserved medical procedures, a specific exam must be passed. The candidate demonstrates his performance for the practical exam by means of a performance booklet. This exam consists entirely of a practical exam under the supervision of a doctor. 10.3. Result rule of the exam Machine Translated by Google The result rule of the exam is further elaborated in the implementing decree of the CKI and if there is a central item bank, it is also recorded there. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms for recertification The recertification of first aid diving work, mad A, or mad Bi is equal to the initial certification. The candidate must follow a refresher course in first aid diving work or diving medical supervisor every 2 calendar years and take the practical and theory exam. In order to obtain again the endorsement of an extended diving medical supervisor with the authorization to perform reserved medical procedures (mad B) upon recertification, the candidate must also undergo an annual hospital internship under the supervision of a doctor on the basis of other laws and regulations. The duration of the internship is at least 2 weeks and the nature of the internship is at the discretion of the supervising physician. 11.2. Assessment method 11.2.1. Recertification The recertification of limited diving medical supervisor (First Aid Diving Work/WSCS-WOD-B-B1)) and diving medical supervisor (mad A/WSCS-WOD-B-B2)) is assessed by means of a document examination and a theory and practical exam. During the document examination, it must be possible to submit a certificate or diploma from a refresher training dive medical supervisor that is not older than 3 months. The practical and theory exam to be taken is the same as for initial certification. 11.2.2. Recertification Comprehensive Diving Medical Attendant (WSCS-WOD-B-B3) The recertification with the endorsement of performing reserved medical procedures (mad B) is assessed by means of a document examination consisting of: 1) a valid personal certificate diving medical attendant (mad A); 2) certificate from a doctor showing that the candidate has completed a practical internship of at least 2 weeks in a hospital less than a year ago and that the procedure book has been signed. The candidate must submit the documents in full to the certifying body. The certification body may nevertheless take the initiative to verify the documents with the authority that issued the documents. The certifying institution annually checks whether the extended diving medical supervisor (mad B) has repeated the hospital internship under the supervision of a doctor in a timely manner. Machine Translated by Google 11.3. Pass of the rating The cut-off point for the practical and theory exam is equal to the cut-off point for initial certification. 12. Certificate The certificate must contain at least the following information: 1. name of the certified person; 2. unambiguous certificate number; name, registration number Chamber of Commerce (if applicable), 3. and logo of the CKI; 4. name and logo of the Working under Overpressure Foundation 5. reference to the designation order of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment; 6. reference to the standard document WSCS-WOD-B, Personal Certificate diving medical attendant; 7. category and conditions of validity of the certified competence (WSCS-WOD-B-B1, B2 or B3); 8. effective date of the certificate and the date on which the validity ends. The certificate will contain the text that the certifying institution declares that the person concerned meets the requirements of the standard document WSCS-WOD-B Personal Certificate for a diving medical attendant and as a result is qualified as a diving medical attendant in the category stated on the certificate. The text also states whether the certificate was issued on the basis of an initial certification or a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. •. The certificate holder remains active as a first aid diving worker, mad A or mad B for diving activities of the nature for which the certificate was issued; The holder of the certificate with the endorsement extended diving medical attendant (mad B/WSCS-WOD- B-B3) to perform reserved medical procedures must repeat his hospital internship every calendar year. The certificate will be revoked and replaced by a diving medical attendant certificate (mad A/WSCS-WOD-B-B2), if the candidate does not meet this condition. Annex XVIe. belonging to Article 6.6, 1st paragraph Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader at the fire service Machine Translated by Google Document: WSCS-WOD-F Index 1 Introduction 2 Definitions 3 Field-specific characteristics 3.1 General 3.2 Description of the scheme 3.3 Active parties 3.4 Risk analysis and infringement criteria 4 Certification Regulations 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Validity period of the certificate 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints procedure 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 4.10 Application for the certificate upon re-entry 5 Exam regulations 5.1 General 5.2 Implementation of the exam 5.3 Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff 5.4 Requirements for the exam 6 Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency of the Machine Translated by Google supervision 6.3 Implementation of supervision 6.4 Report of findings 6.5 Measures 6.6 Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate 7 Subject of the certification 8 Entry criteria 9 Attainment targets 9.1 General 9.2 diving team leader 10 Test method at initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Assessment method 10.3 Structure of the exam 10.4 Pass of the exam 11 Recertification 11.1 Key terms for recertification 11.2 Assessment method 11.3 Result rule of the assessment 12 Certificate 13 Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been proposed by the Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure'. It concerns certification in the field of leading a diving team at the fire brigade. The board of the Working under Overpressure Foundation (SWOD) has approved the schedule by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This scheme supersedes previous versions. Machine Translated by Google The professional competence to be certified concerns acting as a diving team leader in the fire service. The diving team leader certificate is required by law on the basis of Article 6.16 paragraph 3 of the Working Conditions Decree. The diving team leader leads a diving team in which at least one person carries out diving work. In accordance with Article 6.13 paragraph 1 under letter a of the Working Conditions Decree, diving work is understood to mean performing work in a liquid or in a closed diving bell, including the stay in that liquid or in that closed diving bell, where respiration is used. of a gas at a pressure higher than atmospheric pressure. The CKI's certification system must be structured in accordance with the requirements of WDAT- WOD-P. 2. Definitions It is possible that some defined terms or abbreviations do not appear literally in the text of the certification scheme, but these terms or abbreviations are nevertheless included in the list of definitions in connection with the fact that the management foundation and the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment use these terms or abbreviations. directly related to this certification scheme. If the definitions in this document deviate from the definitions in NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 and the mandatory documents, the definitions in this document apply. Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate applies to the certification body to issue a certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment opportunities. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the Minister of Social Affairs business and Employment opportunities Machine Translated by Google established Field specific document for designation and supervision, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing to SZW and the relevant CKI whether the body is competent to issue legally required certificates. When determining the Field-specific document for designation and supervision by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is aligned as much as possible with international systems and standards. management foundation : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. CCvD WOD : The Central Board of Experts, part of en facilitated by the management foundation, that interested parties in a particular sector or industry offers the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field- specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of Machine Translated by Google these parties. Central : Commission within the Examination Committee structure of the management foundation that develops and manages a central item bank. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Commodities Act . In addition, a certificate must be considered as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : The (legal) person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Machine Translated by Google inspection body conformity assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score at which a fail and the lowest test score to which a becomes sufficient promised. Competence : Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal characteristics, as defined in the certification scheme. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the minister's applicable rules for assessment. dive : Any immersion in a liquid or in a closed diving bell where a gas under positive pressure is used for breathing and where work is carried out under positive pressure in the context of a diving team. Diving work : Carrying out work in a liquid or in a dry diving bell, including Machine Translated by Google of the stay in that liquid or in that dry diving bell, whereby for respiration use is made of a breathing gas under a pressure higher than atmospheric pressure. Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to to be able to assess an individual candidate to the extent that he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards satisfies. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are held declined. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the CKI. rescue diver : The fire diver who as a member of the Machine Translated by Google diving crew is in charge of the diving task, such as locating, rescuing and recovering. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. SCUBA : Self contained underwater breathing apparatus, being a collective name for diving equipment characterized by breathing air supply from pressure vessels supplied by the diver be carried. SSE : Surface supplied equipment, being a collective name for diving equipment that is characterized by breathing air supply from the surface. Supervision : The collection of information by SZW or the CKI about whether an act or matter complies with the CKI resp. requirements set by the certificate holder, the subsequent formation of an opinion and, if necessary, the cause to intervene. Field of competence : Indication of the field of work, the position, or a set of tasks for which certain professional competence requirements are met. Machine Translated by Google relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a certain field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. safety diver : The fire diver who as a member of the diving crew charged with the role as reserve diver. Absenteeism Recovery : Controlled Ascent Emergency procedure in which the diver ascends to the surface in a controlled manner while exhaling without using diving equipment. WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. This sets out the standards that CKIs must meet in order to be appointed by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It also contains the conditions within which designation takes place. WDAT-WOD-P : Field specific document for Designation and Supervision at a certification body and charged with personal certification in the field of working under overpressure. Machine Translated by Google Document number: WDAT-WOD-P. WSCS : Term used for a certification scheme issued by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is accepted for use within a specific designation as a certification body for persons, products or systems. WSCS-WOD-A : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diver doctor. Document number: WSCS-WOD-A. WSCS-WOD-B : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Medical Supervisor. Document number: WSCS-WOD-B. WSCS-WOD-D : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work. Document number: WSCS-WOD-D. WSCS-WOD-E : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work performed by the fire brigade. Document number: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-F : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader at the fire service. Document number: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-L : Field specific Machine Translated by Google certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving supervisor. Document number: WSCS-WOD-L. 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. General Diving work is a risky professional activity. In order to safeguard the public interest – health and safety of and around work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for assuring the professional competence of persons who lead a diving team. 3.2. Description of the scheme This field-specific certification scheme is quoted in full as a personal certificate diving team leader at the fire service. The abbreviated designation is WSCS-WOD-F. The certification scheme has been approved as a management foundation by the Working under Overpressure Foundation (SWOD) and presented to the Ministry of Social Affairs. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines the schedule and can make changes to the established documents. This scheme supersedes previous versions. 3.3. Active parties Within the framework of this certification scheme, the following are active: •. designated certification body (CKI); •. Working under overpressure foundation (SWOD) as a management foundation; •. Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure' (CCvD WOD). 3.4. Risk analysis and detriment criteria The risks when performing diving work are in the areas of: •. diving work: – diving diseases and long-term effects; – properties of the breathing gas; •. safety of work equipment: – dependence on diving equipment; – injury from the use of tools; •. safe layout of the dive sites: – low temperature, darkness, visibility limitation and current in the surroundings; Machine Translated by Google – other activities above the dive site, such as lifting, loading and unload; – shipping traffic and traffic over bridges and quays; – dependence on the diving crew; – distance to medical assistance; •. other risks: – exposure to hazardous substances and biological agents; – physical strain; – working and rest times. The individual risk factors often occur in combination and by definition in combination with immersion in a liquid. The consequences of an incident can therefore be very serious. In practice, compliance with regulations and the use of proper diving and caisson equipment appear to be the most important factors in preventing incidents. These incidents can be prevented by: •. compliance with laws and regulations; •. basic knowledge of physics, physiology and diving diseases; •. extensive knowledge of operational diving procedures, safety measures and the functioning of the diving crew; •. effective leadership in the dive crew, including leadership in crisis situations. It is important for the safety and health of the diver that the working and rest times are respected and that the diving crew is effectively managed under all circumstances. The diving supervisor ensures that the rescue and safety diver comply with the responsibility that they are mentally and physically ready for the work. The diving team leader monitors the validity of the diving crew's certificates. The safety and rescue diver are responsible for being mentally and physically ready for the work. If the safety or rescue diver has doubts about his readiness or is sure that he is not ready for diving work, he must immediately report this to the diving team leader. The person who performs diving work is also dependent on equipment and on the other members of the diving team. The diving team leader ensures that the diving crew and the diving equipment are properly deployed. 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes, among other things, the procedures for the application, admission, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, issuing certificates, procedures for carrying out assessments, handling complaints and submitting requests. to review. Machine Translated by Google 4.2. Certification procedure In accordance with these certification regulations, the candidate must submit an application for (re)certification for the personal certificate diving team leader at the fire brigade at the CKI. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who was not involved in the assessment of the candidates. To this end, he is qualified and appointed in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the certification body has on the basis of the field-specific scheme for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate The validity of the certificate is four years. The risks of the work are limited by practical leadership skills, familiarity with the work environment and familiarity with the functioning of a diving team. During the period of four years, it is necessary for the certificate holder to maintain the continuous professional experience. 4.5. Validity conditions Further conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If the conditions are not met, this will have consequences for the certificate. The conditions and the manner of supervision thereof by the CKI are described in part II of the certification scheme. 4.6. Complaints procedure 4.6.1. Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. Machine Translated by Google •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. 4.6.2. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. 4.6.3. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Machine Translated by Google Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure 4.7.1. Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. 4.7.2. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure “objection procedure”, an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' Machine Translated by Google •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: – name and address of submitter – date – a description of the contested decision – the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. 4.7.3. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. 4.7.4. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once with a maximum of 6 weeks Machine Translated by Google be extended. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. 4.7.5. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. This data is sent electronically to the management foundation. The agreement with the CKI will prescribe the digital format in which the data must be supplied, so that the data can be used for the SWOD Certificate Register. This register is set up in accordance with legal provisions and is made accessible via the internet. This register is made accessible via the Internet. SWOD is responsible for the management of the register, but bears no liability for any imperfections. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure' must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field- specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, different interpretations must be submitted to the Board. 4.10. Application for the certificate upon re-entry The candidate who has a certificate whose validity has expired and/or does not meet the requirements for the recertification procedure must apply for an initial certification. The CKI then proceeds to determine the theory exam and practical exam with which the current professional competence of the candidate can be tested. The candidate must meet the entry requirements. The CKI takes into account: 1) training as a diving team leader on the basis of which the candidate was previously found to be competent; Machine Translated by Google 2) historical experience, which may include leading another category of diving work (WSCS-WOD-L) as a diving supervisor as evidenced by a complete and correctly administered diving supervisor logbook. 5. Exam Regulations 5.1. General These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the personal certificate diving team leader at the fire service. It exam regulations are part of the certification scheme for diving team leader at the fire service (WSCS- WOD-F). The examination takes place under the responsibility of the CKI and consists of the following components: •. a theory exam; •. one or more practical simulations. The exam is administered by the CKI. 5.2. Execution of the exam The CKI lays down its working method with regard to the examinations in more detail in an implementing decree with regard to the examination regulations. The implementing decree contains at least the following provisions: 1) effective date of the certificate; 2) any entrance requirements for taking the exam 3) the application procedure at the CKI; 4) confirmation of participation and call; 5) identification of the participants; 6) admission and absence; 7) exam duration and method of examination; 8) rules of conduct for candidates; 9) arrangement adapted exam; 10) pass and fail standards; 11) announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; 12) retention period of the examination documents such as answers and assessment forms; 13) right of inspection; 14) validity period of the exam result. 15) rules for opportunities and resit of an exam (component) For the application of this certification scheme, the document 'Proeve of professional competence for diving team leader' as established by the board of the Dutch Bureau of Firefighting Exams (Nbbe) applies as examination regulations. 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Machine Translated by Google Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. For the application of this certification scheme, the requirements for the examination staff are also the requirements of the document 'Regulations for appointment requirements of examination committee members for job-oriented courses within the Netherlands and the Caribbean Netherlands'. 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. seclusion Employees of the certification/examination institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the certification body. Employees of the examination institute must have signed a confidentiality statement. 5.4.2. General rules The document 'Proeve of professional competence for diving team leader' as established by the board of the Dutch Bureau of Firefighting Exams (Nbbe) applies. 6. Supervision 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI must assess whether the certificate holder continues to meet the requirements. The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder includes the necessary provisions for this purpose, including at least the following obligations of the certificate holder: 1) to provide access to his diving team leader logbook at the request of the CKI; 2) to cooperate at the request of the CKI to carry out an interim assessment of practical activities; 3) to comply with the requests referred to under points 1 and 2 within 6 weeks to give; 4) give permission to the CKI to report findings such as referred to in section 6.4 and other known information to be provided to the SZW Inspectorate in the event of suspension, withdrawal or refusal of the certificate, as well as situations identified in which there is a danger to the health and safety of employees or third parties during work carried out by an issued or still certificate to be issued are regulated. Machine Translated by Google 6.2. Frequency of supervision The CKI carries out interim checks if necessary. The CKI must in any event check a certificate holder in the interim in the following situations: 1) if there is a serious suspicion of dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; following a serious complaint from an interested party such as 2) referred to in paragraph 4.6.2 and further; 3) on specific indication of the Inspectorate SZW. The assessment of the relevant professional experience is part of the recertification. The certificate holder shall provide the CKI with access to his continuous professional experience of at least 20 dives he has supervised at least every two years or as soon as this requirement of continuous professional experience has been met. 6.3. Implementation of supervision 6.3.1. Implementation plan The CKI draws up a plan for carrying out an audit if a situation arises in which it must check on the basis of section 6.2. The plan describes at least: 1) reason for the check; 2) manner in which the check is carried out; 3) manner in which the certificate holder must cooperate with the inspection. The plan is communicated to the certificate holder in writing. The certificate holder must cooperate in carrying out the check within six weeks of the announcement. 6.3.2. Access to the diving supervisor's logbook If the CKI inspects the diving team leader's logbook of the certificate holder, the following topics are discussed: 1) method of administration and presence of illogical data; 2) number of dives supervised in relation to the validity of the certificate; 6.3.3. Assessment of a practical operation If the CKI deems the assessment of a practical operation necessary, the choice of the required performance must be substantiated in proportion to the reason for the check and the final objectives and test criteria of the certification scheme. Machine Translated by Google The implementation plan can be drawn up in consultation with the certificate holder with regard to the time. The implementation plan also describes the location and the party that makes the equipment and the diving team available and the party bears responsibility for the equipment, the diving team and the certificate holder's activities. The party with which we collaborate is at the discretion of the CKI. The CKI only acts as an assessor of the practical performance and there is therefore no employer-employee. The provisions of section 4.2 apply mutatis mutandis here. The practical operation involved in the audit must be assessed in accordance with the requirements of the certification scheme. 6.3.4. Assessment following complaints If the CKI receives complaints about the certificate holder from interested parties, the CKI must assess whether the complaint gives rise to an audit. The complainant and the certificate holder will be informed in writing of the decision. A possible check is carried out as described in paragraphs 6.3.1 to 6.3.3. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI prepares a report of the findings as a result of the checks in the context of the interim supervision. The report discusses: 1) reason for the check; 2) manner in which the audit was performed; 3) findings and results of the audit; 4) shortcomings; 5) corrective action in the form of further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination; 6) anticipated consequences for the certificate holder at the time of recertification; 7) any measure imposed, as referred to in paragraph 6.5. The report is made available to the certificate holder. The certificate holder may submit a request for review in accordance with paragraph 4.7 against any measure imposed. 6.5. Measures 6.5.1. Suspension The certification body decides to suspend a certificate if the certificate holder: not receive the overview of files within six weeks of a request to that effect 1. consult; Machine Translated by Google 2. does not cooperate in carrying out an assessment of practical activities within six weeks of a request to that effect; 3. temporarily does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate; 4. temporarily poses a dangerous situation during activities that are regulated by an issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; 5. fail to fulfill its financial obligations towards the certification body and the management foundation complies; 6. misuses the logo of the management foundation or the certifying institution. If it appears that the certificate holder has a temporary shortcoming referred to under points 3 and 4, he will be given the opportunity within a reasonable period of time to correct the shortcoming through further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination. The suspension will be lifted if the certificate holder has corrected the shortcoming. The suspension is further lifted if the certificate holder has complied with the obligations referred to under points 1, 2 and 5, or has ceased the misuse of the logo and has repaired any damage. The suspension, as well as the lifting of the suspension, will be immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.2. Withdrawal The certification body decides to revoke a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. has not complied with the correction of a shortcoming that has been made known to him in the context of a suspension; 2. demonstrably no longer meets the validity conditions of the certificate; 3. demonstrably poses a hazardous situation in activities regulated by an issued certificate and which endangers or may endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties; 4. has been guilty of exam fraud or diver's logbook fraud through forgery or wrongful signing; 5. was ultimately judicially convicted of offenses in which he made serious mistakes or, through his own fault, seriously failed to comply with safety aspects in the performance of diving activities. If a certificate holder wishes to be certified again after a withdrawal, the same procedure is followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the certification body indicates and registers that certification is allowed again after a period of one year. A request for recertification can be submitted one year after withdrawal of the certificate. The certifying body verifies prior Machine Translated by Google to the issuance of a certificate in the central register or whether there is no revocation with the associated waiting period. The withdrawal is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.3. Refusal The certification body decides to refuse a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. demonstrably does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate; 2. demonstrably constitutes a hazardous situation in activities that are regulated by a certificate yet to be issued and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered. The refusal of a recertification is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.6. Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate The CKI must immediately report the facts known to it with regard to a candidate or certificate holder to the Inspectorate SZW in the following cases: 1) suspension of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.1; 2) revocation of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.2; 3) refusal of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.3. 7. Subject of the certification The professional competence that is certified concerns leading a diving team at the fire service. The certification scheme describes the requirements for the professional competence of the diving team leader with the explicit limitation that a diving team is supervised in the performance of the fire service task. 8. Entry Criteria The candidate is admitted to the certification process to obtain the legally required personal certificate diving team leader, if he meets the following entrance criteria: 1) he has reached the age of at least 24 years; 2) he is in possession or has been in possession of a valid diving work certificate for the fire brigade (WSCS-WOD-B) less than 2 years ago; 3) he meets or has met the assessment requirements that apply for obtaining the diving work certificate from the fire brigade less than 2 years ago; 4) he meets or has met the assessment requirements that apply to obtaining the personal certificate for diving medical supervisor; 5) he has at least 2 years of work experience as a diver and has made at least 20 dives with a total of at least 600 minutes ; Machine Translated by Google 6) he has a certificate from or has been admitted by a training institution to the training as a diving team leader in the category of diving activities for which the certificate is requested; 7) he is in possession of a fully completed diving supervisor's logbook that meets the following requirements: a) with passport photo; b) in which the activities as a diving team leader are during the training kept up. 9. Attainment targets 9.1. General The professional competence requirements are presented as attainment targets and are elaborated in test terms in the next chapter. The description of the final and test objectives refers to elementary knowledge and extensive knowledge. These indications of the level of knowledge are interpreted in this certification scheme as follows: Elementary: the candidate knows the key concepts and main lines of thought of the theory of this area of knowledge, through which he is aware of the main practical facts the candidate masters Extended: the theory of this area of knowledge, through which he is familiar with backgrounds of the practical application by himself or by others 9.2. diving team leader The candidate is competent as a diving team leader if he meets the following attainment targets: 1) he has extensive knowledge of the relevant legislation and regulations; 2) he has basic knowledge of gases and pressure containers; 3) he has knowledge of decompression procedures; Machine Translated by Google 4) he is able to apply emergency procedures and to take charge of calamities; 5) he masters the operational processes related to diving activities; 6) he is able to effectively lead a diving crew. 10. Testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms 10.1.1. diving team leader The CKI uses a standard methodology to assess whether the candidate meets the requirements attainment targets. The professional competence of the candidate is tested against the following test criteria for obtaining the personal certificate diving team leader: 1 The candidate has extensive knowledge of legislation and regulations 1.1 Relevant working conditions regulations, including at least Working Conditions Decree Chapter 3 and chapter 6, section 5 'Working under overpressure' 2 The candidate has basic knowledge in the field of gases and pressure containers Theory about of the the behavior of gases 2.1 Knowledge 2.2 used equipment according to product data sheets 3 The candidate has basic knowledge about decompression procedures 3.1 Application of decompression tables and decompression procedures 4 The candidate applies emergency procedures and takes charge in case of calamities 4.1 Basic knowledge of necessary diving medical care, including at least the oxygen case and other tools and Machine Translated by Google the deployment of personnel 4.2 Applying accident management in the event of calamities and unexpected circumstances 5 The candidate masters the operational processes related to diving activities 5.1 Ensuring safety and health within the dive crew, including knowledge of the drawing up the risk inventory and evaluation and this be able to perform in the daily work situation 5.2 Oversee documentation and records, including at least the diver logs of the members of the diving crew 5.3 Supervise user maintenance and verify the state of maintenance of the equipment 6 The candidate can effectively lead a diving team 6.1 Effective provide work instructions, briefings and debriefings to the diving crew 6.2 Leadership and in the special leadership in emergencies 6.3 Demonstration where the candidate has performed in at least 1 practical simulation (case) or role play in response to a diving- related Machine Translated by Google situation and where decompression, emergency procedures and management in case of calamities have been discussed 6.4 Demonstration with at least 1 actual dive operation performed that the candidate has led and where decompression, emergency procedures and emergency management have been discussed 10.2. Assessment method The candidate's managerial experience will be assessed on the basis of data from the Dive Superintendent Logbook, which shall include at least: nature of the dive; followed schedule of the stated dive; tracked decompression course; 1) date of the dive; nature of the diving equipment used; nature of the work performed; special sessions, such as emergency procedures, safety measures and 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) additional competences; 8) maximum depth reached; 9) Dive supervisor's signature on each dive supervised given; 10) Signing off by or on behalf of the employer at each dive supervised given. The assessment of the ongoing professional experience is part of the recertification. The certificate holder shall provide the CKI with access to his continuous professional experience of at least 20 dives he has supervised at least every two years or as soon as this requirement of continuous professional experience has been met. 10.3. Structure of the exam The exam consists of at least: 1) a theory exam; Machine Translated by Google 2) one or more practical simulations. For the assessment method, in addition to the test terms from this scheme, the document 'Proeve of professional competence of the fire service diving team leader', as established in the implementing decision of the CKI, is also applicable. 10.3.1. Practical exam The document 'Proeve of professional competence diving team leader' as established by the board of the Dutch Bureau of Firefighting Exams (Nbbe) applies to the manner of assessing the test criteria. 10.3.2. Test terms: Theory exam for diving team leader The document 'Proeve of professional competence diving team leader' as established by the board of the Dutch Bureau of Firefighting Exams (Nbbe) applies to the manner of assessing the test criteria. 10.4. Pass of the exam The document 'Proeve of professional competence for diving team leader' as established by the board of the Dutch Bureau of Firefighting Exams (Nbbe) applies to determining the candidate's pass. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms for recertification The following test terms apply for the subsequent issuance of the legally required personal certificate diving team leader at the fire service: 1 The candidate is employed as a diving team leader for activities within the scope of his valid certificate 1.1 Practical experience consisting of 20 dives which he has led in the previous 24 months. 2 The candidate can effectively lead a diving team 2.1 Demonstration with at least 1 actual dive operation performed under the leadership of the candidate and where Machine Translated by Google decompression, emergency procedures and management in case of calamities have been discussed 11.2. Assessment method 11.2.1. General The assessment of the ongoing professional experience is part of the recertification. The certificate holder shall provide the CKI with access to his continuous professional experience of at least 20 dives he has supervised at least every two years or as soon as this requirement of continuous professional experience has been met. 11.2.2. Review Dive Supervisor Log and Test Card Recertification after every four-year period is assessed by means of: 1) review of a fully administered dive supervisor logbook, demonstrating ongoing professional experience in the previous 24 months; 2) assessment of a test card on which the transactions associated with the examination of the test term for recertification 2.1 by an assessor of the CKI. 11.3. Result rule of the assessment The recertification is granted after a period of four years, if the recertification requirement is met and the test card has also been assessed with a satisfactory result. 12. Certificate The certificate must contain at least the following information: 1. name of the certified person; 2. unambiguous certificate number; 3. name, Chamber of Commerce registration number (if applicable), and logo of the CKI; 4. name and logo management foundation; 5. reference to the designation order of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment; reference to the standard document WSCS-WOD-F, Personal Certificate 6. diving team leader at the fire brigade; 7. category and conditions of validity of the certified professional competence; 8. effective date of the certificate and the date on which the validity ends. The certificate includes the text that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements of the standard document WSCS-WOD-F, personal certificate Machine Translated by Google diving team leader at the fire brigade and as a result is competent as a diving team leader to supervise diving activities in the category stated on the certificate. The text also states whether the certificate was issued on the basis of an initial certification or a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to: 1) The certificate holder remains active as a diving team leader in diving activities in the category of diving work for which the certificate has been issued; The certificate holder participates as a diving team leader in at least 20 2) dives in any 24-month period; If these conditions are not met, the certificate may be suspended or revoked. Annex XVIf. belonging to Article 6.6, 2nd paragraph Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work performed by the fire service Document: WSCS-WOD-E Index 1 Introduction 2 Definitions 3 Field-specific characteristics 3.1 General 3.2 Description of the scheme 3.3 Active parties 3.4 Risk analysis and infringement criteria 4 Certification Regulations 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Period of validity of the Machine Translated by Google certificate 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints procedure 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 4.10 Application for the certificate upon re-entry 5 Exam regulations 5.1 General 5.2 The exam institution 5.3 Requirements for the exam staff 5.4 Requirements for the exam 6 Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency of supervision 6.3 Implementation of supervision 6.4 Report of findings 6.5 Measures 6.6 Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate 7 Subject of the certification 8 Entry criteria 8.1 Diving work done by the fire brigade 9 Attainment targets 9.1 General 9.2 Diving work done by the fire brigade 10 Test method at initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Assessment method Machine Translated by Google 10.3 Pass of the exam 11 Recertification 11.1 Test terms for recertification 11.2 Assessment method 11.3 Result rule of the assessment 12 Certificate 13 Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure'. It concerns certification in the field of diving work performed by the fire service. The board of the Working under Overpressure Foundation (SWOD) has approved the schedule by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This scheme supersedes previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns diving work performed by the fire service in the performance of their specific tasks (WSCS-WOD-E). Within the Central Board of experts it has been determined that harmonization of WSCS-WOD-E by all parties involved is desirable and is considered possible in the short term. In view of the progress of the change in the certification system, however, it has been decided in this phase to establish WSCS-WOD- E for diving work performed by the fire service. The certification scheme for diving work (WSCS- WOD-D) applies to other diving work. The personal diving work certificate is required by law on the basis of Article 6.16 paragraph 6 of the Working Conditions Decree. In accordance with Article 6.13 paragraph 1 under letter a of the Working Conditions Decree, diving work is understood to mean performing work in a liquid or in a closed diving bell, including the stay in that liquid or in that closed diving bell, where respiration is used. of a gas at a pressure higher than atmospheric pressure. The certificate of diving work performed by the fire service focuses specifically on the task of the fire service diver. Within the action of the fire service diver, a distinction is made between acting as a rescue diver and as a safety diver. As a rescue diver, the fire diver within the diving team performs the diving task of locating people and animals on and in the water to a maximum depth of 15 meters and rescue them. As a safety diver, the fire diver within the diving team fulfills the role of reserve diver according to the Working Conditions Decree and acts to help the rescue diver in distress. Machine Translated by Google The CKI must assess whether the candidate masters the elements of the qualification profile. The certification system of the CKI must be structured in accordance with the requirements of the WDAT-WOD-P. 2. Definitions It is possible that some defined terms or abbreviations do not appear literally in the text of the certification scheme, but these terms or abbreviations are nevertheless included in the list of definitions in connection with the fact that the management foundation and the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment use these terms or abbreviations. directly related to this certification scheme. If the definitions in this document deviate from the definitions in NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 and the mandatory documents, the definitions in this document apply. Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate applies to the certification body to issue a certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the Minister of Social Affairs business and Employment established Field-specific document for designation and supervision, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing to SZW and Machine Translated by Google the relevant CKI or the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates. When determining the Field-specific document for designation and supervision by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is linked as much as possible to international system and standards. management foundation : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme. CCvD WOD : The Central Board of Experts, part of en facilitated by the management foundation, which offers interested parties in a certain sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Central : Commission within the Examination Committee structure of the management foundation that establishes a central item bank develops and manages. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Machine Translated by Google Commodities Act . In addition, a certificate must be considered as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : The (legal) person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or inspection body Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The border between the Machine Translated by Google highest test score with an unsatisfactory and the lowest test score to which a sufficient. Competence : Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal characteristics, as defined in the certification scheme. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the minister's applicable rules for assessment. dive : Any immersion in a liquid or in a closed diving bell where a gas under positive pressure is used for breathing and where, in the context of a diving team, work under overpressure. Diving work : Carrying out work in a liquid or in a dry diving bell, including staying in that liquid or in that dry diving bell, in which breathing gas is used at a pressure higher than atmospheric pressure. Attainment targets : A description of Machine Translated by Google the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to help the individual candidate to be able to assess the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the CKI. rescue diver : The fire diver who as a member of the diving crew in charge of the diving task, such as locating, rescuing and recovering. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in work field-specific problem area, Machine Translated by Google to be included in the intended certification scheme. SCUBA : Self contained underwater breathing apparatus, being a collective name for diving equipment characterized by breathing air supply from pressure vessels supplied by the diver be carried. SSE : Surface supplied equipment, being a collective name for diving equipment that is characterized by breathing air supply from the surface. Supervision : The collection of information by SZW or the CKI about whether an act or matter complies with the CKI resp. requirements set by the certificate holder, the subsequent formation of an opinion on this and, if necessary, intervene as a result. Field of competence : Indication of the field of work, the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements which, within a particular field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes towards Machine Translated by Google specific actions or tasks. safety diver : The fire diver who as a member of the diving crew charged with the role as reserve diver. Absenteeism Recovery : Controlled Ascent Emergency procedure in which the diver exhales in a controlled manner to the without using diving equipment surface goes. WDA&T : Term used by SZW for a field-specific scheme of designation and supervision. In there are the standards to which CKIs must comply to be appointed by the Minister of SZW. It also contains the conditions under which designation takes place. WDAT-WOD-P : Field specific document for Designation and Supervision at a certification body and charged with personal certification in the field of working under overpressure. Document: WDAT-WOD-P. WSCS : Term used for a certification scheme issued by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment is accepted to use within a specific designation Machine Translated by Google as a certification body for persons, products or systems. WSCS-WOD-A : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diver doctor. Document: WSCS- WOD-A. WSCS-WOD-B : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Medical Supervisor. Document: WSCS-WOD-B. WSCS-WOD-D : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work. Document: WSCS-WOD-D. WSCS-WOD-E : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving work done by the fire brigade. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-F : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving team leader at the fire service. Document: WSCS-WOD-E. WSCS-WOD-L : Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Diving Team Leader. Document: WSCS-WOD-L. 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. General Diving work performed by the fire service is a high-risk professional activity. In order to safeguard the social interest – health and safety of and around work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme. Machine Translated by Google for guaranteeing the professional competence of firefighters who are charged with diving work. 3.2. Description of the scheme This field-specific certification scheme is fully referred to as a personal certificate for diving work performed by the fire service. The abbreviated designation is WSCS-WOD-E. The certification scheme has been approved as a management foundation by the Working under Overpressure Foundation (SWOD) and presented to the Ministry of Social Affairs. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines the schedule. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. 3.3. Active parties Within the framework of this certification scheme, the following are active: •. a designated certification body; •. Working under overpressure foundation (SWOD) as a management foundation; •. Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure' 3.4. Risk analysis and detriment criteria With regard to diving work performed by the fire service, the following risks can be distinguished with their control measures in the context of personal certification: 1. Diving ability of the diver •. Training, practical exam, exercise, recertification 2. Dependence on equipment and breathing gas •. Training, practical exam, exercise, recertification 3. Barotraumas and gas poisoning •. Training, theory exam 4. Communication in the diving team •. Training, practical exam, exercise, recertification 5. Functioning in the diving team •. Training, practical exam, exercise, recertification 6. Emergency situations and applying emergency procedures •. Training, practical exam, exercise, recertification 7. Knowledge of the working conditions rules and working methods •. Training, theory exam, practical exam 8. Understanding and following the work instructions •. Training, theory exam, practical exam 9. psychological load •. Training, practical exam, recertification 10. Weather and Underwater Conditions (Current, Visibility, Temperature) •. Training, theory exam Machine Translated by Google 11. Other environmental factors (shipping, obstacles, topography) •. Training, theory exam 12. disorientation •. Training, practical exam The requirements in this document regarding the candidate's competence should limit the above risks. 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes, among other things, the procedures for the application, admission, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, issuing certificates, procedures for carrying out assessments, handling complaints and submitting requests. to review. 4.2. Certification procedure In accordance with these certification regulations, the candidate must submit an application for (re)certification for the personal certificate diving work performed by the fire service to the CKI. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who was not involved in the assessment of the candidates. He is qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the CKI has on the basis of the field-specific schedule for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate The validity of the certificate is four years. The risks of the work are limited by practical skill in the operations, familiarity with the working environment and familiarity with the functioning of a diving team. During the period of four years, it is necessary for the certificate holder to maintain the continuous professional experience. 4.5. Validity conditions Further conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If the conditions are not met, this will have consequences for the certificate. The conditions and the manner of supervision thereof by the CKI are described in part II of the certification scheme. Machine Translated by Google 4.6. Complaints procedure 4.6.1. Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. 4.6.2. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. 4.6.3. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing Machine Translated by Google this is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure 4.7.1. Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against Machine Translated by Google decisions of the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. 4.7.2. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure “objection procedure”, an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: – name and address of submitter – date – a description of the contested decision – the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. 4.7.3. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing shall be conducted by a person or persons who are not Machine Translated by Google is/have been involved in the preparation of the decision, and has no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. 4.7.4. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. 4.7.5. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. This data is sent electronically to the management foundation. The agreement with the CB will prescribe the digital format in which the data must be supplied, so that the data can be used for the SWOD Certificate Register. This register is set up in accordance with legal provisions and is made accessible via the internet. . This register is made accessible via the Internet. SWOD is responsible for the management of the register, but bears no liability for any imperfections. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The Central Board of Experts 'Working under overpressure' must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more in Machine Translated by Google concepts used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, different interpretations must be submitted to the Board. 4.10. Application for the certificate upon re-entry The candidate who has a certificate whose validity has expired and/or does not meet the requirements for the recertification procedure must apply for an initial certification. The CKI then proceeds to determine the theory exam and practical exam with which the professional competence of the candidate can be tested. In any case, the candidate must meet the entrance requirements for the practical exam. The CKI takes the following into account: 1) diving training or certification against which the candidate was previously found competent; 2) historical experience of diving work, which may be of a different category of diving work (WSCS-WOD-D), attested by a complete and correctly administered diver's logbook. 5. Exam Regulations 5.1. General These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the personal certificate diving work performed by the fire service (WSCS-WOD-E). The examination regulations are part of the certification scheme for diving work performed by the fire service. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the CKI and consists of the following examination components: •. theory exam consisting of: •. closed question test; •. a portfolio assessment consisting of: •. test card swimming pool/diving tower; •. test card outside water; •. a practical exam consisting of: •. practical simulation 'deployment as a rescue and safety diver'. The exam is administered by the CKI. 5.2. The exam institution The CB further defines its working method with regard to the exams in an implementing decree with regard to the exam regulations. The implementing decree contains at least the following provisions: 1) effective date of the certificate; 2) any entrance requirements for taking the exam Machine Translated by Google 3) the application procedure at the CKI; 4) confirmation of participation and call; 5) identification of the participants; 6) admission and absence; 7) exam duration and method of examination; 8) rules of conduct for candidates; 9) adjusted exam arrangement; 10) pass and fail standards; 11) announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; 12) retention period of the examination documents such as answers and assessment forms; 13) right of inspection; 14) validity period of the exam result. 15) Rules for chances and resit of an exam (component) 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. For the application of this certification scheme, the requirements for the examination staff are the requirements from the document 'Regulations for appointment requirements of examination committee members for job-oriented courses within the Netherlands and the Caribbean Netherlands'. 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. seclusion Employees of the certification/examination institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the certification body. Employees of the examination institute must have signed a confidentiality statement. 5.4.2. General rules The document 'Proeve of competency fire diver' as established by the board of the Dutch Bureau of Firefighting Exams (Nbbe) applies. 6. Supervision 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The purpose of supervision is to safeguard the professional competence of certificate holders. The CKI must assess whether the certificate holder continues to meet the requirements. The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the National Accreditation Body and the Inspectorate SZW. Machine Translated by Google The agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder includes the necessary provisions for this purpose, including at least the following obligations of the certificate holder: 1) to provide access to his diver's logbook at all times at the request of the CKI; 2) to cooperate at the request of the CKI to carry out an interim assessment of practical activities; 3) to comply with the requests referred to under points 1 and 2 within 6 weeks to give; 4) give permission to the CKI to report findings such as referred to in section 6.4 and other known information to be provided to the SZW Inspectorate in the event of suspension, withdrawal or refusal of the certificate, as well as situations identified in which there is a danger to the health and safety of employees or third parties during work carried out by an issued or still certificate to be issued are regulated. 6.2. Frequency of supervision The CKI carries out interim checks if necessary. The CKI must in any event check a certificate holder in the interim in the following situations: 1) if there is a serious suspicion of dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; following a serious complaint from an interested party such as 2) referred to in paragraph 4.6.2 and further; 3) on specific indication of the Inspectorate SZW. The risks of the work are limited by practical skill in the operations, familiarity with the working environment and familiarity with the functioning of a diving team. The period of two years is necessary for the certificate holder to maintain this continuous professional experience. The assessment of the ongoing professional experience is part of the recertification. The certificate holder provides the CB with access to his continuous professional experience of at least 20 dives at least every two years or as soon as this requirement of continuous professional experience has been met. 6.3. Implementation of supervision 6.3.1. Implementation plan The CKI draws up a plan for carrying out an audit, as referred to in section 6.2. The plan describes at least: 1) reason for the check; 2) manner in which the check is carried out; Machine Translated by Google way in which the certificate holder must cooperate with the 3) control. The plan is communicated to the certificate holder in writing. The certificate holder must cooperate in carrying out the check within six weeks of the announcement. 6.3.2. Access to the diver's logbook If the CKI inspects the diver's logbook of the certificate holder, the following topics will be discussed: method of administration and presence of illogical data; 1) number of dives made in relation to the validity of the certificate; level of the dives in relation to the category of diving activities 2) 3) for which the certificate has been issued. 6.3.3. Assessment of a practical operation If the CKI deems the assessment of a practical operation necessary, the choice of the required performance must be substantiated in proportion to the reason for the check and the final objectives and test criteria of the certification scheme. The implementation plan can be drawn up in consultation with the certificate holder with regard to the time. The implementation plan also describes the location and the party that makes the equipment and the diving team available and the party bears responsibility for the equipment, the diving team and the certificate holder's activities. The party with which we collaborate is at the discretion of the CKI. The CKI only acts as an assessor of the practical performance and there is therefore no employer-employee relationship. The provisions of section 4.2 apply mutatis mutandis here. The practical operation involved in the audit must be assessed in accordance with the requirements of the certification scheme. 6.3.4. Assessment following complaints If the CKI receives complaints about the certificate holder from interested parties, the CKI must assess whether the complaint gives rise to an inspection in the context of supervision. The complainant and the certificate holder will be informed in writing of the decision. A possible check is carried out as described in paragraphs 6.3.1 to 6.3.3. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI prepares a report of the findings as a result of the checks in the context of the interim supervision. The report discusses: 1) reason for the check; Machine Translated by Google 2) manner in which the audit was performed; 3) findings and results of the audit; 4) shortcomings; 5) corrective action in the form of further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination; 6) anticipated consequences for the certificate holder at the time of recertification; 7) any measure imposed, as referred to in paragraph 6.5. The report is made available to the certificate holder. The certificate holder may submit a request for review in accordance with paragraph 4.7 against any measure imposed. 6.5. Measures 6.5.1. Suspension The certification body decides to suspend a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. not receive the overview of files within six weeks of a request to that effect consults; 2. does not cooperate in carrying out an assessment of practical activities within six weeks of a request to that effect; 3. temporarily does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate; 4. temporarily poses a dangerous situation during activities that are regulated by an issued certificate and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered; 5. fail to fulfill its financial obligations towards the certification body and the management foundation complies; 6. misuses the logo of the management foundation or the certifying institution. If it appears that the certificate holder has a temporary shortcoming referred to under points 3 and 4, he will be given the opportunity within a reasonable period of time to correct the shortcoming through further training or practical experience and a subsequent examination. The suspension will be lifted if the certificate holder has corrected the shortcoming. The suspension is further lifted if the certificate holder has complied with the obligations referred to under points 1, 2 and 5, or has ceased the misuse of the logo and has repaired any damage. The suspension, as well as the lifting of the suspension, will be immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.2. Withdrawal Machine Translated by Google The certification body decides to revoke a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. has not complied with the correction of a shortcoming that has been made known to him in the context of a suspension; demonstrably no longer meets the validity conditions of the 2. certificate; 3. demonstrably poses a hazardous situation in activities regulated by an issued certificate and which endangers or may endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties; 4. has been guilty of exam fraud or diver's logbook fraud through forgery or wrongful signing; 5. was ultimately judicially convicted of offenses in which he made serious mistakes or, through his own fault, seriously failed to comply with safety aspects in the performance of diving activities. If a certificate holder wishes to be certified again after a withdrawal, the same procedure is followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the certification body indicates and registers that certification is allowed again after a period of one year. A request for recertification can be submitted one year after withdrawal of the certificate. Prior to issuing a certificate in the central register, the certifying institution verifies whether there has been a revocation with the associated waiting period. The withdrawal is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.5.3. Refusal The certification body decides to refuse a certificate if the certificate holder: 1. demonstrably does not meet the validity conditions of the certificate; 2. demonstrably constitutes a hazardous situation in activities that are regulated by a certificate yet to be issued and as a result of which the safety or health of employees or third parties is or may be endangered. The refusal of a recertification is immediately processed in the public register of the management foundation. 6.6. Notification to the Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate The CKI must immediately report the facts known to it with regard to a candidate or certificate holder to the Inspectorate SZW in the following cases: 1) suspension of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.1; 2) revocation of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.2; 3) refusal of a certificate as referred to in paragraph 6.5.3. 7. Subject of the certification Machine Translated by Google The professional competence that is certified concerns the performance of diving work by the fire service. This is understood to mean performing work in a liquid, whereby a gas under a higher pressure than atmospheric pressure is used for breathing in the context of the performance of the fire service task. The certification scheme describes the requirements for professional competence in diving work performed by the fire service with the explicit restrictions that the diving work is performed: 1) with SCUBA; 2) up to a maximum diving depth of 15 meters; 3) for a maximum of one continuous hour. 8. Entry Criteria 8.1. Diving work performed by the fire brigade The candidate is admitted to the certification process to obtain the legally required personal certificate for diving work performed by the fire service, if he meets the following entrance criteria: A1. he has reached the age of at least 18 years; A2. he has been admitted to theoretical and practical training in the performing diving activities in the category for which the certificate is requested and which training meets the following requirements: a) according to a list made public by the CKI . the training has been recognized on the basis of stated quality requirements; b) the training followed by the candidate, according to a certificate issued by the training institution, the diver's logbook and the candidate's portfolio demonstrably meets the requirement that the training consisted of 700 minutes of immersion time to a depth of 15 metres, whereby at least two diving exercises have taken place at a depth between 10 and 15 meters; A3. he is in possession of a fully completed diver logbook that meets the following requirements: a) with passport photo; b) proving that he is dive medical approved by a diver doctor (see Article 6.14a paragraph 3 Working Conditions Decree); c) records of diving activities during training. 9. Attainment targets 9.1. General The professional competence requirements are presented as attainment targets and are elaborated in test terms in the next chapter. The description of the final and test objectives refers to elementary knowledge and extensive knowledge. These indications of the level of knowledge are interpreted in this certification scheme as follows: elementary or basic: the candidate knows the Machine Translated by Google key concepts and main lines of thought of the theory of this area of knowledge, through which he is aware of the main practical facts the candidate masters extended: the theory of this area of knowledge, through which he is familiar with backgrounds of the practical application by himself or by others 9.2. Diving work performed by the fire brigade The candidate is skilled in performing diving work by the fire service, if he meets the following attainment targets: A1. he has knowledge in the field of physics, physiology and diving diseases A2. he is able to prepare and finish individually and in a team work in a diving crew A3. he is able to act as a safety diver A4. he is able to assist other divers when performing diving work support A5. he recognizes the dangers of diving work and carries out the relevant safety precautions A6. he is able to carry out emergency procedures and to provide assistance with emergencies A7. he is able to do diving work as a rescue diver using SCUBA to a depth of 15 meters 10. Test methodology for initial certification The description of the final and test objectives refers to elementary knowledge and extensive knowledge. These indications of the level of knowledge are interpreted in this certification scheme as follows: elementary or basic: the candidate knows the key concepts and main ideas of the Machine Translated by Google theory of this field of knowledge, so that he is aware of the main practical facts extended: the candidate masters the theory of this area of knowledge, as a result of which he is familiar with backgrounds of the practical application by himself or by others 10.1. Key terms 10.1.1. Diving work performed by the fire brigade The CKI uses a standard method to assess whether the candidate meets the attainment targets. Before obtaining the personal certificate for diving work, the candidate's professional competence is tested by the fire service against the following test criteria: 1. The candidate has knowledge in the field of physics, physiology and diving diseases A1.1 Basic knowledge of physics, including at least hyperbaric physics, the gas laws and the physical effects of overpressure A1.2 Basic knowledge of diving diseases and the long-term effects 2. The candidate carries out preparatory and final work individually and in a team in a diving team A2.1 Skills and basic knowledge at with regard to schiemanswerk and rigging (rigging) consisting of the Machine Translated by Google recognition of different types of ropes, lifting straps and cables and how to handle them, tying different knots and stitches. A2.2 Skills and extensive knowledge of preparing and clearing basic underwater hand tools and various types of SCUBA including its user maintenance A2.3 Skills and extensive knowledge of the keeping the diver's logbook 3. The candidate acts as a safety diver A3.1 Skills and extensive knowledge of participating as a safety diver in the diving team 4. The candidate supports other divers in performing diving work A4.1 Skills and extensive knowledge with regard to communication with divers underwater and with the environment, including the use of line and visual signals as well as electronic communication equipment 5. The candidate recognizes the dangers of diving work and implements the relevant safety measures A5.1 Extensive knowledge of the relevant laws and Machine Translated by Google regulations A5.2 Skills and extensive knowledge of operational diving procedures, safety and various means of communication A5.3 Basic knowledge of the application of decompression guidelines and decompression methods A5.4 Skills and extensive knowledge of SCUBA . monitoring and user maintenance A5.5 Basic knowledge of the specific hazards associated with the working environment, for example working in environments with marine traffic, poor visibility or current A5.6 Skills and basic knowledge regarding seamanship, including at least nautical theory, navigation, basic meteorology and the use of tidal atlases and flow charts 6. The candidate carries out emergency procedures and provides emergency assistance A6.1 Skills and extensive knowledge of the prescribed course of action in the Machine Translated by Google case of an accident or incident A6.2 Performing safety and emergency procedures: a) Checking and preparing equipment for use b) Carrying out and undergoing predive and postdive checks c) Diver in need of a safely raise a depth of 9 meters d) Perform emergency ascent as free ascent from a depth of 9 meters 7. The candidate performs diving work as a water rescue diver using SCUBA to a depth of 15 meters Diving experience of at A7.1 at least 700 minutes soaking time with SCUBA at depths up to 15 meters of which at at least 2 dives at a depth between 10 and 15 meters And perform a descent to 9 meters make and trim appropriately A7.2 Skills and extensive knowledge of how to use different types SCUBA A7.3 Skills and basic knowledge at regarding working methods, orientation and navigation under water and various search methods Machine Translated by Google A7.4 Skills and extensive knowledge of the trim method used 10.2. Assessment method 10.2.1. Requirements for the diver's logbook The candidate's diving experience with regard to the entry criteria and the test criteria is also assessed on the basis of data from the diver's logbook. Keeping a diving logbook is mandatory for every person who has performed diving work pursuant to Article 6.16 paragraph 5 of the Working Conditions Decree. The diver's logbook only records diving work performed. The decision requires the diver's logbook to include at least: 1) nature of the dive; 2) followed schedule of the stated dive; 3) tracked decompression course; 4) diving minutes. In addition to these requirements, the diver's logbook for assessments under this certification scheme must meet the following additional requirements: 1) date of the dive; 2) start and end time of the dive; 3) nature of the diving equipment used; 4) nature of the work performed; 5) special sessions, such as emergency procedures, safety measures and additional competences; 6) maximum depth reached; 7) Diver's signature on every dive; 8) Signing off by the diving supervisor at each dive; 9) The diver's logbook has page numbers and is sequentially numbered. 10.2.2. Entry criteria Meeting the entry criteria is assessed by portfolio assessment of the documents submitted by the candidate. The documents for the personal certificate of diving work performed by the fire service are: 1) copy of the valid identity document; 2) proof of admission to theoretical and practical training in diving activities in the category for which the certificate is requested; Machine Translated by Google 3) copy of a fully completed diver logbook, which includes a valid diving medical certificate from a diving doctor. The candidate must submit the documents in full to the CKI. To prevent fraud with certificates, the candidate must always be able to present a valid proof of identity. The CKI may take the initiative to verify the documents with the authority that issued the documents. 10.2.3. Structure of the exam Compliance with the test criteria is assessed by an exam administered by the CKI. In addition to the assessment criteria from this scheme, the document 'Proeve of professional competence for fire-fighting diver', as laid down in the CKI implementing decree, also applies to the assessment method. 10.3. Pass of the exam For the determination of the pass of the candidate, the document 'Proeve of professional competence fire diver' as established by the board of the Dutch Bureau of fire exams (Nbbe) applies. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms for recertification The following test terms apply for the subsequent issue of the personal certificate for diving work performed by the fire service: 1. The candidate works as a diver and performs work in the category of its valid certificate 1.1 Hands-on experience consisting of at least 20 dives in the previous 24 months. 2. The candidate is skilled in performing emergency procedures and can act as a safety diver 2.1 Checking and preparing equipment for use 2.2 Undergo and perform a buddy check 2.3 Make a descent to a depth of 9 meters and trim correctly 2.4 Diver in need of a Machine Translated by Google safely raise a depth of 9 meters 2.5 Controlled perform ascent from a depth of 9 meter 11.2. Assessment method 11.2.1. General The candidate's diving experience with regard to the criteria for recertification is also assessed on the basis of the diver's logbook. The assessment of the ongoing professional experience is part of the recertification. The certificate holder provides the CKI with access to his continuous professional experience of at least 20 dives at least every two years or as soon as this requirement of continuous professional experience has been met. 11.2.2. Diver Log & Test Card Review The recertification after every 4-year period is assessed by means of: 1) review of a fully recorded diver's logbook, demonstrating ongoing professional experience over the previous 24 months; 2) assessment of a test card on which the transactions associated with the examination of the test criteria for recertification 2.1 to 2.5 have been signed off by an assessor of the CKI. 11.3. Result rule of the assessment Recertification is granted after a period of four years, if the recertification requirement is met and the test card has also been assessed with a satisfactory result. 12. Certificate The certificate must contain at least the following information: 1) name of the certified person; 2) unique certificate number; 3) name, registration number Chamber of Commerce (if applicable), and logo of the CKI; 4) name and logo of Stichting Werken onder Overdruk; 5) reference to the designation order of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment; 6) reference to the standard document WSCS-WOD-E, personal certificate diving work; Machine Translated by Google 7) category and conditions of validity of the certified professional competence; 8) effective date of the certificate and the date on which the validity ends. The certificate includes the text that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements of the standard document WSCS-WOD-E. certificate noting any limitations on maximum depth and environment. The text also states whether the certificate was issued on the basis of an initial certification or a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to: The certificate holder remains active in diving work; The certificate holder makes at least 20 dives in each 24 . period 12 months; Failure to meet these conditions may result in the certificate being suspended or revoked. Annex XVII. belonging to article 7.7 Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and inspection bodies that: certify persons in the context of vertical transport Document: WDAT-VT-Persons CONTENT 1. PREFACE 2. DEFINITIONS 3. FIELD-SPECIFIC CHARACTERISTICS 3.1 Description document 3.2 Active parties 3.3 Risk analysis 4. REQUIREMENTS FOR THE PURPOSES OF THE DESIGNATION 4.1 Personal Certification 4.2 Designation Criteria 5. SUPERVISION 6. MEASURES ATTACHMENT 1 APPENDIX 2 Machine Translated by Google 1 Introduction Vertical transport operator is a high-risk professional activity. In order to safeguard the social interest (safety and health in connection with work), the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for the position of vertical transport operator. The certificate is issued by CKIs under this scheme. In order to be allowed to issue certificates for a specific field of work, a CKI must be designated for this purpose by the minister. This is done through an assessment against this WDA&T. This document indicates which rules and procedures the relevant CKIs must adhere to. 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate applies to the certification body to issue a certificate. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Social Affairs and Employment Inspectorate Supervisor of SZW Rating : Assessment (initial or re-) by the national accreditation body of institutions on the basis of the Minister of SZW, WDA&T, on the basis of which the national accreditation body reports in writing whether the institution is competent to issue legally required certificates Machine Translated by Google to give. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme: TCVT. Central College of : The board, part of and/ Experts (CCvD) facilitated by BHST, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the drafting and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. Central Exam Commission within the Commission (CEC) structure of the BHST developing a central item bank and manages. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act . In addition, a certificate can be considered as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : Person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system complies and Machine Translated by Google continues to meet the standards set out in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Approval institution Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. Check : Periodic assessment by the national accreditation body of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Exam protocol : Written document in which the requirements for examination TCVT personal certification have been established. The document has been added as an appendix (see appendix 2). Risk analysis : Analysis from which motivation, for choices to be made in field-specific Machine Translated by Google problem area, appears to be included in the intended certification scheme. Supervision : Gathering the information about the question whether an act or matter meets the requirements set for it, the subsequent formation of an opinion about it and the intervene if necessary. TSJ : TCVT Schedule Journal. This provides an explanation of a requirement from the scheme. An explanation is not demanding. Through publication on the website, explanations are announced and information is provided. TCPR booklet Supervision Certification Practice Registration booklet. Personal booklet in which the personal certificate holder keeps track of his practical experiences and further training. Field-specific : Term used by SZW certification scheme for a (WSCS) certification scheme that has been accepted by the Minister of SZW for use within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT-VT-Persons : Field-specific document of designation and supervision of the certification and Machine Translated by Google inspection bodies that certify persons in the framework of vertical transport. Full Document Name: WDAT-VT-Persons. WDAT-VT Products Field specific document for designation and supervision of the certification and inspection bodies that periodically inspect mobile cranes, tower cranes and/or hoisting and lifting equipment for professional passenger transport and/ or temporary passenger (construction) lifts in the context of vertical transportation. Full Document Name: WDAT-VT Products. 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1. Description document This field-specific document for designation and supervision was proposed by the CCvD and adopted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment (including any amendments). This adopted document thus supersedes previous versions. Comments and/or comments about this document can be submitted to the CCvD. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this designation and supervision document, the following have been involved in the preparation: •. BHST-TCVT, hereinafter TCVT •. CCvD-TCVT, hereinafter CCvD •. Workroom 4 TCVT personal certification vertical transport 3.3. Risk analysis Central event Emerging risks Causes Measures Machine Translated by Google Persons Products Providing or not properly Insufficiently maintaining a functioning of 4.2.5 4.3.2 the CKI material expertise certificate on own wrong grounds. Switch insufficiently skilled subcontractors when examining crane operators, to complete all aspects of the total exam cover. Insufficient knowledge of the working field Infringement of the 4.2.5 4.3.1 independence/impartiality (, dependency relationship with (intended) certificate holder in the case of personal certification, borrowing of non independent certification staff, outsource to non independent subcontractors and therefore a violation of impartial examination) Insufficient 5. B, C, D, E and F supervisory 4.5.7 / 5.B, C and D knowledge/no effective supervision of certificate holders. Including, for example, in the case of personal certification, not adequately handling (serious) complaints about the competence of crane operators who breach certification requirements of professional competence. No mutual Machine Translated by Google harmonization in the applying the certification schemes Breach of 4.5.4 4.5.4 confidentiality of information Providing or maintaining a certificate on unjustified grounds is defined as the central event. In order to prevent the issuing or maintenance of a certificate on unjustified grounds, it is necessary to take measures to eliminate the causes of the risks that arise. 4. Requirements for the designation 4.1. Personal Certification The assessment and designation of CKIs for personal certification takes place on the basis of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012 and the requirements imposed on the CKI on the basis of designation (4.5). Below is a field-specific interpretation of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. 4.1.1. Schedule committee The CKI must be able to propose changes to all parts of the scheme and must provide information with regard to the WSCS TCVT personal certification schemes. These proposals are submitted to BHST and subsequently adopted by the CCvD and submitted to the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. It is up to the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment to assess and, if necessary, ratify the amendment proposals. The CKI personal certification TCVT is required to participate as an advisor in TCVT office 4 and the TCVT Examination Board. 4.1.2. Objection procedure Paragraph 9.8.2 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024: 2012 applies, with additionally: •. The CKI must apply the procedures included in the WSCS for complaints and objections. The CKI must send TCVT an anonymised overview of the current procedures every quarter. 4.1.3. Staff Section 6.1.2 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024: 2012 applies, with additionally: •. The CKI must assess the results of the theoretical and practical exam and the subsequent certification decision to carry out in-house and with our own personnel who have knowledge of vertical transport. The CKI must have sufficient and competent permanent staff for the following tasks: 1) make certification decisions; Machine Translated by Google 2) attend outsourced exams; 3) assess whether subcontractors meet all requirements. 4.1.4. Development and maintenance of a certification scheme Paragraph 8.6 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024: 2012 does not apply with regard to the preparation, management and amendment of any relevant certification scheme (WSCS). The WSCS vertical transport person certification schemes are developed and maintained by TCVT. Proposals for changes to existing schemes must be submitted to the CCvD and submitted to the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment after adoption. It is up to the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment to assess and, if necessary, ratify the amendment proposals. In some cases, an explanation of a requirement from the field-specific scheme may be laid down in a TSJ. Implementation matters that are not required by BHST must be handled by the CKI itself. Under ISO 17024: 2012 Section 9.3.2, the CKI must provide information to BHST. The CKI must assess whether each certified person complies with the amended certification requirements. 4.1.5. Subcontracting The CKI can engage an examination institution for the purpose of the examination. Section 6.3 of NEN-EN-ISO/ IEC 17024: 2012 applies in its entirety. Additional requirements are: 1) The CKI must submit complaints and objections as described in the WSCS itself and may not have it treated or dismissed by an examination institution; 2) the CKI must record the identification data of the examination institution in the agreement with the examination institution, including the statutory name and Chamber of Commerce number; 3) The CKI must require that the examination institution meets the requirements and obligations submitted to the CKI, arising from the designation of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment: 4) The CKI must regulate the manner of quarterly reporting in the agreement have; 5) The CKI must have arranged in the agreement that the tasks assigned to it may not be outsourced by the examination institution; 6) The CKI must require that the examination institution and its staff are competent and has no relationship or affiliation in any way with the training or retraining of operators of vertical transport; In addition, the certification body supervises the execution of the examinations by the examination institution(s) by visiting at least two times per calendar year per certification scheme and at least 5% of all exams per examination institution. This requirement does not apply if an examination institution examines a certification scheme less than twice a year. 7) The witness ad 6) takes place with competent personnel; 8) The CKI collects exam papers from the TCVT item bank and closes a agreement with BHST. The CKI is and will remain fully responsible and must take responsibility for the examination process, the results and the certification. The CKI may not Machine Translated by Google outsource work without informing TCVT in advance. The CKI must annually provide TCVT with an updated list of its examination institutions. 4.1.6. Staff expertise Section 6.2.2 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024: 2012 applies in its entirety. Additional requirements are; In any case, the staff must (have): •. a duty of confidentiality regarding its performance of duties; •. examiners must have knowledge of vertical transport and minimum have MBO level; •. examiners must attend the TCVT examiners day every year; •. staff attending examinations must have knowledge of examinations and vertical transport. The knowledge must be recorded in a personnel file; •. no function as a trainer or tutor for vertical transport; •. no relationship with the examination candidate; •. examiners for the practical exam must hold a valid TCVT certificate in accordance with the practical exam to be examined; •. meet the other requirements from the TCVT examiners protocol (see appendix 2). 4.1.7. Certificate The certificate must at least additionally mention the following: •. SZW designation decision number; •. name and address certificate holder; •. date of birth certificate holder; •. Chamber of Commerce number; •. code TCVT scheme; •. certificate number issued by or on behalf of TCVT; •. TCVT code of the CKI The CKI must send BHST a monthly overview of issued, revoked and suspended certificates. 4.1.8. Supervision The CKI must implement the supervision regime as laid down in the WSCS with code TCVT 09-071 to TCVT-09-078 version 5. 4.1.9. Recertification Paragraph 9.6 of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024: 2012 does not apply. Instead: Machine Translated by Google The CKI must perform the recertification activities as laid down in the WSCS with code TCVT 09-071 to TCVT-09-078 version 5. 4.1.10. Logo TCVT The TCVT logo must be used on the certificate. In doing so, the CKI must follow the guidelines of TCVT, as laid down in Appendix 1 of this WDA&T. 4.2. Designation Criteria In the context of its designation on the basis of Articles 1.5a to 1.5d Working Conditions Decree, the CKI is assessed against the following criteria: 4.2.1 The designated CKI and the employees in charge of the inspections or assessments shall carry them out with the highest degree of professional integrity. 4.2.2 There is an integrity policy, which is set out in clear rules where necessary worked out. The staff has demonstrably complied with this. 4.2.3 The designated CKI acts with integrity and not outside its powers in the market. 4.2.4 The personnel of the designated CKI are demonstrably bound by professional secrecy with regard to all that they have learned in the performance of their duties within the framework of the decision, except vis-à-vis the competent government authorities. 4.2.5 The designated CKI is an administrative body within the meaning of the General Act administrative law and must comply with administrative legislation such as the General Administrative Law Act, the Open Government Act and the Public Records Act 1995. 4.2.6 The designated CKI must have third-party liability insurance that provides adequate cover for reasonably foreseeable risks. 4.2.7 The designated CKI must have a procedure in which it is arranged that in In the event of a suspected imminent threat to safety, this is immediately reported by the employee concerned, stating that the institution will inform the interested parties as soon as possible, including the relevant government agency if applicable. 4.2.8 Upon termination of the activities by the designated CKI, he/she must to inform the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment immediately. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment determines what the (formerly) appointed CKI should do with the files, and the (formerly) designated CKI must cooperate with this. This does not indemnify the (previously) appointed CKI from any liability for errors in inspections or assessments it has carried out. 4.2.9 The designated CKI must have the following procedures in writing: an opinion procedure (section 4.1.2 Awb), an objection procedure (chapters 6 and 7 Awb) and a complaints procedure (chapter 9 Awb). . 4.2.10 The designated CKI must be demonstrably represented in the national consultation of the institutions, organized by the CCvD. The CCvD represents the Netherlands in the European NoBo consultation and the CKIs participate in the consultation with the CCvD. The CKIs must be able to demonstrate that they implement the agreements made in consultation with the CCvD. Machine Translated by Google 4.2.11 Notification obligation of refusing, suspending or revoking certificates to the other CKIs and NoBos respectively. 4.2.12 With regard to the sanctions/measures to be imposed, the CKI adheres to the sanctions and measures policy established. In the event of manifest unreasonableness, the CKI has the authority to deviate from this on the basis of the Awb. Deviation only takes place on the basis of arguments to be put forward by the certificate holder. The substantiation for the deviation is included in the decision on the imposed sanction. Deviations are registered by the CKI. 4.2.13 All documents and registrations in communication with the government must be in Dutch unless otherwise agreed with the government. 4.2.14 Prohibition of subcontracting on the issuance of certificates and the related prior assessment and decision. 4.2.15 In the agreement between the management foundation and the CKI, as referred to in Article 1.5a, first paragraph, under f, of the Decree, it is stipulated that: a. the management foundation manages an item bank for the exam taken by the applicant for a certificate; b. the management foundation and the CKI do not provide information to third parties about the contents of the item bank, referred to in part a; c. notwithstanding part b, the management foundation the Council for Accreditation grants access to the item bank, referred to in subparagraph a, if this is, in the opinion of the Council for Assessment, for the assessment and interim audits of the CKI. Accreditation is required; and d. the management foundation ensures that shortcomings in the item bank that may become apparent during the assessments and audits referred to in part c are resolved as soon as possible so that this does not stand in the way of a positive assessment of the CKI by the Dutch Accreditation Council. 5. Supervision In connection with the obligations in the context of supervision, the following articles apply; Articles 1.5b and 1.5c Working Conditions Decree and Article 1.1a Working Conditions Regulations. For the purpose of collecting information, the CKI must realize the following free of charge: A. Report to SZW in writing before 1 March each year on the legitimacy and effectiveness of the performance in each field of activity for which the institution has been designated by the Minister of SZW (the written justification is sent to the SZW Inspectorate). This written report covers at least the following topics: 1. the issued, suspended, withdrawn or rejected certificates; 2. changes in the accreditations, regulations and procedures relating to the professional field of the institution; 3. changes in the composition of the board; 4. amendments to the articles of association or the internal regulations; 5. work outsourced to third parties; 6. structural bottlenecks in the work field of the institution that have arisen in the implementation practice; Machine Translated by Google 7. the consultation and cooperation in the field with other certification bodies; 8. complaints received by the institution and the manner of handling of them; objections lodged against the decisions of the institution and 9. cases brought and the manner in which they are handled; 10. a financial report on the activities for which the institution is designated; 11. the number of times per calendar year that the sanctions and measures policy are deviated from. To cooperate with the checks by SZW (in practice this means that the B. checks can be carried out by the Inspectorate SZW and the national accreditation body). c. Provide timely and correct information that SZW needs to be able to assess whether it continues to meet the designation standards (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the Inspectorate SZW or the national accreditation body). This information concerns everything relevant to the designation, including the amount of issued and refused personal certificates (new and renewed) per year. D. Immediately provide information to SZW and the BHST in the context of their registration task, about individual certificates/certificate holders on which a sanction has been imposed (in practice, this means that this information must be provided to the SZW Inspectorate). This information concerns the amount of issued, suspended, revoked and refused personal certificates (new and renewed). E. Provide information to the Inspectorate SZW about the way in which they issued personal certificates and of the way in which it periodically assesses the actions of certificate holders. f. To demonstrate to SZW that it adequately checks whether personal certificate holders continue to comply with the certification requirements (in practice this means that this information must be provided to the SZW Inspectorate or the national accreditation body). In any case, the frequency, nature and extent (duration) of the checks are shown per certification scheme. In this respect: For personal certificate holders who follow the refresher course, check twice in a period of five years for the certification requirements that apply to them; G. to inform SZW and TCVT as soon as it intends to do one or more of its end tasks. H. SZW as soon as it submits an application for an additional accreditation or assessment based on a legal specific scheme. 6. Measures If the designated institution no longer meets the requirements in this scheme, this may have consequences for the designation. See policy measure measures policy certification Working Conditions Act and Commodities Act, Stcrt. 2010, no. 10839 of July 14, 2010. Appendix 1. TCVT regulations use tcvt logo v-800 Machine Translated by Google Introduction The Foundation for the Supervision of Certification of Vertical Transport (Stichting TCVT) manages certification schemes with the field of activity Vertical Transport. These have been made mandatory on the one hand in the context of European regulations and the Working Conditions Act and on the other hand due to market needs. The schedules include the following topics: •. lifting equipment; •. offshore cranes; •. cranes; •. Professional Competency Machinist Vertical Transport; •. rail infrastructure machines; •. foundation machines; •. Passenger building elevators; •. Hoisting and lifting platforms for professional passenger transport An up-to-date overview of the operational certification schemes and certification bodies is available at www.tcvt.nl. The certification schemes are used by certification bodies, which are accredited by the RvA and, in the case of mandatory certification, have been designated by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment on request. The certificates are provided as a service to employers, employees, customers and government in order to clearly state that one can rely on the professional competence, products, equipment, systems and services offered in the context of vertical transport meet the requirements in accordance with the Working Conditions Act. etc. By issuing a TCVT Certificate of Professional Competence, it is indicated which persons are certified in the context of Vertical Transport. Visibly affixing the TCVT Approval Sticker to the equipment makes it clear that the equipment is certified in the context of Vertical Transport. With a unique number on the TCVT Approval Sticker in combination with a related TCVT Certificate of (Periodic) Approval is the registration of the inspection and the certification decision by the inspection body. The conditions for the use of the TCVT Certificate of Competency and Approval and the TCVT Approval Sticker are stated in the following articles. Design and use 1. The TCVT Logo General Machine Translated by Google The TCVT Figurative Mark is registered under number 0954925 in the Benelux Trademarks Register. The color of the logo is as follows: . in Pantone 3415 CV (green); . in Pantone Black (black). The logo is available from Bureau TCVT in the form of software. Distinguish legally required or voluntary In the relevant certification schemes, the position of the scheme is indicated as follows. A. legal obligation, in which one checks against legal standards, for example in high-risk professional activities. The TCVT Certificate is proof that the legal standards are met. This is indicated encoded in the certificate with an addition to the logo with – A – B. voluntary, whereby the parties involved make agreements about the interpretation of general statutory regulations. The TCVT Certificate is proof that the general statutory requirements are met. This is indicated encoded in the certificate with an addition to the logo with – B –. Distinction according to professional competence or state of maintenance of the lifting equipment This is indicated encoded in the certificate with the following addition to the logo. 2. The TCVT Certificate of Approval and TCVT Approval Sticker Certificate of Approval Commodities Act Decree Article 6f. The date of inspection is stated on the approval certificate, as well as information regarding the identification of the crane. The certificate of approval or a copy thereof is located in the vicinity of the crane The TCVT Certificate of Approval concerns equipment for vertical transport in accordance with the relevant certification schemes, drawn up by the work rooms. The certification body issues a certificate of approval (A-4 format) with a unique identification code according to its own system. In the indicated area D1, the TCVT Logo is applied together with the certificate number and the date of issue. The TCVT Certificate of Approval is included in the inspection report. Approval sticker Machine Translated by Google In combination with the TCVT Certificate of Approval, a TCVT Approval sticker is affixed to the machine. The TCVT Approval Sticker consists of: . the text ''TCVT Quality Mark''; . the logo of the Foundation for the Supervision of Certification for Vertical Transport (TCVT logo); . number code: ''yy-XXX.XXX'' with: . yy = 00, 25, 10 (see Appendix B); . XXX.XXX = sequence number . The other information must be affixed by the certification body with a TCVT Approval Sticker to be provided by it. For equipment and lifting equipment, the TCVT Approval Sticker is affixed in a place clearly visible to third parties. TCVT Approval Sticker By taking care of an inspection body. At the inspection location, manually fill in the date, legally required (A) or voluntary (B), the identification of the machine and indicate by ticking the year/month of the next TCVT inspection legally required (A) or voluntary (B). Stickers can be ordered at Bureau TCVT 3. The TCVT Certificate of Competency The TCVT Certificate of Professional Competence concerns the professional competence of crane operators in accordance with the relevant certification schemes, drawn up by Werkkamer 4: Professional Competency for Machinist Vertical Transport. The certification body issues a certificate of competence (A-4 format) with the certificate number XX-WABB-YY.YYY in which: . XX = code of the implementing certification body; . WA = workroom charged with setting up the certification scheme; . BB = code (sequential number) of the workroom WA equipped . certification scheme. . YY.YYY = serial number of the issued certificate, independent of the . certification scheme . This information will be entered by the TCVT Foundation in the TCVT personal register. For outsiders only the name, date of birth, certificate number and registration code will be available. With the TCVT personal register, the TCVT Foundation facilitates the certification bodies that have the obligation of a public certificate register. The TCVT personal register is accessible to third parties at www.tcvt.nl. The input is provided via a question window. The validity can be determined on the basis of the output, which is also stated on the certificate. Machine Translated by Google example: 4. Improper use Responsibility The TCVT Logo may not be used in a way that could suggest that the TCVT Foundation is responsible for the outcome of the investigation or would approve the investigation. Measures The certification body has an obligation to report to the TCVT Foundation with regard to incorrect or improper use. In the event of incorrect or improper use of the TCVT Image Mark, the TCVT Foundation can take measures available to it. Regulation changes The TCVT Foundation may decide to amend these regulations. The TCVT Foundation shall immediately notify the certification bodies in writing of any amendment to these regulations, stating a transition period. Appendix 2. TCVT exam protocol personal certification w4 (11-055) 1. General The Foundation for Vertical Transport Certification (TCVT) manages all vertical transport certification schemes. TCVT is working on certification schemes that express that the professional competence of persons and the good condition of the equipment meet the minimum safety requirements. See also: www.tcvt.nl 2. Exam protocol This exam protocol applies to and is an inseparable part of all TCVT schemes for professional competence (see also www.tcvt.nl). It contains provisions for the preparation, conduct and assessment of examinations for vertical transport person certification. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the certification body and consists of two parts: •. the practical exam; •. the theory test. Machine Translated by Google If the examination institution is not an organizational part of the CKI, both have committed themselves by means of an agreement. The certification body must have approved the quality system and the procedures with regard to the organization, administration and processing of exams of the examination institute and check it annually. In addition, the certification body supervises the execution of the examinations by the examination institution(s) by visiting at least twice a year per certification scheme and at least 5% of all exams per examination institution. This requirement does not apply if an examination institution examines a certification scheme less than twice a year. This requirement will come into effect no later than 2 months after the introduction of this exam protocol. 3. Definitions Professional competence requirements The requirements that are imposed on people within a certain field or profession with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Area of competence Indication of the field of work, the position or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Attainment targets A description of the entirety of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the purpose of testing examination candidates. Exam regulations Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Keyword An operational description of (an element of) an attainment target, in the form of one aspect of knowledge, one skill or one attitude, in such a way that it can be tested. Test The entirety of test assignments (test questions and/or test assignments), intended to be able to assess the individual candidate to the extent to which he meets the attainment targets. test matrix Machine Translated by Google A test matrix provides a clear description of the exam content in the form of a rough division of the exam questions over subjects or groups of attainment targets. This shows the number of test questions. Rating model An unambiguous indication of the correct answer, the correct skill, and/or the correct attitude, related to a concrete test assignment. Assessment protocol The way in which the assessment of a test by a corrector and/or examiner must take place. learning objective A description of a learning objective that must be achieved in a learning situation. Certification scheme A certification scheme includes the following components: – an unambiguously established subject of certification; – objective and measurable criteria for that subject; . a description of methods by which the conformity of the subject can be established with the requirements; – provisions for the exercise of periodic supervision. 4. Requirements for the location 4.1. Theory exam The theory exam is taken at a location that meets the following requirements: – there is a room for the reception of the candidates; – sanitary facilities are available on or in the immediate vicinity of the exam location; – there is sufficient light capacity; – each exam location is lockable and set up in an exam set-up, where there is a minimum spacing of 0.75 meters between the tables; – for each candidate is a table (minimum 0.50 mx 0.70 m) and a chair present; – there are no disturbing influences in the immediate vicinity of the exam location (noise pollution, etc.); – there is sufficient ventilation and heating. 4.2. Practical exam Machine Translated by Google The practical exam is taken at a location that meets the following requirements: The terrain It must be possible to take the exams on site under various lifting conditions. The site must be structured in such a way that it is suitable and easily passable in various weather conditions. There must also be sufficient (artificial) light. Specific terrain requirements per certification scheme Mobile crane (W4-01): 1000m2 with a minimum length of at least 20 m. Tower crane (W4-02): 1000m2 with a minimum length of at least 20 m. Foundation rig large and small (W4-03): at least equal to the height of the foundation rig and the pile. ) No specific requirements are set for an exam on location, provided that a H&S plan is present and a set-up inspection has taken place.) Loader crane (W4-04): paved and at least 25 x 15 m. Earth-moving machine (W4-05): 1000m2 with a minimum length of at least 20 m. Mobile Tower Crane (W4-06): 1000m2 with a minimum length of at least 20 m. Telehandler (W4-07): paved and minimum 25 x 15 m. Lifting guide (W4-08): depending on the crane Grounds amenities – toilet and washroom; – a separate room for the examiners; – a shelter/writing area, to dry the exam forms when it rains to be kept and, if necessary, to be consulted and/or filled in and therefore remain legible; – an opportunity to hang the lifting equipment arranged in a room. This can be used, among other things, to test the candidate's knowledge in this area, without being distracted by his environment. 5. Requirements with regard to the examination materials The exams are obtained by the exam institution from the TCVT item bank. Machine Translated by Google 5.1. Theory exam For the theory exam, on the basis of the number of candidates to be examined, sufficient bundled assignments and work paper must be available. If at one exam location, during one exam day, a theory exam is taken at two different times, two different exam packages will be used. 5.2. Practical exam The examiner has the following resources at his disposal for the practical exam, for which additional specifications may be set in the relevant certification scheme. The examiner checks the presence of the required materials at the exam location prior to the exam. General equipment All tools are provided with the user manual, instructions, TCVT quality mark, test and inspection reports, as well as certificates for the hoisting equipment attached to or on the tool and the equipment. This includes: – the load/flight/capacity charts, elevation charts, and additional terms of use, outrigger, ballast and auxiliary boom configurations; – the instruction manuals concerning the operation; – the crane book (dated according to the applicable guidelines); All regulations, instructions, etc. are in Dutch. General lifting equipment The lifting equipment used during the exam has a readable capacity indication and meets the legal requirements (Working Conditions Act, Commodities Act Decree Machines) and TCVT scheme W1-01. The certificates of the lifting equipment are available at the exam location. The information and the possibilities for use of the lifting equipment are in Dutch and included, for example, in a supplier's catalogue. Lifting tools: – chain work: 4 jump with shortening hooks or two 2 jumps, of which one with shortening hooks; – chain work: 2 jump; – chain work: set of four shackles each: both D and H shackles of sufficient capacity; – plastic slings: 3 sets of two slings each suitable for sufficient tonnage (both endless and flat); Machine Translated by Google – steel wire slings with talurit and superloop end connections; – guide lines with a length of 5 and 10 meters; – a chain hoist. – a lifting beam, jib or equalizer suitable for tilting a pipe or lifting a container; – outrigger; – a floorboard clamp; – a block clamp; – a pallet hook; – a person work box (2.00x1.00x2.00m) ) Not applicable for ALK); – two concrete cubes of 500-1000 liters, one of which is filled with raw material ) Not applicable for ALK); – lifting ropes; – steel cable end connections: use precursors so that rings/top links are not deformed by (too) strong lifting hooks; – lifting keys suitable for lifting a prefab (concrete) element. All this adapted and made usable (of sufficient capacity) for the objects present and the diversity of assignments that can be given by the examiners. General lifting objects – a pipe of at least 6 meters in length and a diameter of at least 80 cm; – a closed sea container of at least 8 ft high with content; – a valve of > 250 kg; – a lattice mast section of at least 6 meters and at least 400 kg; – a prefab (concrete) element of at least 500 kg; – two DIN beams of at least 4 meters or comparable beams; – three hollow core slabs (minimum 2.00x1.00x0.10m); – three layers of glue blocks (not glued); – four pallets (loaded with a minimum weight of 50 kg); – and four dragline bulkheads of at least 5.00x0.50 metres. 5.2.1. special equipment operator mobile crane W4-01 In addition to the above under equipment in general, lifting is done with a mobile crane with an operating load moment from 30 tons of lifting capacity at minimum radius. This faucet is equipped with: – a jib, and – a stamping device, and – at least 1 disc block with dog vot 5.2.2. specific equipment operator fixed tower crane, incl. rail-bound W4-02 Machine Translated by Google In addition to the above under equipment in general, lifting is done with a permanently installed tower crane or rail tower crane with an operating load moment of at least 90 tonne metres. The lifting work takes place from the cabin. 5.2.3. specific equipment operator for foundation machine W4-03 large+small In addition to the above under equipment in general, a foundation machine with a mass of at least 30 tons (FM large) or between 10 and 30 tons (FM small) is used. In deviation from the provisions under general lifting equipment, all lifting equipment mentioned below is used, depending on the applied foundation technique: – pile slings for concrete piles; – slings and/or quick release shackles for lifting sheet piles, steel profiles or steel pipes; – a chain sling for lifting an auger; – specific lifting equipment for lifting drill pipes; – specific lifting equipment for lifting reinforcement nets; – a bulkhead sprinkler for lifting dragline bulkheads; – and specific slings for lifting machine parts during loading and unloading (as well as assembly and disassembly). In derogation from the general provisions under hoisting objects, all hoisting objects listed below are used, depending on the applied foundation technique: – precast concrete piles; – a concrete cube; – a free-hanging vibrator; – sheet pile profiles; – steel profiles; – dragline bulkheads; – drill pipes; – joint pipes or planks, precast reinforcement, anchors, rods or bundles; 5.2.4. specific equipment operator truck-mounted crane W4-04 In addition to the above under equipment in general, lifting is done with a truck-mounted crane with an operating load moment of at least 20 tonne meters and with all the following equipment: – a mast of at least 8 meters; – with or without a remote control; – a stamping device. 5.2.5. special equipment operator earth-moving machine W4-05 Machine Translated by Google In addition to the above under equipment in general, lifting is done with an earth-moving machine with lifting function on tires with a load moment protection of at least 10 tonne meters. 5.2.6. special equipment operator mobile tower crane W4-06 In addition to the above under equipment in general, lifting is done with a mobile tower crane with an operating load moment from 40 ton metres. This faucet is equipped with: – a stamping device, and – a cabin, from which the lifting work is performed. The crane must be in transport position (not set up) before the start of the exam, with the lifting block reeved on the minimum number of lifting cables. 5.2.7. special equipment operator telescopic handler W4-07 In addition to the above under equipment in general, lifting is done with a rotary telehandler with lifting function with a lifting capacity of at least 10 tonne meters with interchangeable equipment. 5.2.8. specific equipment Lifting guide W4-08 In addition to the above under equipment in general, hoisting is done with: – a mobile crane from 30 tons lifting capacity with minimum flight, or – a gantry crane with a minimum lifting height of 5 meters, movable over at least 10 meters and a span of at least 10 meters, or – a tower crane of at least 40 tonne metres, or – an offshore crane, or – a yard crane. 6. Requirements with regard to the examination institution Examination bodies must have concluded an agreement with the certification body in accordance with the relevant requirements stated in ISO/IEC 17024:2012. The certification body reports this agreement to the TCVT Foundation for registration. The examination institution must also fulfill the obligations as stated in the cooperation agreement with the certification institution. In addition, the examination institution must have an agreement with TCVT regarding the use of the item bank. The examination institution has a quality and procedure manual that is part of the quality system that complies with the current standard series NEN-ISO 9001. The examination institution compiles a manual for examination officers and instructions for assessments, which include the tasks and authorities. This manual and instructions have been approved by the certification body and made available to TCVT for inspection. Machine Translated by Google Register of approved examination personnel charged with taking The examination institution (or the CKI if it examines itself) keeps a register of the examination staff and their commitment to the examinations. This register is made available to TCVT once a year. The examination institution also has personal files of the examination staff, which include a curriculum vitae, a confidentiality statement, an information/readiness statement or agreement, assessment forms and other relevant, personal documents. 6.1. Exam staff The examination staff is nominated by the examination institution and appointed by the CKI on the basis of testing against the criteria below and the procedure applicable to examiners. Examination staff may in no way be connected with and/or to training institutes vertical transport or institutes that provide the TCVT refresher training. Supervisor theory exam A supervisor is appointed by the examination institution for the theory exam. This officer does not require specific knowledge of the field. The supervisor does have: – organizational capabilities; – communication and interpersonal skills; – the ability to control and act decisively. The supervisor is expected to: – supervises compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations, the implementing regulations and the examination requirements; – correctly handles the established administrative procedures; – makes himself sufficiently available for the supervision of the purchase of theory exams. A supervisor performs the following tasks: – checking the candidate's personal details and registrations; – checking and subsequently preparing the theory exam so that the candidate can start immediately after the start of the exam; – exercising supervision in order to prevent abuse; – taking the exam papers and preparing them for dispatch; – the delivery of the total package to the examination institution. Corrector theory exam: Machine Translated by Google A corrector is appointed by the examination institution to assess the written elaboration of the open questions of the theory exam. The corrector meets the following qualification criteria: – he/she masters the Dutch language (or the language in which the exam is taken (German and/or English)); – he has up-to-date professional knowledge and insight; – he fits the assessment criteria, as laid down in the TCVT certification scheme. The corrector assesses the elaborations of the theory exams within the TCVT answer macros and the set term and attaches a mark to this according to the methodology as laid down in the relevant TCVT certification scheme. Examiner practical exam An examiner is appointed by the examination institution for the practical exam. The examiner is charged with assessing whether, and to what extent, the candidate's knowledge, skills and attitude meet the requirements for passing the exam. To this end, the examiner applies the TCVT examiner's instruction during the assessment. In the case of an examination with more than one examiner, one of the examiners is appointed as chairman and in that capacity is responsible for an orderly course of the examination and its settlement. The examiner has: – at least two years of practical work experience in the relevant field; – in possession of the relevant certificate; – up-to-date practical and theoretical demonstrable knowledge of the relevant field; – good communicative skills; – the ability to act decisively; – sufficient demonstrable knowledge of the examination regulations. The examiner is expected to: – understands the influence that an exam situation has on the behavior of the candidates; – is able to create an optimal climate for the candidate, so that knowledge and acquired experience, insight, skills and attitude are displayed as effectively as possible; – properly deal with the candidates and all other persons who be present at the exam functionally; – provides an objective assessment of the knowledge and understanding of the candidate; – strictly observes the regulations for each examination component to apply; – representatively represents the examination institution during the examination and ensures a correct examination procedure. Machine Translated by Google For each certification scheme, the examiner must be an expert nominated by the examination institute and accepted by the certification institute. 6.2. Independence The examination staff is independent. All examination staff signs a declaration guaranteeing confidentiality and independence. It declares itself independent of the candidate and any trainer/ employer of the candidate. Should it become apparent during the examination that a relationship, of whatever nature, exists between the candidate and the relevant examination staff member, the examiner must report this to the examination institution in good time. Under no circumstances is it permitted for the relevant examiner to examine this candidate under penalty of invalidity of the exam. 7. Requirements regarding the exams 7.1. Exam regulations The examination institution makes the examination regulations available to the participants in the examination at their request. The following matters are included in these examination regulations Hospitalized: – the effective date; – the registration procedure; – the confirmation of participation and call; – the identification of the participants; – the admission and absence; – the exam duration and method of examination; – that the exam is taken in the Dutch language; – the rules of conduct for candidates; – the regulation 'adapted exam'; – pass and fail standards; – the announcement of the result; – the retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; – the right of inspection; – the complaints procedure; – the validity period of the exam result. Restriction of exams Employees of the examination institute ensure absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these questions are not part of a public norm. Verification and implementation of this is done by the certification body. Machine Translated by Google Taking practical exam The practical exam can be taken simultaneously by two candidates, alternately in the role of driver or lifting supervisor and assistant. Each candidate is then assessed by one examiner in the role of operator or lifting supervisor as well as assistant. This means that two examiners simultaneously assess one and the same candidate during the entire exam. This assessment will then be mutually discussed. For one exam candidate, one examiner will suffice. Taking the theory exam In such a situation, if candidates have problems with a written theory exam, the certification body can offer an alternative on its own authority and expertise. This alternative meets the same conditions as the regular exam and is limited to the theory exam. There are two categories of candidates for which an alternative exam is possible: •. candidates who are demonstrably dyslexic, and •. candidates who have such great exam fear that they are unable to to express their knowledge on paper. An alternative exam is always conducted by an examiner and a supervisor. 7.2. Coverage of final and test terms The number of theoretical questions and practical assignments is divided over the final and test objectives with the following coverage: – final objectives: complete – test terms: complete Assessment and result The exam consists of several activities. A number of aspects are assessed per activity, and it is indicated per operation whether it is considered sufficient or insufficient. Additional requirements can be set in the relevant scheme. Valuation result The result of both the theoretical and practical exam is expressed as pass/fail. Machine Translated by Google Candidates who have not obtained a pass for the theoretical or practical component or for both components are entitled to a re-examination. For this, the stipulations in the relevant schedule and the conditions as stated in the examination regulations of the examination institution must be met. Validity period of the result of the exam No later than 6 months after obtaining a satisfactory result for his practical or theory test, a candidate can retake the exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam that is still qualified as insufficient. In this case, the candidate can request a re-examination a maximum of two times. After this, or after the expiry of the term, both the theoretical and practical exams must be taken. There is no maximum limit to the number of combined practical and theoretical lessons exams. 7.3. Certification Regulations Certification takes place when it has been demonstrated that the professional competence requirements as stated in the relevant TCVT Certification Scheme have been met. These regulations describe the general procedure for certification, the assessment of the validity conditions and the recertification requirements. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the certification body who is qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and procedures of the certification body. The officer has not been involved in the assessment of the candidate's performance. 8. Miscellaneous Complaints and appeal With regard to complaints and appeals, reference is made to the procedure as stated in the examination regulations for the purpose of examination and which is available at the examination institution. Performance List of personal protective equipment: – tight-fitting work clothes – safety shoes – safety helmet Machine Translated by Google – hearing protection – work gloves Annex XVIIa. belonging to Article 7.7, second paragraph under a, Working Conditions Regulations Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Machinist Mobiel tower crane Document: WSCS-VT Operator Mobile Tower Crane CONTENT 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. Field-specific characteristics 4. Certification Regulations 5. Exam regulations 6. Supervision PART II: STANDARDS 7. Subject of certification 8. Entry criteria 9. Attainment 10. targets for testing methodology at initial certification 11. Recertification 12. The certificate 13. Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of safe lifting by an operator with a mobile tower crane. The schedule has been drawn up by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment established. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe performance of lifting work on construction sites with a mobile tower crane ) mobile tower-shaped crane not tied to a fixed track with an operating load moment of at least 10 tm.). Certification System Machine Translated by Google Institution (CKI) must be structured in accordance with the requirements of the WDA&T certification of persons in the context of vertical transport. 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a certificate : The (legal) person who applies to the certification body for the issue of a personal certificate of professional competence. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-) by the CKI on the basis of the Minister of SZW established WDA&. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme: TCVT. Central College of : The board, part of and/ Experts (CCvD) facilitated by BHST, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the drafting and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. In this case the CCvD-TCVT. Central Exam : Commission within the Commission (CEC) structure of the BHST Machine Translated by Google which develops and manages a central item bank. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 7 Commodities Act (Article 6e Commodities Act Decree Machine). In addition, a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : Person who is in the is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Approval institution conformity assessment Machine Translated by Google (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score with a fail and the lowest test score with a pass is awarded. Competence : Demonstrated ability to share knowledge and to add skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal characteristics, as defined in the certification scheme. Check : Periodic assessment by the CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must meet in order to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/or Machine Translated by Google test assignments), intended to enable the individual candidate to be able to assess the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Exam protocol : Provisions for the conduct of exams in the relationship between the BHST and the examination institution. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Examiner's instruction : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the examiner and the examination institution. crane : Tower-shaped lifting gear for lifting free- hanging loads in a mobile (crawler or tire crane) set- up, with at least an operating load moment of 10 tonne metres. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. TCPR TCVT Certification Machine Translated by Google Persons Register Supervision : Gathering the information about the question whether an act or matter meets the requirements set for it, the subsequent formation of an opinion about it and the intervene if necessary. TSJ TCVT Schedule Journal: annotation on a TCVT schedule. Field of competence: field of work, Indication of the the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a particular field or profession, are made of persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Declaration : The EC type-examination certificate or EC declaration of conformity as referred to in or pursuant to the Machinery Directive or any other EU product directive. Field-specific : Term used by SZW certification scheme for a certification scheme that by the minister of SZW is accepted to use within a Machine Translated by Google specific designation as a CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT-VT-Persons : Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and inspection bodies that certify persons in the context of vertical transportation. Document: WDAT-VT-Persons. WDAT-VT Products : Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and mobile cranes, tower cranes and/or hoisting and lifting equipment for professional passenger transport and/or temporary passenger (construction) lifts in the context of vertical transport. Document: WDAT-VT- Products. 3. Field-specific characteristics Lifting is a risky professional activity. In order to safeguard the social interest – safety and health in and around work – the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for assuring the professional competence of mobile crane operators. 3.1. Description scheme The WSCS-VT Machinist Mobile Tower Crane was proposed by the BHST and adopted by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment, including any adjustments. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can also make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. Machine Translated by Google 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this field-specific certification scheme, the following are active: •. BHST TCVT, hereinafter TCVT •. CCvD TCVT, hereinafter CCvD •. Workroom 4 TCVT professional competence 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Lifting and attaching loads is a high-risk activity in vertical transport. The machine used to lift, the hoisting and lifting equipment and the attachment of loads can each individually and/or together be dangerous for people and the environment. Assurance of this process by certified machines and hoisting and lifting equipment on the one hand and certified machinists and lifting supervisors on the other is necessary and recognized by the legislator. Cranes are complex installations and their share of serious and fatal accidents is relatively large. The cause of this insecurity can be divided into a number of subgroups: 1. instability burden 2. Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load 3. Faucet instability 4. Boom instability 5. Inadequate construction and dismantling of cranes 6. Technical defects of the crane 7. Tap accessibility ad 1+2. Load instability / Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load In construction, crane operators often lift unknown and unstable loads over large groups of construction workers and unload the load in the immediate vicinity of people unrelated to the lifting activity. The burden is often lifted by non-experts. However, the operator is responsible for lifting the load. Little goes wrong with the lifting itself, but with the load (sliding, falling, hook break, etc.). This risk is caused by working with unsafe equipment, incompetent personnel, lack of time and the lack of a lifting plan. ad 3+ 4. Crane and boom instability Cranes and boom become unstable due to lifting and slewing. There are then large pressure displacements through the crane. Instability can lead to the crane sinking or falling over. Good stamping on good bulkheads is the solution. In addition, overloading and working in heavy winds cause problems. Ad 5 + 6. Technical condition of the crane and inadequate assembly/dismantling of the crane Taps are used intensively and are subject to wear and tear. The installation and dismantling of the crane also has direct consequences for its use. Regular inspection of the tap is the solution. Machine Translated by Google ad 7. Accessibility tap A crane on a construction site is a useful and sought-after item. Unfortunately, it still happens regularly that unauthorized persons use the crane for lifting work. The operator must therefore always close his crane when leaving the crane. Crane operator certification and crane inspection are management factors that the industry has taken up. The inspection prevents a number of mechanical defects and the certification maintains the competence of the operators. Other factors that can be influenced by the management of the work are conflict management, human-machine interactions, communication and sufficient manpower. 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes procedures for application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issue of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out inspections, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. 4.2. Certification procedure The candidate mobile tower crane operator must submit an application to a CKI for the mobile tower crane operator's personal certificate, in accordance with these certification regulations. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the progress of matters throughout the certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who has not been involved in the assessment of the candidates and who has been qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the CKI has on the basis of the field-specific schedule for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate. The maximum period of validity of a personal certificate is 5 years. Earlier withdrawal is possible if the certificate holder has not met the requirements with regard to mastering the attainment targets referred to under 9. (for conditions, see 4.5). 4.5. Validity conditions Machine Translated by Google Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. These conditions are: . the certificate holder may not perform any actions contrary to the regulations; . the certificate holder must ensure that no misuse is made of the personal certificate. The CKI is authorized to suspend and/or revoke the certificate. The conditions and the way in which they must be supervised by the CKI are drawn up by the CCvD and recorded in the TCVT protocol 'suspension/withdrawal'. 4.6. Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Machine Translated by Google Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. Machine Translated by Google 4.7. Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non- granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: . name and address of submitter . date . a description of the contested decision . the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. Machine Translated by Google •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with TCVT, this data is sent electronically to Bureau TCVT at least as often as changes occur for the purpose of the TCVT Persons Register, which is set up in accordance with statutory provisions. This register has been made accessible via the Internet. The BHST is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation Machine Translated by Google The CCvD must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then different interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. 5. Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the TCVT personal certificate for mobile tower crane operator. 5.1. Objective The examination takes place under the responsibility of the certification body and consists of the following parts: •. theory exam, and •. practical exam. 5.2. The exam institution The examination institution must adhere to the examination regulations. This includes the following: Hospitalized: 1. effective date of the certificate; 2. any entrance requirements for taking the exam; 3. the application procedure at the CKI; 4. confirmation of participation and call; 5. identification of the participants; 6. admission and absence; 7. exam duration and method of examination; 8. rules of conduct for candidates; 9. regulation adapted exam; 10. pass and fail standards; 11. announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; 12. retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; 13. right of inspection; 14. validity period of the exam result. If the examination institution is not an organizational part of the CKI, both have committed themselves by means of an agreement. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN- EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. The CKI is obliged to report to the BHST that exams are taken by an external examination institution and which institution it concerns. 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Machine Translated by Google Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. The selection process must guarantee that exam personnel who take (part of) an exam at least meet the requirements as formulated in the TCVT exam protocol (www.tcvt.nl). Supervisor theory exam A supervisor is appointed by the examination institution for the theory exam. This officer does not require specific knowledge of the field. The supervisor does have: •. organizational capabilities; •. communication and interpersonal skills; •. the ability to control and act decisively. The supervisor is expected to: •. supervises compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations, the implementing regulations and the examination requirements; •. correctly handles the established administrative procedures; •. makes himself sufficiently available for the supervision of the purchase of theory exams. A supervisor performs the following tasks: •. checking the candidate's personal details and registrations; •. checking and subsequently preparing the theory exam so that the candidate can start immediately after the start of the exam; •. exercising supervision in order to prevent abuse; •. taking the exam papers and preparing them for dispatch; •. the delivery of the total package to the examination institution. Corrector theory exam: A corrector is appointed by the examination institution to assess the written elaboration of the open questions of the theory exam. The corrector meets the following qualification criteria: •. he masters the Dutch language (or in the language in which the exam is taken (German and/or English)); •. he has up-to-date professional knowledge and insight; •. he fits the assessment criteria, as laid down in the TCVT certification scheme. Machine Translated by Google The corrector assesses the elaborations of the theory exams within the TCVT answer macros and the set term and attaches a mark to this according to the methodology as laid down in the relevant TCVT certification scheme. Examiner practical exam An examiner is appointed by the examination institution for the practical exam. The examiner is charged with assessing whether, and to what extent, the candidate's knowledge, skills and attitude meet the requirements for passing the exam. To this end, the examiner applies the TCVT examiner's instruction during the assessment. In the case of an examination with more than one examiner, one of the examiners is appointed as chairman and in that capacity is responsible for the orderly conduct of the examination and its settlement. The examiner has: •. at least two years of practical work experience in the relevant field; •. up-to-date practical and theoretical knowledge of the relevant field; •. good communicative skills; •. the ability to act decisively; •. sufficient knowledge of the examination regulations. The examiner is expected to: •. understands the influence that an exam situation has on the behavior of the candidates; •. is able to create an optimal climate for the candidate, so that knowledge and acquired experience, insight, skills and attitude are displayed as effectively as possible; •. properly deal with the candidates and all other persons who be present at the exam functionally; •. provides an objective assessment of the knowledge and understanding of the candidate; •. strictly observes the regulations for each examination component to apply; •. annually attends the TCVT examiners day; •. representatively represents the examination institution during the exam and ensures a correct course. The examiner must be an expert nominated by the examination institute and accepted by the CKI for each certification scheme. Independence The examination staff is independent. All examination staff signs a statement in which confidentiality and independence are guaranteed and in which they declare that they will not perform any work for or for a trainer. It declares itself independent of the candidate and any trainer/employer of the candidate. Should it become apparent during the examination that a relationship, of whatever nature, exists between the candidate and the relevant examination staff member, the examiner must inform the examiner in good time. Machine Translated by Google to report to the examination institution. Under no circumstances is it permitted for the relevant examiner to examine this candidate under penalty of invalidity of the exam. If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination are not discredited. These measures must be recorded in writing. 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the certification/examination institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the certification body. Employees of the examination institute have signed a confidentiality statement. 5.4.2. General rules when conducting exams The theory exam is taken in writing and in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam to a person aged 18 and over. If there are valid reasons for an oral theory exam in the Dutch language (for example for candidates who are demonstrably dyslexic), the certification body may decide to do so. This alternative must meet the same conditions as the regular theory exam and the CEC must agree to this. The written oral exam is taken by an examiner and a supervisor additionally authorized by the CKI. The examination institution must keep a record of this alternative administration with a (minimum annual) report to the CEC. The practical exam is taken in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam. The candidate must be able to communicate adequately during the exam. For the other requirements for the exam (location, resources, etc) reference is made to the TCVT exam protocol. 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder meets the requirements. The supervision is completed depending on the subject of certification, the period of certification and the risk analysis. Machine Translated by Google 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the TCVT recognized training institute for further training, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The necessary provisions for this are included in the agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder. 6.2. Frequency of supervision When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of the practical experience and the training must be submitted to the CKI. The receipt will be confirmed within one calendar week (this confirmation is proof to clients regarding the absence of the TCPR booklet). The CKI checks the registration and tests whether the requirements of training and practical experience are met. The applicant will be informed about this within one calendar week. In addition, the CKI carries out, unannounced, a 5% random check on the reliability of the implementation of the training and practical experience. Proper administration must be kept by the CKI for the registration of the training and practical experience. This administration must remain available for at least five years. 6.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out At the time of training (2 times in a period of 5 years), the TCVT recognized training institute assesses each TCPR booklet with regard to training and practical experience. If a certificate holder no longer meets the requirements, the CKI will be notified notified within three working days. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI is obliged to make its findings with regard to 6.2 known to the certificate holder within two calendar weeks. 6.5. Measures (Article 1.5e Working Conditions Decree) If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards in the professional field-specific certification scheme, this will result in measures by the CKI in the shortest possible time. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. The CKI must exchange information with the Inspectorate SZW about identified dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by a certificate issued or yet to be issued, and which may endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties. If there is a sanction, this will be made known to the certificate holder. Relevant information about the sanction must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. This notification obligation must be elaborated in detail, in connection with the confidentiality of personal data and the contractual relationship between CKI and the customer. Machine Translated by Google If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the CKI must indicate (and register) the period after which certification is allowed again. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. Criteria The CKI must in any case conduct an investigation after submitting a complaint regarding the working method of the certificate holder: •. from the SZW Inspectorate; •. from the market, submitted to TCVT and/or the CKI. Criteria on the basis of which the CKI must take measures are the following. 1. The certificate will be suspended if a complaint has been declared well- founded by the CKI. This concerns a complaint other than: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. well-founded The certificate by the CKI will2.be regarding: revoked if there is a complaint that has been declared •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. Part II: Standards Part 2 of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to a certificate for professional competence in a professional field. Described is successively: . the subject of certification, . entrance criteria that are set to be admitted to the certification process, . the attainment targets that apply to the certificate, . the way in which compliance with the learning outcomes is assessed and reported, . the assessment that takes place during recertification, . requirements for the certificate, . validity conditions. 7. Subject of Certification This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD TCVT. It concerns certification of safe lifting by a mobile tower crane operator. The schedule is provided by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified Machine Translated by Google concerns the execution of lifting work on construction sites with a mobile tower crane with an operating load moment of at least 10 tm. This is about: •. safe handling of the load; •. secure mobile tower crane positioning (stability, environment, surface); •. mobile tower crane to function safely (construction, lifting, dismantling, shut down); •. mobile tower crane in safe and technically good condition; •. safe and healthy working with the mobile tower crane. 8. Entry Criteria A summary of the requirements for the first issue of the legally required personal certificate for mobile tower crane operator follows. The candidate must meet the following entry criteria: •. have sufficient material knowledge; •. have sufficient material knowledge; •. possess machine sense; •. be able to work safely and in an environmentally responsible manner; •. master the Dutch language at reading knowledge level A1 and writing knowledge level B2 or equivalent for examination in German or English language. There is no specific prior education requirement. 9. Attainment targets The candidate meets the following attainment targets and is therefore competent: Theory 1. The candidate can complete the various preparations for the describe and apply lifting work. 1.1. The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. 1.2. The candidate can describe which preparations in the workplace must be taken before working with a mobile tower crane. 2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and describe its function and the way of use. 3. The candidate can perform work with a mobile tower crane. 3.1 The candidate can name different types of faucets and describe their characteristics and their application. 3.2 The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. 3.3 The candidate can describe how to safely perform lifting work with a mobile tower crane. 3.4 The candidate can determine how a mobile tower crane moves must be. 3.5 The candidate can understand the function and operation of the main components of the mobile tower crane. Machine Translated by Google 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting mobile tower cranes. 4.1 The candidate can interpret the safety requirements of the mobile tower crane, lifting load and lifting equipment. 4.2 The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. 4.3 The candidate can describe how a mobile tower crane should be left behind after lifting work. 4.4 The candidate can understand the safety systems of the mobile tower crane and explain the function of the LMB. 4.5 The candidate can explain how with and on a mobile phone tower crane must work in an environmentally responsible manner 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and failure aspects of a mobile recognizing, interpreting and naming tower cranes. 5.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance must be carried out on a mobile tower crane. 5.2 The candidate can describe how malfunctions on a mobile tower crane can be recognized and describe how to act in relation to this. Practice 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior to working with a mobile tower crane. 2. The candidate can recognize, name and check lifting equipment and equipment for safety requirements 3. The candidate can perform work with a mobile tower crane. 3.1 The candidate can perform lifting work with a mobile tower crane. 3.2 The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a mobile tower crane. 3.3 The candidate can move a mobile tower crane independently. 3.4 The candidate can use a mobile tower crane after lifting work left in accordance with the legal regulations. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting mobile tower cranes. 4.1 The candidate can use safety measures when working with and on a mobile tower crane. 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and failure aspects of a mobile recognizing, interpreting and naming tower cranes. 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on a mobile tower crane. 5.2 The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a mobile tower crane and act accordingly. 10. testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms Machine Translated by Google Each final term is elaborated in test terms. These test criteria are arranged in the diagrams below per final term. The total number of questions per test term is below indicated. Explanation of question code: *. FK = a question of factual knowledge *. BK = a question of conceptual knowledge *. RV = a question of reproductive skills *. PV = a demand for productive skills Test terms for driver theory mobile tower crane + number of mandatory questions 1. The candidate can describe and apply the various preparations for the lifting work. RV-1, FK-1, BK-2 1.1 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. The candidate can interpret a lifting table of a mobile tower crane. 1.2 The candidate can describe which preparations in the workplace must be taken before working with a mobile tower crane. – The candidate can identify the characteristics of the common species call ground – The candidate can explain why he takes into account the factors when setting up a mobile tower crane: *. the bearing capacity of the subsoil *. lifting work near a slope *. the view of work *. third parties (persons and traffic) *. the correct boom length in relation to the lifting height and/or the mass of the load to be lifted *. the way of stamping The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and the function and manner 2. describe its use. BK-3 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate the function of lifting equipment, possibly on the basis of an image, and can explain whether and how they should be used. 3. The candidate can perform work with a mobile tower crane. RV-6, FK-4, BK-10 3.1 The candidate can operate different types of mobile tower cranes (tracked, name tires, folds) and describe their characteristics and applications. – The candidate can, possibly on the basis of an image, name the types of cranes and describe their characteristics and applications 3.2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. – The candidate can, possibly on the basis of an image, recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment of the mobile tower crane. – The candidate can describe the function of lifting equipment and equipment of the mobile tower crane. Machine Translated by Google 3.3 The candidate can describe how to safely perform lifting work with a mobile tower crane. – The candidate can explain why the given safety aspects must be met. – The candidate can describe why to the following additional safety precautions must be met if with the mobile tower crane: *. place a load out of sight *. lifting work performed near railway tracks and/or power lines. *. standing at a work with several cranes *. lifting with a work basket – Given a situation, the candidate can determine in which situation which personal protective equipment must be worn. – Given the density of the materials, the candidate can calculate mass. – Given a situation, the candidate can determine risks and measures with regard to the shape, construction, composition and special properties of loads. 3.4. The candidate can determine how to move a mobile tower crane. – The candidate can determine a given situation: *. whether a mobile tower crane can be moved *. whether a mobile tower crane can be driven built up be with or without load *. whether a road or terrain is suitable to drive on *. whether a mobile tower crane can travel over different types of terrain (indicating the correct drive. – The candidate can name the points for attention during assembly, use, disassembly and transport of the auxiliary boom. – The candidate can describe how, in accordance with the conditions and the settings mentioned in the user manual, must be driven. 3.5. The candidate can understand the function and operation of the main components of the mobile tower crane. – The candidate can understand the operation of main parts and explain the systems of the mobile tower crane. – The candidate can name when changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a mobile tower crane can occur. – The candidate can understand the consequences of changes in the determine the stability, load and tipping moment of a mobile tower crane. 4. The candidate is able to name and interpret the safety and environmental aspects of working with a mobile tower crane. RV-2, FK-3, BK-10 4.1 The candidate can interpret the safety requirements of the mobile tower crane, lifting load and lifting equipment. – The candidate can define concepts: *. stability *. tipping point Machine Translated by Google *. flight *. moment of stability *. stamp base *. lifting equipment *. workload *. tilt line and tilt angle *. lifting equipment *. load moment – The candidate is able to operate and inspect cranes and the associated hoisting and lifting equipment interpret the legal obligations and describe the scope of these legal obligations. – The candidate can explain how he uses lifting equipment must check. – The candidate can explain how he should lift the lifting load to check. – The candidate can describe the function and content of the crane book with accompanying documents. 4.2. The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. – The candidate can determine which data in the lifting plan of important when carrying out work with the mobile tower crane. – The candidate can name which administrative obligations he has in the context of his professional practice. 4.3. The candidate can describe how a mobile tower crane should be left behind after lifting work. – The candidate can name the measures that apply when leaving a mobile tower crane behind. 4.4. The candidate can understand the safety systems of the mobile tower crane and explain the function of the LMB. – The candidate can name parts of the security system of a mobile tower crane. – The candidate can perform the load moment protection function of explain the mobile tower crane. – The candidate can explain which protections on the mobile tower crane must be present and what its function is. 4.5. The candidate can explain how with and on a mobile phone tower crane must operate in an environmentally responsible manner. – The candidate is able to interpret environmental and safety regulations that he must apply when moving environmentally harmful substances. – The candidate can explain why environmentally responsible work is important. 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and failure aspects of a mobile tower crane. FK-2, BK-6 5.1. The candidate can describe how and on what daily maintenance to a mobile tower crane should be carried out. – The candidate can carry out the daily maintenance of the mobile Describe tower crane. Machine Translated by Google – The candidate can state which cleaning activities must be carried out on the mobile tower crane. 5.2. The candidate can describe how malfunctions to a mobile phone tower crane can be recognized and in relation to this describe how to act. – The candidate can summarize how to perform a fault diagnosis to parts of a mobile tower crane. – The candidate understands how, given the nature of the malfunction, must be acted upon, ie: *. stop work *. self-repair of the malfunction *. enable technical service – The candidate can explain how he can signal impermissible wear and tear to parts of the mobile tower crane. – The candidate can list what is in a malfunction report should be mentioned. Test terms Practical exam (Sub)final objectives See activities 1 2 The candidate can: 3 4 5 6 7 1 the preparations 8 9 X X X X X meeting in the workplace prior to working with a mobile tower crane. 2. lifting work X X X X execute with a mobile tower crane. 3. lifting tools X X X attach to a mobile tower crane. 4.Perform daily checks X X and maintenance on a mobile tower crane. Machine Translated by Google 5. standalone a X X mobile tower crane move. 6. Recognizing Malfunctions X X X X X X X to a mobile tower crane and in relation to it acting action. 7. X X X X X X use safety precautions when working with and on a mobile tower crane. 8. leave a tower crane X X after lifting work in accordance with legal regulations The practical exam consists of the following activities: 1. Go through assignment 6. Practical lifting assignments 2. Initial check of the 7. machine Assist in moving (visual) load 3. Maintenance of the 8. Practical lifting assignments machine 4. Control and inspection 9. lifting equipment Set up and make 5. mobile tower crane ready10. for Leave machine use The table provides an overview of the distribution of the attainment targets over the activities of the practical exams for the operator of a mobile tower crane. Because attainment targets are subdivided into test objectives, an attainment target is often divided over several activities. As a result, an attainment target is usually not covered by an activity. Explanation of codes: *. RV = Reproductive Skills Assignment *. PV = Productive Skills Assignment Machine Translated by Google 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior working with a mobile tower crane. RV-9, PV-1 1.1 carry out a lifting plan in view of: *. location and dimensions of the lifting location(s) *. position and dimensions of the obstacles *. dimensions, shape, mass and center of gravity of the load *. type, dimensions, shape and mass of the lifting equipment. 1.2. checking the legally required documents. 1.3. cordon off the work area. 1.4. consult with the supervisor (examiner) about the work, ao about: *. the nature of the materials to be lifted *. the location of underground cables and pipes 1.5. on the basis of the environmental factors the terrain conditions determine: *. the location of overhead and underground pipes *. the location and dimensions of obstacles *. the presence of people and traffic on and next to the work area 1.6. estimate the dimensions, mass and center of gravity of the load. 1.7. determine the choice and type of lifting equipment. 1.8. attaching attachments and equipment to the mobile tower crane. 1.9. the following data from a lifting table of a mobile tower crane determine: *. the flight *. the lifting height *. the workload in relation to flight and/or altitude *. counterweight. 1.10. set up the mobile tower crane safely and in accordance with the operating instructions, taking environmental factors into account. 1.11. Check that the correct warning signs or signs are on and around the faucet are installed. 1.12. determine the manner of execution of the work. 2. The candidate can recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment and check for safety requirements RV-1 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate the function of lifting equipment and explain how they should be used, possibly on the basis of an image. 3. The candidate can perform work with a mobile tower crane. RV-12 3.1. The candidate can perform lifting work with a mobile tower crane. 3.1.1 Carry out lifting work with the mobile tower crane. 3.1.2 Giving legally prescribed hand and semaphore signals and following up on received hand and semaphore signals. 3.1.3 communicating using two-way radios. 3.1.4 choose the necessary lifting equipment based on the shape, mass and material of the load to be lifted. Machine Translated by Google 3.1.5 check the lifting equipment for: *. the display of the permitted workload on the lifting equipment *. visual damage or defects *. presence of a CE marking, certificate and inspection report 3.1.6 check the lifting table whether the mobile tower crane has the can perform work. 3.1.7 topping and topping a load with the mobile tower crane. 3.1.8 place a load in a target with the mobile tower crane. 3.1.9 a load between obstacles with the mobile tower crane maneuver. 3.1.10 control a pendulum movement with the mobile tower crane. 3.1.11 with a mobile tower crane a load from horizontal to move vertically. 3.2. The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a mobile tower crane. Attach lifting tools to the crane hook and use them to attach a load. 3.3. The candidate can move a mobile tower crane independently. 3.3.1 make the mobile tower crane roadworthy. 3.3.2 moving the mobile tower crane independently on the exam location. 3.4. The candidate can use a mobile tower crane after lifting work according to company regulations. after the work has been completed, leave the mobile tower crane in the correct manner in accordance with the legal regulations. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting mobile tower cranes. RV-2 4.1 The candidate is able to use safety measures when working with and on a mobile tower crane. observes the safety regulations during daily maintenance and when working with the mobile tower crane. 4.2 The candidate is able to work in an environmentally responsible manner with and on a mobile tower crane. demonstrate how environmental and safety regulations for storage, transhipment and use of environmentally harmful substances. 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and failure aspects of a mobile tower crane. RV-5, PV-1 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on a mobile tower crane. 5.1.1 indicate which parts of the mobile tower crane must be maintained on a daily basis and which operations must be carried out. 5.1.2 the operation of mobile tower crane systems to check. 5.2. The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a mobile tower crane and act accordingly. 5.2.1 draw up a malfunction diagnosis on the basis of the operating instructions for main components, based on visual and auditory checks on the systems of a mobile tower crane. Machine Translated by Google 5.2.2 demonstrate on the basis of the operating instructions how (minor) faults on the mobile tower crane can be remedied. 5.2.3 Report malfunctions to a mechanic or the technical service in such a way that they get an unambiguous and clear picture of the malfunction. This by to to give: *. what the failure of or where in the system is *. what is visually noticeable in the crane construction (components) *. whether and where leakages are detectable *. what actions/repairs have been taken. 5.2.4. In the event of a malfunction of the mobile tower crane, use the operating manual to determine which of the following actions it should take: *. assess whether or not he can be responsible work through *. troubleshoot independently *. the technician or technical service for the malfunction switch. 10.2. Assessment method The theory exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions based on the test terms as described in point 10.1. The theory exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The maximum time to take the theory exam is 90 minutes. The maximum rating for the multiple choice questions is 50 points (1 point per correct answer). A candidate has passed if he has obtained 42 points or more. The result is expressed as a pass/fail. The practical exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The exam assignments must be completed within 240 minutes. The TCVT examiners instruction determines the assessment of the practical exam. The following matters will be discussed in the practical exam: General •. The candidate is informed which type of machine he can expect. •. Has the candidate received instruction about the machine used for the exam? •. If not, don't take an exam! •. The candidate will be told the maximum length of time for the exam. •. If the candidate is suspected of having insufficient knowledge, the examiner questions the candidate about the motivation of his choices. •. The exam assignment will be announced in the presence of the candidate (removed from the sealed envelope). Police report Machine Translated by Google The examiner must always fill in an official report, even if there are no details to mention. The CKI will not accept requests to issue the certificate of professional competence without an attached official report. The official report also states the duration of the exam taken. If the exam is completed 30 minutes or earlier than the indicated time, the reason for this must be explicitly stated in the official report. The practical exam concerns the following components: 1. get acquainted and go through the assignment initial check of the mobile tower crane and the associated 2. documents 3. maintenance and operation of the mobile tower crane 4. lifting equipment 5. positioning at the lifting point and making the mobile ready for use tower crane 6. lifting order 1 7. assist moving load 8. lifting order 2 9. abandon mobile tower crane 10. safety 10.3. caesura Valuation result The result of both the theory and practical exam is expressed as pass/fail. Candidates who have not passed the theoretical or practical component or both components are entitled to a re-examination. The requirements as set out in Article 4.2 . apply here Validity period of the result of the exam A candidate can retake the exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam, which is still qualified as insufficiently qualified, up to 6 months after obtaining a satisfactory result for his practical or theory test. In this case, the candidate can request a re-examination at most twice within the stipulated period of 6 months. After this, or after the expiry of the term, a full exam (both theory and practice) must be taken. There is no limit to the number of combined practical and theory exams. Cesuur practice In the practical exam, a pass must be obtained for all components. Each component is assessed on the basis of an assessment protocol. 11. Recertification Machine Translated by Google 11.1. Test terms recertification In order to be eligible for recertification as a certificate holder, it must be demonstrated that all of the following conditions have been met by the certificate holder in those five (5) years: 1. Schooling: •. Two (2) training days (4 half-days) were followed at a TCVT recognized •. training institute, and •. one training day (2 half-days) is followed in the first 36 months of the five-year period, and •. the second day of training is taken after the 36th month of the five- year period, and •. During the training days, all final objectives and current developments are available with regard to this scheme, and •. of the training followed, the participant receives a certificate of participation from the TCVT recognized trainer and this is noted in the TCPR booklet. 2. Practical experience: •. during the period of five (5) years that the certificate is valid, the certificate holder •. have worked for at least eight quarters in the position assigned to the certificate is stated, and •. of these eight quarters, at least two quarters must fall in the last three years of the five-year period, and •. the practical experience can be demonstrated by recording the practical experience of the certificate holder in the TCPR booklet or in the TCVT Practice Register. This practical experience must be verified and initialed by the employer at least every three months. If the holder cannot demonstrate that he has sufficient practical experience in the last five years, he can demonstrate through a practical test that he is still sufficiently competent. A practical test is taken in accordance with the requirements as laid down in this scheme. 11.2. Assessment method Recertification can be completed as follows: •. If the positive recertification decision is made within two months before the expiry date, then the expiry date is also the effective date of the renewed certificate. •. If the positive certification decision is made before the two months prior to the expiry date, the date of the certification decision is the effective date of the renewed certificate. If due to circumstances the driver's personal certificate has expired without timely recertification and the driver still wants to obtain a personal certificate, a dispensation scheme is possible. To this end, the driver must Machine Translated by Google apply to a certification body. This application is then submitted to TCVT Werkkamer 4 Professional competence that draws up an advice. This advice is then submitted to the certification body, which subsequently takes a decision about the (re- )issuance of the personal certificate. 11.3. Control of the registration of practical experience in recertification When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of practical experience included therein must be submitted to the certification body. The receipt is confirmed within a calendar week with a statement, with which clients can be informed about the reason for the absence of the original TCPR booklet. The certification body checks the registrations and tests whether the required practical experience is met and informs the applicant about the result within a calendar week. In addition, the certification body, whether it concerns a driver as an employee or as a self- employed driver, will pay an unannounced 5% discount when applying for recertification. carry out random checks on the reliability of the implementation of practical experience. Proper administration must be kept for the registration of practical experience. This must remain available for at least 5 years. 12. The certificate Facts: At least the following information must be stated on the certificate: •. Name of the certified person incl. date of birth; •. Unambiguous document number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards against which it is tested; •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid. Texts: The certificate must state that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements from the field-specific certification scheme and, if relevant, whether it concerned a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. After a positive certification decision, the candidate will receive a TCVT certificate and a TCPR booklet within 4 weeks. Both documents are legal Machine Translated by Google means of proof. The details (including withdrawal of the certificate) of the participant are registered in the TCVT register of persons. Unregistered Below are the conditions for removal from the TCVT certificate register. Certificate holders that do not meet the requirements associated with the certificate will be removed from the register of certificate holders. The following reasons can lead to deletion from the registry: a) Not being able to demonstrate that you are working as a train driver in the professional specialization for which the certificate is valid. b) Failure to fulfill obligations towards the certification body; c) Misuse or allow the certificate to be misused; d) Providing incomplete or incorrect information to the certification institution; It proves unfit for the exercise of the certificate e) cohesive professional skills; f) Failure to meet the requirements as formulated under recertification (11). These conditions must be included in the certification agreement between the certification body and the certificate holder. Other conditions for certificate holders The holder of the certificate must prevent misuse of the certificate by third parties and report the loss of this certificate in writing to the certification body within 10 days. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate is obliged to report changes in place of residence and home address in writing to the certification body. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate must report complaints lodged against him/her by third parties, which are related to the purport of this certificate, to the certification body that issued the certificate in question. Annex XVIIb. belonging to Article 7.7, second paragraph, under b, Working Conditions Regulations Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Machinist Tower Crane Document: WSCS-VT Operator Tower Crane CONTENT 1. Introduction 2. Definitions Machine Translated by Google 3. Field-specific characteristics 4. Certification Regulations 5. Exam regulations 6. Supervision PART II: STANDARDS 7. Subject of certification 8. Entry criteria 9. Attainment 10. targets for testing methodology at initial certification 11. Recertification 12. The certificate 13. Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of safe lifting by an operator with a tower crane. The schedule is provided by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe execution of lifting work on construction sites with a tower crane. The certification system of the Certification Body (CKI) must be structured in accordance with the requirements of the WDAT-VT- Personen. 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate applies to the certification body for the issue of a personal certificate of professional competence. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-) by the CKI on the basis of the Machine Translated by Google Minister of SZW adopted WDA&T. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme: TCVT. Central College of : The board, part of and/ Experts (CCvD) facilitated by BHST, that interested parties in a certain sector or industry offers the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field- specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. In this case the CCvD-TCVT. Central Exam : Commission within the Commission (CEC) structure of the BHST which develops and manages a central item bank. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 7 Commodities Act (Article 6e Machinery Commodities Act Decree ). In addition, a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : Person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Machine Translated by Google Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Approval institution Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score to which a fail and the lowest test score to which a pass is awarded. Competence : Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills and, where relevant, demonstrated personal attributes, such as Machine Translated by Google defined in the certification scheme. Check : Periodic assessment of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must meet in order to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to help the individual candidate to be able to assess the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Exam protocol : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the BHST and the examination institution. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of exams Machine Translated by Google in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Examiner's instruction : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the examiner and the examination institution. crane Hoisting equipment for the lifting of freely suspended loads in a fixed (fixed and mobile crane) arrangement, with at least operating load moment of 10 tonne metres. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. TCPR TCVT Certification Persons Register Supervision : Gathering the information about whether an act or thing meets the requirements set for it, then forming it of a judgment about it and the possibly as a result of this intervene. TSJ TCVT Schedule Journal: annotation on a TCVT schedule. Field of competence: field of work, Indication of the the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Competency requirements : The requirements that, within Machine Translated by Google a specific field of work or a specific professional group, are posed to persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Declaration : The EC type-examination certificate or EC declaration of conformity as referred to in or pursuant to the Machinery Directive or any other EU product directive. Field-specific : Term used by SZW certification scheme for a certification scheme issued by the Minister of SZW is accepted to be used within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT-VT-Persons : Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and inspection bodies that certify persons in the context of vertical transportation. Document: WDAT-VT-Persons. WDAT-VT Products : Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and mobile cranes, tower cranes and/or hoisting and lifting equipment for Machine Translated by Google periodically inspect professional passenger transport and/or temporary passenger (construction) lifts in the context of vertical transportation. Document: WDAT-VT-Products. 3. Field-specific characteristics Lifting is a risky professional activity. In order to guarantee the social interest - safety and health of and around the work - the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for guaranteeing the professional competence of tower crane operators. 3.1. Description scheme This WSCS-VT Machinist Tower Crane was proposed by the BHST and approved by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment, including any adjustments. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can also make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this field-specific certification scheme, actions are: •. BHST TCVT, hereinafter TCVT; •. CCvD TCVT, hereinafter CCvD; •. Workroom 4 TCVT professional competence. 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Lifting and attaching loads is a high-risk activity in vertical transport. The machine used to lift, the hoisting and lifting equipment and the attachment of loads can each individually and/or together be dangerous for people and the environment. Assurance of this process by certified machines and hoisting and lifting equipment on the one hand and certified machinists and lifting supervisors on the other is necessary and recognized by the legislator. Cranes are complex installations and their share of serious and fatal accidents is relatively large. The cause of this insecurity can be divided into a number of subgroups: 1. instability burden 2. Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load 3. Faucet instability 4. Boom instability 5. Inadequate construction and dismantling of crane Machine Translated by Google 6. Technical defects of the crane 7. Tap accessibility ad 1+2. Load instability / Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load In construction, crane operators often lift unknown and unstable loads over large groups of construction workers and unload the load in the immediate vicinity of people unrelated to the lifting activity. The burden is often lifted by non-experts. However, the operator is responsible for lifting the load. Little goes wrong with the lifting itself, but with the load (sliding, falling, hook break, etc.). This risk is caused by working with unsafe equipment, incompetent personnel, lack of time and the lack of a lifting plan. ad 3+ 4. Crane and boom instability Cranes and boom become unstable due to lifting and slewing. There are then large pressure displacements through the crane. Instability can lead to the crane sinking or falling over. Good stamping on good bulkheads is the solution. In addition, overloading and working in heavy winds cause problems. Ad 5 + 6. Technical condition of the crane and inadequate assembly/dismantling of the crane Taps are used intensively and are subject to wear and tear. The installation and dismantling of the crane also has direct consequences for its use. Regular inspection of the tap is the solution. ad 7. Accessibility tap A crane on a construction site is a useful and sought-after item. Unfortunately, it still happens regularly that unauthorized persons use the crane for lifting work. The operator must therefore always close his crane when leaving the crane. Crane operator certification and crane inspection are management factors that the industry has taken up. The inspection prevents a number of mechanical defects and the certification maintains the competence of the operators. Other factors that can be influenced by the management of the work are conflict management, human-machine interactions, communication and sufficient manpower 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes procedures for application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issue of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out inspections, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. Machine Translated by Google 4.2. Certification procedure The candidate tower crane operator must submit an application to a CKI for the tower crane operator's personal certificate, in accordance with these certification regulations. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who has not been involved in the assessment of the candidates and who has been qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the certification body has on the basis of the field-specific scheme for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate. The maximum period of validity of a personal certificate is 5 years. Earlier withdrawal is possible if the certificate holder has failed to meet the requirements with regard to the control of the end date referred to under 9. (for conditions, see 4.5). 4.5. Validity conditions Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. These conditions are: . the certificate holder may not perform any actions contrary to the regulations; . the certificate holder must ensure that no misuse is made made from the personal certificate. The CKI is authorized to suspend and/or revoke the certificate. The conditions and the way in which they must be supervised by the CKI are drawn up by the CCvD and recorded in the TCVT protocol 'suspension/withdrawal'. 4.6. Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: Machine Translated by Google •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Machine Translated by Google Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must structural improvement of the method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state reasons why the data Machine Translated by Google decision is not correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: contain: . name and address of submitter . date . a description of the contested decision . the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection Machine Translated by Google •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with TCVT, this data is sent electronically at least as often as changes occur sent to Bureau TCVT for the purpose of the TCVT Persons Register, which is set up in accordance with legal provisions. This register has been made accessible via the Internet. The BHST is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then different interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. 5. Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for this WSCS-VT Machinist Tower Crane. 5.1. Objective The examination takes place under the responsibility of the certification body and consists of the following parts: •. theory exam, and •. practical exam. Machine Translated by Google 5.2. The exam institution The examination institution must adhere to the examination regulations. This includes the following: Hospitalized: 1. effective date of the certificate; 2. any entrance requirements for taking the exam; 3. the application procedure at the CKI; 4. confirmation of participation and call; 5. identification of the participants; 6. admission and absence; 7. exam duration and method of examination; 8. rules of conduct for candidates; 9. regulation adapted exam; 10. pass and fail standards; 11. announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; 12. retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; 13. right of inspection; 14. validity period of the exam result. If the examination institution is not an organizational part of the CKI, both have committed themselves by means of an agreement. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. The CKI is obliged to report to the BHST that exams are taken by an external examination institution and which institution it concerns. 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. The selection process must guarantee that exam personnel who take (part of) an exam at least meet the requirements as formulated in the TCVT exam protocol. Supervisor theory exam A supervisor is appointed by the examination institution for the theory exam. This officer does not require specific knowledge of the field. The supervisor does have: . organizational capabilities; . communication and interpersonal skills; . the ability to control and act decisively. The supervisor is expected to: . supervises compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations, the implementing regulations and the examination requirements; Machine Translated by Google . correctly handles the established administrative procedures; . makes himself sufficiently available for the supervision of the purchase of theory exams. A supervisor performs the following tasks: . checking the candidate's personal details and registrations; . checking and subsequently preparing the theory exam so that the candidate can start immediately after the start of the exam; . exercising supervision in order to prevent abuse; . taking the exam papers and preparing them for dispatch; . the delivery of the total package to the examination institution. Corrector theory exam: A corrector is appointed by the examination institution to assess the written elaboration of the open questions of the theory exam. The corrector meets the following qualification criteria: . he/she masters the Dutch language (or the language in which the exam is taken (German and/or English)); . he has up-to-date professional knowledge and insight; . he fits the assessment criteria, as laid down in the TCVT certification scheme. The corrector assesses the elaborations of the theory exams within the TCVT answer macros and the set term and attaches a mark to this according to the methodology as laid down in the relevant TCVT certification scheme. Examiner practical exam An examiner is appointed by the examination institution for the practical exam. The examiner is charged with assessing whether, and to what extent, the candidate's knowledge, skills and attitude meet the requirements for passing the exam. To this end, the examiner applies the TCVT examiner's instruction during the assessment. In the case of an examination with more than one examiner, one of the examiners is designated as chairman and in that capacity is responsible for the orderly conduct of the examination and its settlement. The examiner has: . at least two years of practical work experience in the relevant field; . up-to-date practical and theoretical knowledge of the relevant field; . good communicative skills; . the ability to act decisively; . sufficient knowledge of the examination regulations. The examiner is expected to: . understands the influence that an exam situation has on the behavior of the candidates; Machine Translated by Google . is able to create an optimal climate for the candidate, so that knowledge and acquired experience, insight, skills and attitude are displayed as effectively as possible; . properly deal with the candidates and all other persons who be present at the exam functionally; . provides an objective assessment of the knowledge and understanding of the candidate; . strictly observes the regulations for each examination component to apply; . attends the TCVT examiners day every year . representatively represents the examination institution during the exam and ensures a correct course. For each certification scheme, the examiner must be an expert nominated by the examination institute and accepted by the certification institute. Independence The examination staff is independent. All examination staff signs a statement in which confidentiality and independence are guaranteed and in which they declare that they will not perform any work for or for a trainer. It declares itself independent of the candidate and any trainer/employer of the candidate. Should it become apparent during the examination that a relationship, of whatever nature, exists between the candidate and the relevant examination staff member, the examiner must report this to the examination institution in good time. Under no circumstances is it permitted for the relevant examiner to examine this candidate under penalty of invalidity of the exam. If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination are not discredited. These measures must be recorded. 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the certification/examination institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the certification body. Employees of the examination institute have signed a confidentiality statement. 5.4.2. General rules when conducting exams The theory exam is taken in writing and in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language Machine Translated by Google of the exam to a person aged 18 and over. If there are valid reasons for an oral theory exam in the Dutch language (for example for candidates who are demonstrably dyslexic), the certification body may decide to do so. This alternative must meet the same conditions as the regular theory exam and the CEC must agree to this. The written oral exam is taken by an examiner and a supervisor additionally authorized by the CKI. The examination institution must keep a record of this alternative administration with a (minimum annual) report to the CEC. The practical exam is taken in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam. The candidate must be able to communicate adequately during the exam. For the other requirements for the exam (location, resources, etc) reference is made to the TCVT exam protocol. 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder meets the requirements. The supervision is completed depending on the subject of certification, the period of certification and the risk analysis. 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the TCVT recognized training institute for further training, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The necessary provisions for this are included in the agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder. 6.2. Frequency of supervision When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of the practical experience and the training must be submitted to the CKI. The receipt will be confirmed within one calendar week (this confirmation is proof to clients regarding the absence of the TCPR booklet). The CKI checks the registration and tests whether the requirements of training and practical experience are met. The applicant will be informed about this within one calendar week. In addition, the CKI carries out, unannounced, a 5% random check on the reliability of the implementation of the training and practical experience. Proper administration must be kept by the CKI for the registration of the training and practical experience. This administration must remain available for at least five years. 6.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out Machine Translated by Google At the time of training (twice in a period of 5 years), the TCVT recognized training institute assesses each TCPR booklet with regard to training and practical experience. If a certificate holder no longer meets the requirements, the CKI will be notified of this within three working days. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI is obliged to make its findings with regard to 6.2 known to the certificate holder within two calendar weeks. 6.5. Measures (Article 1.5e Working Conditions Decree) If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards in the professional field-specific certification scheme, this will result in measures by the CKI in the shortest possible time. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. The CKI must exchange information with the Inspectorate SZW about identified dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and that could endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties. If there is a sanction, this will be made known to the certificate holder. Relevant information about the sanction must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. This notification obligation must be elaborated in detail, in connection with the confidentiality of personal data and the contractual relationship between CKI and the customer. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the CKI must indicate (and register) the period after which certification is allowed again. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. Criteria The CKI must in any case conduct an investigation after submitting a complaint regarding the working method of the certificate holder: •. from the SZW Inspectorate; •. from the market, submitted to TCVT and/or the CKI. Criteria on the basis of which the CKI must take measures are the following. 1. The certificate will be suspended if a complaint has been declared well-founded by the CKI. This concerns a complaint other than: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. Machine Translated by Google 2. The certificate will be revoked if there is a complaint that has been declared well-founded by the CKI regarding: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. Part II: Standards Part 2 of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to a certificate for professional competence in a professional field. Described is successively: •. the subject of certification, •. entrance criteria that are set to be admitted to the certification process, •. the attainment targets that apply to the certificate, •. the way in which compliance with the learning outcomes is assessed and reported, •. the assessment that takes place during recertification, •. requirements for the certificate, •. validity conditions. 7. Subject of Certification This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD TCVT. It concerns certification of safe lifting by a tower crane operator. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe execution of lifting work on construction sites with a tower crane with a capacity above 10 tm or whose boom is mounted 20 meters or higher above the plane of the support of the crane. This is about: •. safe handling of the load; •. positioning tower crane safely (stability, environment); •. allow the tower crane to function safely (hoisting, shutting off); •. tower crane in safe and technically good condition; •. working safely and healthily with the tower crane. 8. Entry Criteria For the first issue of the legally required personal certificate for tower crane operator, a summary of the requirements follows below. The candidate must meet the following entry criteria: . have sufficient material knowledge; . have sufficient material knowledge; . possess machine sense; . be able to work safely and in an environmentally responsible manner; Machine Translated by Google . master the Dutch language at reading knowledge level A1 and writing knowledge level B2 or equivalent for examination in German or English language. There is no specific prior education requirement. 9. Attainment targets The candidate meets the following attainment targets and is therefore competent: Theory 1. The candidate can complete the various preparations for the describe and apply lifting work. 1.1 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. 1.2 The candidate can describe which preparations must be made in the workplace prior to working with a tower crane. 2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and describe its function and the way of use. 3. The candidate can perform work with a tower crane. 3.1 The candidate can name different types of faucets and describe their characteristics and their application. 3.2 The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. 3.3 The candidate can describe how to safely perform lifting work with a tower crane. 3.5 The candidate can understand the function and operation of the main components of the tower crane. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting tower cranes. 4.1 The candidate can understand the safety requirements of the tower crane and interpret lifting equipment. 4.2 The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. 4.3 The candidate can describe how a tower crane should be left behind after lifting work. 4.4 The candidate can name the safety systems of the tower crane and explain the function of the LMB. 4.5 The candidate can explain how with and on a tower crane work must be done in an environmentally responsible manner. 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and failure aspects of a tower crane recognizing, interpreting and naming. 5.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance must be carried out on a tower crane. 5.2 The candidate can describe how faults in a tower crane can be recognized and how to act in relation to this. Practice Machine Translated by Google 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior working with a tower crane. 2. The candidate can recognize, name and check lifting equipment and equipment for safety requirements 3. The candidate can perform work with a tower crane. 3.1 The candidate can perform lifting work with a tower crane. 3.2 The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a tower crane. 3.3 The candidate can operate a tower crane after lifting work in accordance with the Leaving legal regulations behind. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting tower cranes. 4.1 The candidate can use safety measures when working with and on a tower crane. 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and failure aspects of a tower crane recognizing, interpreting and naming. 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on a tower crane. 5.2 The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a tower crane and in relationship with it. 10. testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms Each final term is elaborated in test terms. These test criteria are arranged in the diagrams below per final term. The total number of questions per test term is indicated below. Explanation of question code: *. FK = a question of factual knowledge *. BK = a question of conceptual knowledge *. RV = a question of reproductive skills *. PV = a demand for productive skills Test terms theory operator tower crane + number of mandatory questions 1. The candidate can describe and apply the various preparations for the lifting work. RV-1, FK-1, BK-2 1.1 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. The candidate is able to interpret a lifting table of a tower crane. 1.2. The candidate can describe which preparations in the workplace must be taken before working with a tower crane. – The candidate can identify the characteristics of the common species call ground – The candidate can explain why, when drawing up of a tower crane takes into account the factors: *. tower crane foundation Machine Translated by Google *. the view of work *. third parties (persons and traffic) *. the correct boom length in relation to the lifting height and/or the mass of the load to be lifted. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and the function and manner 2. describe its use. BK-3 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate the function of lifting equipment, possibly on the basis of an image, and can explain whether and how they should be used. 3. The candidate can perform work with a tower crane. RV-6, FK-4, BK-10 3.1 The candidate can name different types of tower cranes and describe its features and applications. – The candidate can, possibly on the basis of an image, name the types of cranes and describe their characteristics and applications 3.2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. – The candidate can, possibly on the basis of an image, Identify and name tower crane lifting equipment and equipment. – The candidate can fulfill the position of lifting equipment and Describe equipment of the tower crane. 3.3. The candidate can describe how in a safe way lifting work must be carried out with a tower crane. – The candidate can explain why the given safety aspects must be met. – The candidate can describe why the following additional safety measures must be met when using the tower crane: *. place a load out of sight *. lifting a load with two winches *. lifting work performed near railway tracks and/or power lines. *. standing at a work with several cranes – Given a situation, the candidate can determine in which situation which personal protective equipment must be worn. – Given the density of the materials, the candidate can calculate mass. – Given a situation, the candidate can determine risks and measures with regard to the shape, construction, composition and special properties of loads. 3.5. The candidate can understand the function and operation of the main components of the tower crane. – The candidate can explain the operation of main components and systems of the tower crane. – The candidate can name when changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a tower crane can occur. – The candidate can understand the consequences of changes in the determine the stability, load and tipping moment of a tower crane. Machine Translated by Google 4. The candidate is able to name and interpret the safety and environmental aspects of working with a tower crane, lifting load and lifting equipment. RV-2, FK-3, BK-10 4.1 The candidate can understand the safety requirements of the tower crane and interpret lifting equipment. – The candidate can define concepts: *. stability *. tipping point *. flight *. moment of stability *. lifting equipment *. workload *. tilt line and tilt angle *. lifting equipment *. load moment – The candidate is able to operate and inspect tower cranes and the associated hoisting and lifting equipment comply with the legal obligations interpret and describe the scope of these legal obligations. – The candidate can explain how he uses lifting equipment must check. – The candidate can explain how he should lift the lifting load to check. – The candidate can describe the function and content of the crane book with accompanying documents. 4.2. The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. – The candidate can determine which data in the lifting plan of important when carrying out work with the crane. – The candidate can name which administrative obligations he has in the context of his professional practice. 4.3. The candidate can describe how a tower crane lifting work must be left behind. – The candidate can name the measures that apply to the leaving a tower crane. 4.4. The candidate can name the tower crane's safety systems and explain the function of the LMB. – The candidate can share parts of a called a tower crane. – The candidate can perform the load moment protection function of set up the tower crane. – The candidate can explain which safety devices must be present on the tower crane and what their function is. 4.5. The candidate can explain how to work with and on a tower crane in an environmentally responsible manner. – The candidate is able to interpret environmental and safety regulations that he must apply when moving environmentally harmful substances. – The candidate can explain why environmentally responsible work is important. Machine Translated by Google 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and failure aspects of a tower crane. FK-2, BK-6 5.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance must be carried out on a tower crane. – The candidate can carry out the daily maintenance of the tower crane to describe. – The candidate can state which cleaning activities must be carried out on the tower crane. 5.2. The candidate can describe how malfunctions of a tower crane can be recognized and in relation to this describe how to act. – The candidate can summarize how to perform a fault diagnosis to parts of a tower crane. – The candidate understands how, given the nature of the malfunction, must be acted upon, ie: *. stop work *. self-repair of the malfunction *. enable technical service – The candidate can explain how to avoid unacceptable wear can signal to parts of the tower crane. – The candidate can list what is in a malfunction report should be mentioned. Test terms Practical exam (Sub)final objectives See activities The candidate can: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 the preparations 8 9 X X X X X meeting in the workplace prior to working with a mobile tower crane. 2. lifting work X X X X with a mobile tower crane. 3. lifting tools X X X attach to a mobile tower crane. 4.Perform daily checks and maintenance X X to a mobile tower crane. 5. recognize malfunctions X X X X X X X X Machine Translated by Google to a mobile tower crane and in relation to it acting action. 6. X X X X X X use safety precautions when working with and on a mobile tower crane. 7. a mobile tower X X crane after lifting work in accordance with legal regulations leave behind The practical exam consists of the following activities: 1. Review assignment 6. tower crane Choose position 2. Initial check of the 7. machine Practical lifting assignments (visual) 3. Maintenance of the 8. pick up machine 4. Reeving the lifting cable 9. Hoisting order pipe/tower section Control 5. and inspection 10. lifting equipment Leave machine The table provides an overview of the distribution of the attainment targets over the activities of the practical exams for tower crane operator. Because attainment targets are subdivided into test objectives, an attainment target is often divided over several activities. As a result, an attainment target is usually not covered by an activity. Explanation of codes: *. RV = Reproductive Skills Assignment *. PV = Productive Skills Assignment 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior working with a tower crane. RV-9, PV-1 1.1. carry out a lifting plan taking into account: *. location and dimensions of the lifting location(s) *. position and dimensions of the obstacles Machine Translated by Google *. dimensions, shape, mass and center of gravity of the load *. type, dimensions, shape and mass of the lifting equipment. 1.2. checking the legally required documents. 1.3. cordon off the work area. 1.4. consult with the supervisor (examiner) about the work, ao about: *. the nature of the materials to be lifted *. the location of underground cables and pipes 1.5. on the basis of the environmental factors the terrain conditions determine: *. the location of overhead and underground pipes *. the location and dimensions of obstacles *. the presence of people and traffic on and next to the work area 1.6. estimate the dimensions, mass and center of gravity of the load. 1.7. determine the choice and type of lifting equipment. 1.8. attach attachments and equipment to the tower crane. 1.9. determine the following data from a lifting table of a tower crane: *. the flight *. the lifting height *. the workload in relation to flight and/or altitude *. counterweight. 1.10. operate the tower crane safely and in accordance with the operating instructions, taking into account the environmental factors. 1.11. Check that the correct warning signs or signs are on and around the faucet are installed. 1.12. determine the manner of execution of the work. 2. The candidate can recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment and check for safety requirements. RV-1 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate the function of lifting equipment and explain how they should be used, possibly on the basis of an image. 3. The candidate can perform work with a tower crane. RV-12 3.1 The candidate can perform lifting work with a tower crane. 3.1.1 Carry out lifting work with the tower crane. 3.1.2 Giving legally prescribed hand and semaphore signals and following up on received hand and semaphore signals. 3.1.3 communicating using two-way radios. 3.1.4 choose the necessary lifting equipment based on the shape, mass and material of the load to be lifted. 3.1.5 check the lifting equipment for: *. the display of the permitted workload on the lifting equipment *. visual damage or defects *. presence of a CE marking, certificate and inspection report Machine Translated by Google 3.1.6. check the lifting table whether the tower crane does the work can perform. 3.1.7. topping and topping a load with the tower crane. 3.1.8. place a load in a target with the tower crane. 3.1.9. a load between obstacles with the tower crane maneuver. 3.1.10. control a pendulum movement with the tower crane. 3.2. The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a tower crane. Attach lifting tools to the crane hook and use them to attach a load. 3.3. The candidate can operate a tower crane after lifting work in accordance with the leave company regulations. after the work has been completed, leave the tower crane in the correct manner in accordance with the legal regulations. 4. The candidate is able to name and interpret the safety and environmental aspects of working with a tower crane. RV-2 4.1 The candidate is able to use safety measures when working with and on a tower crane. observes the safety regulations during daily maintenance and when working with the tower crane. 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and failure aspects of a tower crane. RV-5, PV-1 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on a tower crane. 5.1.1 indicate which parts of the crane must be maintained on a daily basis and which operations must be carried out. 5.1.2 check the operation of tower crane systems. 5.2. The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a tower crane and in relationship with it. 5.2.1 draw up a malfunction diagnosis on the basis of the operating instructions for main components, based on visual and auditory checks on the systems of a tower crane. 5.2.2 demonstrate how (minor) faults on the tower crane can be remedied. 5.2.3 Report malfunctions to a mechanic or the technical service in such a way that they get an unambiguous and clear picture of the malfunction. This by to to give: *. what the failure of or where in the system is *. what is visually noticeable in the crane construction (components) *. whether and where leakages are detectable *. what actions/repairs have been taken. 5.2.4 in the event of malfunctions on the tower crane, determine which of the following actions it should take on the basis of the operating instructions: *. assess whether or not he can be responsible work through *. troubleshoot independently *. the technician or technical service for the malfunction switch. Machine Translated by Google 10.2. Assessment method The theory exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions based on the test terms as described in point 10.1. The theory exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The maximum time to take the theory exam is 90 minutes. The maximum rating for the multiple choice questions is 50 points (1 point per correct answer). A candidate has passed if he has obtained 42 points or more. The result is expressed as a pass/fail. The practical exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The exam assignments must be completed within 240 minutes. The TCVT examiners instruction determines the assessment of the practical exam. The following matters will be discussed in the practical exam: General The candidate is informed which type of machine he can expect. Has the candidate received instruction about the machine used for the exam? If not, do not take an exam. The candidate will be told the maximum length of time for the exam. If the candidate suspects insufficient knowledge, the examiner must question the candidate about the motivation of his choices. The exam assignment is announced in the presence of the candidate (removed from the sealed envelope). Police report The examiner must always fill in an official report, even if there are no details to mention. The CKI will not accept requests to issue the certificate of professional competence without an attached official report. The official report also states the duration of the exam taken. If the exam is completed 30 minutes or earlier than the indicated time, the reason for this must be explicitly stated in the official report. The practical exam concerns the following components: •. get acquainted and go through the assignment •. initial check of the tower crane and the associated documents •. maintenance and operation of the tower crane crane •. lifting equipment •. setting up and making the tower crane ready for use •. lifting order 1 •. assist moving load Machine Translated by Google •. lifting order 2 •. leave tower crane •. safety 10.3. caesura Valuation result The result of both the theory and practical exam is expressed as pass/fail. Candidates who have not passed the theoretical or practical component or both components are entitled to a re-examination. The requirements as set out in Article 4.2 . apply here Validity period of the result of the exam A candidate can retake the exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam, which is still qualified as insufficiently qualified, up to 6 months after obtaining a satisfactory result for his practical or theory test. In this case, the candidate can request a re-examination at most twice within the stipulated period of 6 months. After this, or after the expiry of the term, a full exam (both theory and practice) must be taken. There is no limit to the number of combined practical and theory exams. Cesuur practice In the practical exam, a pass must be obtained for all components. Each component is assessed on the basis of an assessment protocol. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms recertification In order to be eligible for recertification as a certificate holder, it must be demonstrated that all of the following conditions have been met by the certificate holder in those five (5) years: 1. Schooling: – Two (2) training days (4 half-days) were attended at a training institute recognized by TCVT, and – one training day (2 half-days) is followed in the first 36 months of the period of five years, and – the second day of training is taken after the 36th month of the five-year period, and – during the training days, all attainment targets and current developments regarding included this schedule, and – the participant receives a certificate of participation of the training followed of the TCVT recognized trainer and this is noted in the TCPR booklet. 2. Practical experience: Machine Translated by Google – in the period of five (5) years that the certificate is valid, the certificate holder must have worked for at least eight quarters in the position stated on the certificate, and – of these eight quarters, at least two quarters must fall in the last three years of the five-year period, and – the practical experience can be demonstrated by recording the practical experience of the certificate holder in the TCPR booklet or in the TCVT Practice Register. This practical experience must be verified and initialed by the employer at least every three months. If the holder cannot demonstrate that he has sufficient practical experience in the last five years, he can demonstrate through a practical test that he is still sufficiently competent. A practical test is taken in accordance with the requirements as laid down in this WSCS-VT Machinist Tower Crane. 11.2. Assessment method Recertification can be completed as follows: . If the positive recertification decision is made within two months before the expiry date, then the expiry date is also the effective date of the renewed certificate. . If the positive certification decision is made before the two months prior to the expiry date, the date of the certification decision is the effective date of the renewed certificate. If due to circumstances the driver's personal certificate has expired without timely recertification and the driver still wants to obtain a personal certificate, a dispensation scheme is possible. To this end, the driver submits an application to a CKI. This application is then submitted to TCVT Werkkamer 4 Professional competence, which draws up an advice. This advice is then submitted to the certification body, which subsequently takes a decision about the (re)granting of the personal certificate. 11.3. Control of the registration of practical experience in recertification When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of practical experience included therein must be submitted to the certification body. The receipt is confirmed within a calendar week with a statement, with which clients can be informed about the reason for the absence of the original TCPR booklet. The certification body checks the registrations and tests whether the required practical experience is met and informs the applicant about the result within a calendar week. In addition, regardless of whether it concerns a driver as an employee or as a self-employed driver, the CKI will pay an unannounced 5% discount when applying for recertification. Machine Translated by Google carry out random checks on the reliability of the implementation of practical experience. Proper administration must be kept for the registration of practical experience. This must remain available for at least 5 years. 12. The certificate Facts: •. At least the following information must be stated on the certificate: •. Name of the certified person incl. date of birth; •. Unambiguous document number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards against which it is tested; •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid. Texts: The certificate must state that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements from the field-specific certification scheme and, if relevant, whether it concerned a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. After a positive certification decision, the candidate will receive a TCVT certificate and a TCPR booklet within 4 weeks. Both documents are legal evidence. The details (including withdrawal of the certificate) of the participant are registered in the TCVT register of persons. Unregistered Below are the conditions for removal from the TCVT certificate register. Certificate holders that do not meet the requirements associated with the certificate will be removed from the register of certificate holders. The following reasons can lead to deletion from the registry: a. Not being able to demonstrate that you are working as a train driver in the professional specialization for which the certificate is valid. b. Failure to fulfill obligations towards the CKI; c. Misuse or allow the certificate to be misused; Providing incomplete or incorrect information to the certification d. institution; e. It proves unfit for the exercise of the certificate cohesive professional skills; f. Failure to meet the requirements as formulated under recertification (11). Machine Translated by Google These conditions must be included in the certification agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder. Other conditions for certificate holders The holder of the certificate must prevent misuse of the certificate by third parties and report the loss of this certificate in writing to the CKI within 10 days. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate is obliged to report changes in place of residence and home address in writing to the CKI. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate must report complaints lodged against him/her by third parties, which are related to the purport of this certificate, to the CKI that issued the relevant certificate. Annex XVIIc. belonging to Article 7.7, second paragraph, under c, Working Conditions Regulations Field-specific certification scheme for persons: for the Machinist . personal certificate Mobile crane Document: WSCS-VT Operator Mobile Crane CONTENT 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. Field-specific characteristics 4. Certification Regulations 5. Exam regulations 6. Supervision PART II: STANDARDS 7. Subject of certification 8. Entry criteria 9. Attainment targets 10. test method at initial certification 11. Recertification 12. The certificate 13. Validity conditions 1 Introduction Machine Translated by Google This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of safe lifting by an operator with a mobile crane. The schedule is provided by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe performance of lifting work on construction sites with a mobile crane ) Hoisting equipment for lifting free-hanging loads in a mobile (crawler or tire crane) set-up, with at least an operating load moment of 10 tonne metres.). The certification system of the Certification Body (CKI) must be structured in accordance with the requirements of the WDAT-VT-Personen. 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a certificate : The (legal) person who applies to the certification body for the issue of a personal certificate of professional competence. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-) by the CKI on the basis of the Minister of SZW adopted WDA&T. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme: TCVT. Central College of : The board, part of and/ Experts (CCvD) facilitated by BHST, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the drafting and maintenance of field-specific Machine Translated by Google documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. In this case the CCvD-TCVT. Central Exam : Commission within the Commission (CEC) structure of the BHST which develops and manages a central item bank. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 7 Commodities Act (Article 6th Machinery Commodities Act Decree). In addition, a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : Person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources needed to Machine Translated by Google carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Approval institution Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score with a fail and the lowest test score with a pass is awarded. Competence : Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal characteristics, as defined in the certification scheme. Check : Periodic assessment by the CKI against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as Machine Translated by Google previous education and work experience, which the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/or test assignments), intended to help the individual candidate to be able to assess the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Exam protocol : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the BHST and the examination institution. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Examiner's instruction : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the examiner and the examination institution. crane Hoisting equipment for the lifting of freely suspended loads in a mobile (crawler or tire crane) set-up, with at least an operating load moment of 10 ton meter. Of exception of: on Machine Translated by Google a vehicle-mounted (car) loading crane, and an earth-moving machine that excavates. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in field- specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. TCPR TCVT Certification Persons Register Supervision : Collecting the information about whether an act or thing complies with the requirements, the subsequent formation of a judgment about it and possibly to cause to intervene. TSJ TCVT Schedule Journal: annotation on a TCVT schedule. Field of competence: field of Indication of the work, the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a certain field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Declaration : The EC type- examination certificate or EC declaration Machine Translated by Google agreement as referred to in or pursuant to the Machinery Directive or any other EU product directive. Field-specific : Term used by SZW certification scheme for a certification scheme accepted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT-VT-Persons : Field specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and inspection bodies that certify persons in the context of vertical transport. Document: WDAT-VT-Persons. WDAT-VT Products : Field specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and Periodically inspect mobile cranes, tower cranes and/or hoisting and lifting equipment for professional passenger transport and/ or temporary passenger (construction) lifts in the context of vertical transportation. Document: WDAT-VT-Products. 3. Field-specific characteristics Machine Translated by Google Lifting is a risky professional activity. In order to guarantee the social interest - safety and health of and around the work - the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for guaranteeing the professional competence of mobile crane operators. 3.1. Description scheme This WSCS-VT Machinist Mobile Crane was proposed by the BHST and adopted by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment, including any adjustments. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can also make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this field-specific certification scheme, the following are active: •. BHST TCVT, hereinafter TCVT; •. CCvD TCVT, hereinafter CCvD; •. Workroom 4 TCVT professional competence. 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Lifting and attaching loads is a high-risk activity in vertical transport. The machine used to lift, the hoisting and lifting equipment and the attachment of loads can each individually and/or together be dangerous for people and the environment. Assurance of this process by certified machines and hoisting and lifting equipment on the one hand and certified machinists and lifting supervisors on the other is necessary and recognized by the legislator. Cranes are complex installations and their share of serious and fatal accidents is relatively large. The cause of this insecurity can be divided into a number of subgroups: 1. instability burden 2. Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load 3. Faucet instability 4. Boom instability 5. Inadequate construction and dismantling of cranes 6. Technical defects of the crane 7. Tap accessibility ad 1+2. Load instability / Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load In construction, crane operators often lift unknown and unstable loads over large groups of construction workers and unload the load in the immediate vicinity of people unrelated to the lifting activity. The burden is often lifted by non-experts. However, the operator is responsible for lifting the load. Little goes wrong with the lifting itself, but with the load (sliding, falling, hook break, etc.). This risk is caused by working with unsafe equipment, incompetent personnel, lack of time and the lack of a lifting plan. Machine Translated by Google ad 3+ 4. Crane and boom instability Cranes and boom become unstable due to lifting and slewing. There are then large pressure displacements through the crane. Instability can lead to sinking or falling over from the tap. Good stamping on good bulkheads is the solution. In addition, overloading and working in heavy winds cause problems. Ad 5 + 6. Technical condition of the crane and inadequate assembly/dismantling of the crane Taps are used intensively and are subject to wear and tear. The installation and dismantling of the crane also has direct consequences for its use. Regular inspection of the tap is the solution. ad 7. Accessibility tap A crane on a construction site is a useful and sought-after item. Unfortunately, it still happens regularly that unauthorized persons use the crane for lifting work. The operator must therefore always close his crane when leaving the crane. Crane operator certification and crane inspection are management factors that the industry has taken up. The inspection prevents a number of mechanical defects and the certification maintains the competence of the operators. Other factors that can be influenced by the management of the work are conflict management, human-machine interactions, communication and sufficient manpower 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes procedures for application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issue of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out inspections, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. 4.2. Certification procedure The candidate mobile crane operator must submit an application to a CKI for the personal certificate of mobile crane operator in accordance with these certification regulations. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who has not been involved in the assessment of the candidates and who has been qualified and appointed for that purpose Machine Translated by Google in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the certification body has on the basis of the field-specific scheme for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate. The maximum period of validity of a personal certificate is 5 years. Earlier withdrawal is possible if the certificate holder has not met the requirements with regard to mastering the attainment targets referred to under 9. (for conditions, see 4.5). 4.5. Validity conditions Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. These conditions are: . the certificate holder may not perform any actions contrary to the regulations; . the certificate holder must ensure that no misuse is made of the personal certificate. The CKI is authorized to suspend and/or revoke the certificate. The conditions and the way in which they must be supervised by the CKI are drawn up by the CCvD and recorded in the TCVT protocol 'suspension/withdrawal'. 4.6. Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person applying for the certificate Machine Translated by Google submitted or certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with a proposal for improvement within 10 days and discuss this with the Machine Translated by Google quality manager and involves company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non- granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: . name and address of submitter . date . a description of the contested decision . the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used Machine Translated by Google •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection The CKI makes a decision on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will revoke the decision and make a new decision. The CKI will inform the interested party of the substantiation and motivation of its decision on the objection. administrative judge Machine Translated by Google •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with TCVT, this data is sent electronically to Bureau TCVT at least as often as changes occur for the purpose of the TCVT Persons Register, which is set up in accordance with statutory provisions. This register has been made accessible via the Internet. The BHST is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then different interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. 5. Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the TCVT personal certificate for mobile crane operator 5.1. Objective The examination takes place under the responsibility of the certification body and consists of the following parts: •. theory exam, and •. practical exam. 5.2. The exam institution The examination institution must adhere to the examination regulations. This includes the following: Hospitalized: 1. effective date of the certificate; 2. any entrance requirements for taking the exam; 3. the application procedure at the CKI; 4. confirmation of participation and call; 5. identification of the participants; 6. admission and absence; 7. exam duration and method of examination; 8. rules of conduct for candidates; Machine Translated by Google 9. regulation adapted exam; 10. pass and fail standards; 11. announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; 12. retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; 13. right of inspection; 14. validity period of the exam result. If the examination institution is not an organizational part of the CKI, both have committed themselves by means of an agreement. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. The CKI is obliged to report to the BHST that exams are taken by an external examination institution and which institution it concerns. 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. The selection process must guarantee that exam personnel who take (part of) an exam at least meet the requirements as formulated in the TCVT exam protocol. Supervisor theory exam A supervisor is appointed by the examination institution for the theory exam. This officer does not require specific knowledge of the field. The supervisor does have: – organizational capabilities; – communication and interpersonal skills; – the ability to control and act decisively. The supervisor is expected to: – supervises compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations, the implementing regulations and the examination requirements; – correctly handles the established administrative procedures; – makes himself sufficiently available for the supervision of the purchase of theory exams. A supervisor performs the following tasks: – checking the candidate's personal details and registrations; – checking and subsequently preparing the theory exam so that the candidate can start immediately after the start of the exam; – exercising supervision in order to prevent abuse; – taking the exam papers and preparing them for dispatch; – the delivery of the total package to the examination institution. Corrector theory exam: Machine Translated by Google A corrector is appointed by the examination institution to assess the written elaboration of the open questions of the theory exam. The corrector meets the following qualification criteria: – he/she masters the Dutch language (or the language in which the exam is taken (German and/or English)); – he has up-to-date professional knowledge and insight; – he fits the assessment criteria, as laid down in the TCVT certification scheme. The corrector assesses the elaborations of the theory exams within the TCVT answer macros and the set term and attaches a mark to this according to the methodology as laid down in the relevant TCVT certification scheme. Examiner practical exam An examiner is appointed by the examination institution for the practical exam. The examiner is charged with assessing whether, and to what extent, the candidate's knowledge, skills and attitude meet the requirements for passing the exam. To this end, the examiner applies the TCVT examiner's instruction during the assessment. In the case of an examination with more than one examiner, one of the examiners is appointed as chairman and in that capacity is responsible for the orderly conduct of the examination and its settlement. The examiner has: – at least two years of practical work experience in the relevant field; – up-to-date practical and theoretical knowledge of the relevant field; – good communicative skills; – the ability to act decisively; – sufficient knowledge of the examination regulations. The examiner is expected to: – understands the influence that an exam situation has on the behavior of the candidates; – is able to create an optimal climate for the candidate, so that knowledge and acquired experience, insight, skills and attitude are displayed as effectively as possible; – properly deal with the candidates and all other persons who be present at the exam functionally; – provides an objective assessment of the knowledge and understanding of the candidate; – strictly observes the regulations for each examination component to apply; – annually attends the TCVT examiners day; – representatively represents the examination institution during the exam and ensures a correct course. Machine Translated by Google The examiner must be an expert nominated by the examination institute and accepted by the CKI for each certification scheme. Independence The examination staff is independent. All examination staff signs a declaration guaranteeing confidentiality and independence. It declares itself independent of the candidate and any trainer/employer of the candidate. Should it become apparent during the examination that a relationship, of whatever nature, exists between the candidate and the relevant examination staff member, the examiner must report this to the examination institution in good time. Under no circumstances is it permitted for the relevant examiner to examine this candidate under penalty of invalidity of the exam. If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination are not discredited. These measures should be recorded. 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the certification/examination institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the certification body. Employees of the examination institute have signed a confidentiality statement. 5.4.2. General rules when conducting exams The theory exam is taken in writing and in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam to a person aged 18 and over. If there are valid reasons for an oral theory exam in the Dutch language (for example for candidates who are demonstrably dyslexic), the certification body may decide to do so. This alternative must meet the same conditions as the regular theory exam and the CEC must agree to this. The written oral exam is taken by an examiner and a supervisor additionally authorized by the CKI. The examination institution must keep a record of this alternative administration with a (minimum annual) report to the CEC. The practical exam is taken in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam. The candidate must be able to communicate adequately during the exam. Machine Translated by Google For the other requirements for the exam (location, resources, etc) reference is made to the TCVT exam protocol. 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder meets the requirements. The supervision is completed depending on the subject of certification, the period of certification and the risk analysis. 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the TCVT recognized training institute for further training, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The necessary provisions for this are included in the agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder. 6.2. Frequency of supervision When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of the practical experience and the training must be submitted to the CKI. The receipt will be confirmed within one calendar week (this confirmation is proof to clients regarding the absence of the TCPR booklet). The CKI checks the registration and tests whether the requirements of training and practical experience are met. The applicant will be informed about this within one calendar week. In addition, the CKI carries out, unannounced, a 5% random check on the reliability of the implementation of the training and practical experience. Proper administration must be kept by the CKI for the registration of the training and practical experience. This administration must remain available for at least five years. 6.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out At the time of training (twice in a period of 5 years), the TCVT recognized training institute assesses each TCPR booklet with regard to training and practical experience. If a certificate holder no longer meets the requirements, the CKI will be notified of this within three working days. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI is obliged to make its findings with regard to 6.2 known to the certificate holder within two calendar weeks. 6.5. Measures (Article 1.5e Working Conditions Decree) If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards in the field-specific certification scheme, this will take measures as soon as possible. Machine Translated by Google by the CKI. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. The CKI must exchange information with the Inspectorate SZW about identified dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and that could endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties. If there is a sanction, this will be made known to the certificate holder. Relevant information about the sanction must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. This notification obligation must be elaborated in detail, in connection with the confidentiality of personal data and the contractual relationship between CKI and the customer. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the CKI must indicate (and register) the period after which certification is allowed again. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. Criteria The CKI must in any case conduct an investigation after submitting a complaint regarding the working method of the certificate holder: •. from the SZW Inspectorate; •. from the market, submitted to TCVT and/or the CKI. Criteria on the basis of which the CKI must take measures are the following. 1. The certificate will be suspended if a complaint has been declared well-founded by the CKI. This concerns a complaint other than: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. 2. The certificate will be revoked if there is a complaint that has been declared well- founded by the CKI regarding: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. Part II: Standards Part 2 of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to a certificate for professional competence in a professional field. Described is successively: •. the subject of certification, •. entrance criteria that are set to be admitted to the certification process, •. the attainment targets that apply to the certificate, Machine Translated by Google •. the way in which compliance with the learning outcomes is assessed and reported, •. the assessment that takes place during recertification, •. requirements for the certificate, •. validity conditions. 7. Subject of Certification This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD TCVT. It concerns certification of safe lifting by a mobile crane operator. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe execution of lifting work on construction sites with a mobile crane with a capacity above 10 tm. This is about: •. safe handling of the load; •. safe positioning of mobile crane (stability, environment, surface); •. mobile crane to function safely (construction, lifting, dismantling, shut down); •. mobile crane to be in safe and technically good condition; •. safe and healthy working with the mobile crane. 8. Entry Criteria A summary of the requirements for the first issue of the legally required personal certificate for mobile crane operator follows. The candidate must meet the following entry criteria: . have sufficient material knowledge; . have sufficient material knowledge; . possess machine sense; . be able to work safely and in an environmentally responsible manner; . master the Dutch language at reading knowledge level A1 and writing knowledge level B2 or equivalent for examination in German or English language. There is no specific prior education requirement. 9. Attainment targets The candidate meets the following attainment targets and is therefore competent: Theory 1. The candidate can complete the various preparations for the describe and apply lifting work. 1.1 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. Machine Translated by Google 1.2 The candidate can describe which preparations must be made in the workplace prior to working with a mobile crane. 2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and describe its function and the way of use. 3. The candidate can perform work with a mobile crane. 3.1 The candidate can name different types of faucets and describe their characteristics and their application. 3.2 The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. 3.3 The candidate can describe how to safely perform lifting work with a mobile crane. 3.4 The candidate can determine how to move a mobile crane become. 3.5 The candidate can understand the function and operation of the main components of the mobile crane. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting mobile cranes. 4.1 The candidate can understand the safety requirements of the mobile crane, lifting load and interpret lifting equipment. 4.2 The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. 4.3 The candidate can describe how a mobile crane should be left behind after lifting work. 4.4 The candidate can understand the safety systems of the mobile crane and explain the function of the LMB. 4.5 The candidate can explain how with and on a mobile crane work must be done in an environmentally responsible manner 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and failure aspects of a mobile recognizing, interpreting and naming faucets. 5.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance of a mobile crane should be carried out. 5.2 The candidate can describe how malfunctions on a mobile crane can be recognized and in relation to this describe how to act. Practice 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior working with a mobile crane. 2. The candidate can recognize, name and check lifting equipment and equipment for safety requirements 3. The candidate can perform work with a mobile crane. 3.1 The candidate can perform lifting work with a mobile crane. 3.2 The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a mobile crane. 3.3 The candidate can move a mobile crane independently. 3.4 The candidate can leave a mobile crane after lifting work in accordance with the legal regulations. Machine Translated by Google 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting mobile cranes. 4.1 The candidate is able to use safety measures when working with and on a mobile crane. 4.2 The candidate is able to work in an environmentally responsible manner with and on a mobile crane. 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and failure aspects of a mobile recognizing, interpreting and naming faucets. 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on a mobile crane. 5.2 The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a mobile crane and in relationship with it. 10. testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms Each final term is elaborated in test terms. These test criteria are arranged in the diagrams below per final term. The total number of questions per test term is indicated below. Explanation of question code: *. FK = a question of factual knowledge *. BK = a question of conceptual knowledge *. RV = a question of reproductive skills *. PV = a demand for productive skills Test terms for mobile crane operator theory + number of mandatory questions 1. The candidate can describe and apply the various preparations for the lifting work. RV-1, FK-1, BK-2 1.1 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. The candidate can interpret a lifting table of a mobile crane. 1.2 The candidate can describe which preparations must be made in the workplace prior to working with a mobile crane. – The candidate can identify the characteristics of the common species call ground – The candidate can explain why, when drawing up of a mobile crane takes into account the factors: *. the bearing capacity of the subsoil *. lifting work near a slope *. the view of work *. third parties (persons and traffic) *. the correct boom length in relation to the lifting height and/ or the mass of the load to be lifted *. the way of stamping Machine Translated by Google The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and the function and manner 2. describe its use. BK-3 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate the function of lifting equipment, possibly on the basis of an image, and can explain whether and how they should be used. 3. The candidate can perform work with a mobile crane. RV-6, FK-4, BK-10 3.1 The candidate can name different types of mobile cranes (track, tire, rough terrain, loader crane, earth-moving machine and telehandler) and describe their characteristics and applications. – The candidate can name the types of mobile cranes and describe their characteristics and applications, possibly on the basis of an image 3.2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. . The candidate can recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment of the mobile crane, possibly on the basis of an image. . The candidate can describe the function of lifting equipment and equipment of the mobile crane. 3.3. The candidate can describe how in a safe way lifting work must be carried out with a mobile crane. – The candidate can explain why the given safety aspects must be met. – The candidate can describe why the following additional safety measures must be met when using the mobile crane: *. placing a load out of sight *. lifting work performed near railway tracks and/or power lines. *. standing on a work site with several cranes hoisting with a work tray . Given a situation, the candidate can determine in which situation which personal protective equipment must be worn. . Given the density of the materials, the candidate can calculate mass. . Given a situation, the candidate can determine risks and measures with regard to the shape, construction, composition and special properties of loads. 3.4. The candidate can determine how to move a mobile crane become. – The candidate can determine a given situation: *. whether a mobile crane can be moved *. whether a mobile crane can be driven built up be with or without a load *. whether a road or terrain is suitable to drive on whether a mobile crane can drive over different *. types of terrain (indicating the Given a situation, the candidate can determine what the correct drive is. Machine Translated by Google . The candidate can name the points for attention during assembly, use, disassembly and transport of the auxiliary boom. . The candidate can describe how, in accordance with the conditions and the settings mentioned in the user manual, must be driven. 3.5. The candidate can understand the function and operation of the main components of the mobile crane. . The candidate can understand the operation of main parts and explain the systems of the mobile crane. . The candidate can name when changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a mobile crane can occur. . The candidate can determine the consequences of changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a mobile crane. 4. The candidate is able to name and interpret the safety and environmental aspects of working with a mobile crane. RV-2, FK-3, BK-10 4.1 The candidate can understand the safety requirements of the mobile crane, lifting load and interpret lifting equipment. – The candidate can define concepts: *. stability *. tipping point *. flight *. moment of stability *. stamp base *. lifting equipment *. workload *. tilt line and tilt angle *. lifting equipment *. load moment – The candidate is able to operate and inspect mobile cranes and the associated hoisting and lifting equipment interpret the legal obligations and describe the scope of these legal obligations. – The candidate can explain how he uses lifting equipment must check. – The candidate can explain how he should lift the lifting load to check. – The candidate can describe the function and content of the crane book with accompanying documents. 4.2. The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. . The candidate can determine which data in the lifting plan of important when carrying out work with the crane. . The candidate can name which administrative obligations he has in the context of his professional practice. 4.3. The candidate can describe how a mobile crane lifting work must be left behind. – The candidate can name the measures that apply to the leaving a mobile crane. Machine Translated by Google 4.4. The candidate can understand the safety systems of the mobile crane and explain the function of the LMB. . -The candidate can share parts of the security system of a call mobile crane. . -The candidate can perform the load moment protection function of the mobile crane. . -The candidate can explain which protections on the mobile crane must be present and what its function is. 4.5. The candidate can explain how with and on a mobile crane should be done in an environmentally responsible manner. . The candidate is able to interpret environmental and safety regulations that he must apply when moving environmentally harmful substances. . The candidate can explain why environmentally responsible work is important. 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and failure aspects of a mobile crane. FK-2, BK-6 5.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance of a mobile crane should be carried out. . The candidate can carry out the daily maintenance of the mobile describe faucet. . The candidate can name which cleaning work on the mobile crane must be carried out. 5.2. The candidate can describe how malfunctions on a mobile crane can be recognized and in relation to this describe how to act. . The candidate can summarize how to perform a fault diagnosis to parts of a mobile crane. . The candidate understands how, given the nature of the malfunction, must be acted upon, ie: *. stop work *. self-repair of the malfunction *. enable technical service . The candidate can explain how to avoid unacceptable wear can signal to parts of the mobile crane. . The candidate can list what is in a malfunction report should be mentioned. Test terms Practical exam (Sub)final objectives See activities The candidate can: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 the 8 9 preparations X X X X X meeting in the workplace prior to working with a mobile crane. Machine Translated by Google 2. lifting work X X X X perform with a mobile crane. 3. lifting tools X X X attach to a mobile tower crane. 4.daily check X X X and perform maintenance on a mobile crane. 5. standalone a X X move mobile crane. 6. Recognizing Malfunctions X X X X X X X to a mobile tower crane and in relation to it acting action. 7. X X X X X X use safety precautions when working with and on a mobile tower crane. 8. a mobile tower X X crane after leave lifting work in accordance with legal regulations The practical exam consists of the following activities: 1. Go through assignment 6. Practical lifting assignments 2. Initial check of the 7. machine (visual) assist load move 3. Maintenance of the 8. Practical lifting assignments machine 4. Control and inspection Machine Translated by Google lifting equipment 5. Setting up 10. Leave machine and making mobile crane ready for use The table provides an overview of the distribution of the attainment targets over the activities of the practical exams for mobile crane operator. Because attainment targets are subdivided into test objectives, an attainment target is often divided over several activities. As a result, an attainment target is usually not covered by an activity. Explanation of codes: *. RV = Reproductive Skills Assignment *. PV = Productive Skills Assignment 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior working with a mobile crane. RV-9, PV-1 1.1 carry out a lifting plan in view of: •. location and dimensions of the lifting location(s) •. position and dimensions of the obstacles •. dimensions, shape, mass and center of gravity of the load •. type, dimensions, shape and mass of the lifting equipment. 1.2. checking the legally required documents. 1.3. cordon off the work area. 1.4. consult with the supervisor (examiner) about the work, about: the nature of the materials to be hoisted the location of underground cables and pipes 1.5. on the basis of the environmental factors the terrain conditions determine: •. the location of overhead and underground pipes •. the location and dimensions of obstacles the presence of people and traffic on and off the work site 1.6. estimate the dimensions, mass and center of gravity of the load. 1.7. determine the choice and type of lifting equipment. 1.8. attaching attachments and equipment to the mobile crane. 1.9. the following data from a lifting table of a mobile crane determine: •. the flight •. the lifting height •. the workload in relation to flight and/or altitude •. counterweight. 1.10. set up the mobile crane safely and in accordance with the operating instructions, taking environmental factors into account. 1.11. Check that the correct warning signs or signs are on and around the faucet are installed. 1.12. determine the manner of execution of the work. Machine Translated by Google 2. The candidate can recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment and check for safety requirements RV-1 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate, possibly on the basis of an image, the function of lifting equipment and explain how they should be used 3. The candidate can perform work with a mobile crane. RV-12 3.1 The candidate can perform lifting work with a mobile crane. 3.1.1 Carry out lifting work with the mobile crane. 3.1.2 Giving legally prescribed hand and semaphore signals and following up on received hand and semaphore signals. 3.1.3 communicating using two-way radios. 3.1.4 choose the necessary lifting equipment based on the shape, mass and material of the load to be lifted. 3.1.5 check the lifting equipment for: •. the display of the permitted workload on the lifting equipment •. visual damage or defects •. presence of a CE marking, certificate and inspection report 3.1.6 check the lifting table whether the mobile crane can perform work. 3.1.7 3.1.7. topping and topping a load with the mobile crane. 3.1.8 place a load in a target with the mobile crane. 3.1.9 a load between obstacles with the mobile crane maneuver. 3.1.10 control a pendulum movement with the mobile crane. 3.1.11 a load from horizontal to vertical with a mobile crane move. 3.2. The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a mobile crane. Attach lifting tools to the crane hook and use them to attach a load. 3.3. The candidate can move a mobile crane independently. 3.3.1 make the mobile crane roadworthy. 3.3.2. move the mobile crane independently on the exam location. 3.4. The candidate can use a mobile crane after lifting work according to leave the company rules. After the work is completed, leave the mobile crane in the correct manner in accordance with the legal regulations. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting mobile cranes. RV-2 4.1 The candidate is able to use safety measures when working with and on a mobile crane. •. observes the safety regulations in daily maintenance and while working with the mobile crane. Machine Translated by Google 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and failure aspects of a mobile crane. RV-5, PV-1 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on a mobile crane. 5.1.1 indicate which parts of the crane must be maintained on a daily basis and which operations must be carried out. 5.1.2 check the functioning of the mobile crane systems. 5.2. The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a mobile crane and in relationship with it. 5.2.1 draw up a fault diagnosis on main components on the basis of the operating instructions, based on visual and auditory checks on the systems of a mobile crane. 5.2.2 demonstrate how (minor) faults on the mobile crane can be remedied. 5.2.3 Report malfunctions to a mechanic or the technical service in such a way that they get an unambiguous and clear picture of the malfunction. This by to to give: *. what the failure of or where in the system is *. what is visually noticeable in the crane construction (components) *. whether and where leakages are detectable *. what actions/repairs have been taken. 5.2.4. in the event of a malfunction of the mobile crane using the manual determine which of the following actions to take: *. assess whether or not he can be responsible work through *. troubleshoot independently *. the technician or technical service for the malfunction switch. 10.2. Assessment method The theory exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions based on the test terms as described in point 10.1. The theory exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The maximum time to take the theory exam is 90 minutes. The maximum rating for the multiple choice questions is 50 points (1 point per correct answer). A candidate has passed if he has obtained 42 points or more. The result is expressed as a pass/ fail. The practical exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The exam assignments must be completed within 240 minutes. The TCVT examiners instruction determines the assessment of the practical exam. The following matters will be discussed in the practical exam: General The candidate is informed which type of machine he can expect. Machine Translated by Google – Has the candidate received instruction about the machine used for the exam? If not, don't take an exam! – The candidate will be told the maximum length of time for the exam. – If the candidate is suspected of having insufficient knowledge, the examiner questions the candidate about the motivation of his choices. – The exam assignment will be announced in the presence of the candidate (removed from the sealed envelope). Police report The examiner must always fill in an official report, even if there are no details to mention. The CKI does not accept requests to issue the certificate of professional competence received without an attached official report. The official report also states the duration of the exam taken. If the exam is completed 30 minutes or earlier than the indicated time, the reason for this must be explicitly stated in the official report. The practical exam concerns the following components: 1. get acquainted and go through the assignment 2. initial check of the mobile crane and the associated documents 3. maintenance and operation of the mobile crane 4. lifting equipment 5. positioning on the lifting site and making the mobile crane ready for use 6. lifting order 1 7. assist moving load 8. lifting order 2 9. leave mobile crane behind 10. safety 10.3. caesura Valuation result The result of both the theory and practical exam is expressed as pass/fail. Candidates who have not passed the theoretical or practical component or both components are entitled to a re- examination. The requirements as set out in Article 4.2 . apply here Validity period of the result of the exam A candidate can retake the exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam, which is still qualified as insufficiently qualified, up to 6 months after obtaining a satisfactory result for his practical or theory test. In this case, the candidate can request a re-examination at most twice within the stipulated period of 6 months. After this, or after the expiry of the term, a full exam (both theory and Machine Translated by Google practice) are taken. There is no limit to the number of combined practical and theory exams. Cesuur practice In the practical exam, a pass must be obtained for all components. Each component is assessed on the basis of an assessment protocol. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms recertification In order to be eligible for recertification as a certificate holder, it must be demonstrated that all of the following conditions have been met by the certificate holder in those five (5) years: 1. Schooling: – Two (2) training days (4 half-days) were attended at a training institute recognized by TCVT, and – one training day (2 half-days) is followed in the first 36 months of the five-year period, and – the second day of training is taken after the 36th month of the five-year period, and – During the training days, all final objectives and current developments are available with regard to this scheme, and – of the training followed, the participant receives a certificate of participation from the TCVT recognized trainer and this is noted in the TCPR booklet. 2. Practical experience: – in the period of five (5) years that the certificate is valid, the certificate holder must have worked for at least eight quarters in the position stated on the certificate, and – of these eight quarters, at least two quarters must fall in the last three years of the five-year period, and – the practical experience can be demonstrated by recording the practical experience of the certificate holder in the TCPR booklet or in the TCVT Practice Register. This practical experience must be verified and initialed by the employer at least every three months. If the holder cannot demonstrate that he has sufficient practical experience in the last five years, he can demonstrate through a practical test that he is still sufficiently competent. 11.2. Assessment method Recertification can be completed as follows: – If the positive recertification decision is made within two months before the expiry date, then the expiry date is also the effective date of the renewed certificate. Machine Translated by Google – If the positive certification decision is made before the two months prior to the expiry date, the date of the certification decision is the effective date of the renewed certificate. If due to circumstances the driver's personal certificate has expired without timely recertification and the driver still wants to obtain a personal certificate, a dispensation scheme is possible. To this end, the driver submits an application to a certification body. This application is then submitted to TCVT Werkkamer 4 Professional competence, which draws up an advice. This advice is then submitted to the certification body, which subsequently takes a decision on the (re)granting of the personal certificate. 11.3. Control of the registration of practical experience in recertification When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of practical experience included therein must be submitted to the certification body. The receipt is confirmed within a calendar week with a statement, with which clients can be informed about the reason for the absence of the original TCPR booklet. The CKI checks the registrations and checks whether the required practical experience is met and informs the applicant about the result within a calendar week. In addition, the certification body, regardless of whether it concerns a driver as an employee or as a self-employed driver, will carry out an unannounced 5% random check on the reliability of the implementation of practical experience when applying for recertification. Proper administration must be kept for the registration of practical experience. This must remain available for at least 5 years. 12. The certificate Facts: At least the following information must be stated on the certificate: •. Name of the certified person incl. date of birth; •. Unambiguous document number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards against which it is tested; •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid. Texts: The certificate must state that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements from the field-specific certification scheme and, if relevant, whether it concerned a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions Machine Translated by Google During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. After a positive certification decision, the candidate will receive a TCVT certificate and a TCPR booklet within 4 weeks. Both documents are legal evidence. The details (including withdrawal of the certificate) of the participant are registered in the TCVT register of persons. Unregistered Below are the conditions for removal from the TCVT certificate register. Certificate holders that do not meet the requirements associated with the certificate will be removed from the register of certificate holders. The following reasons can lead to deletion from the registry: a. Not being able to demonstrate that you are working as a train driver in the professional specialization for which the certificate is valid. b. Failure to fulfill obligations towards the certification body; c. Misuse or allow the certificate to be misused; d. Providing incomplete or incorrect information to the certification institution; e. It proves unfit for the exercise of the certificate cohesive professional skills; f. Failure to meet the requirements as formulated under recertification (11). These conditions must be included in the certification agreement between the certification body and the certificate holder. Other conditions for certificate holders The holder of the certificate must prevent misuse of the certificate by third parties and report the loss of this certificate in writing to the certification body within 10 days. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate is obliged to report changes in place of residence and home address in writing to the certification body. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate must report complaints lodged against him/her by third parties, which are related to the purport of this certificate, to the certification body that issued the certificate in question. Annex XVIId. belonging to Article 7.7, second paragraph under d, Working Conditions Regulations Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Machinist Earth-moving machine with lifting function Machine Translated by Google Document: WSCS-VT Machinist Earth-moving Machine with Lifting Function CONTENT 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. Field-specific characteristics Scheme parties Risk analysisdescription and 3.1 3.2 Active 3.3 infringement criteria 4. CERTIFICATION RULES 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Validity period of the certificate 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints procedure 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Interpretation of 5. standards Examination Regulations examination institution Objective shall impose 5.1 The 5.2 requirements on the 5.3 examination staff Requirements 5.4 the exam 5.5 Manage central item bank and exam versions 6. Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency of supervision 6.3 The manner in which the supervision is carried out 6.4 Report of findings Measures 6.5 ( Article 1.5e Working Conditions Decree ) PART II: STANDARDS 7. Subject of certification 8. Entry criteria 9. Attainment targets Machine Translated by Google 10. Test method for initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Assessment method 10.3 caesura 11. Recertification 11.1 Key terms recertification 11.2 Assessment method 11.3 Checking the registration of practical experience in recertification. 12. The certificate 13. Validity conditions 1 Introduction This WSCS for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of safe lifting by a machinist with an earth-moving machine. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the performance of lifting work on construction sites with an earth-moving machine ) with the exception of an earth-moving machine with a hoisting function, which makes excavations and immediately places pipework in those excavations or places support partitions for the purpose of carrying out earth-moving work.). The certification system of the Certification Body (CKI) must be structured in accordance with the requirements of the WDAT-VT-Personen 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate applies to the certification body for the issue of a personal certificate of professional competence. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Machine Translated by Google Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-) by the CKI on the basis of the Minister of SZW adopted WDA&T. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme: TCVT. Central College of : The board, part of and/ Experts (CCvD) facilitated by BHST, that interested parties in a certain sector or industry offers the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field- specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. In this case the CCvD-TCVT. Central Exam : Commission within the Commission (CEC) structure of the BHST which develops and manages a central item bank. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 7 [Commodities Act (Article 6e Machinery Commodities Act Decree ). In addition, a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : Person who is in the Machine Translated by Google is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Approval institution Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score to which a fail and the lowest test score to which a pass is awarded. Competence : Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills fit and, where relevant, Machine Translated by Google demonstrated personal characteristics, as defined in the certification scheme. Check : Periodic assessment by the CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to help the individual candidate to be able to assess the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Exam protocol : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the BHST and the Machine Translated by Google examination institution. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Examiner's instruction : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the examiner and the examination institution. crane Hoisting equipment for the lifting free-hanging loads in a fixed (fixed crane movable on rails) or mobile (crane on caterpillars or tyres) installation, with at least an operating load of 2 tons and operating load moment of 10 tonne metres. Of with the exception of: – (car) loading crane mounted on a vehicle and which is exclusively intended or used for loading and unloading from the body of the vehicle, and – earth- moving machine that excavates and subsequently lays pipework in those excavations or for the purpose of carrying out earthmoving work n install support bulkheads. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation, for choices to be made in work field- specific problem area, to be included in the Machine Translated by Google intended certification scheme. TCPR TCVT Certification Persons Register Supervision : Gathering the information about the question whether an act or matter meets the requirements set for it, the subsequent formation of an opinion about it and the intervene if necessary. TSJ TCVT Schedule Journal: annotation on a TCVT schedule. Field of competence: field of Indication of the work, the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a certain field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Declaration : The EC type- examination certificate or EC declaration of conformity as referred to in or pursuant to the Machinery Directive or any other EU product directive. Field-specific : Term used by SZW certification scheme for a certification scheme that Machine Translated by Google by the minister of SZW is accepted to be used within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT-VT-Persons : Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and inspection bodies that certify persons in the frame of vertical transportation. Document: WDAT-VT-Persons. WDAT-VT Products : Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and mobile cranes, tower cranes and/or hoisting and lifting equipment for professional passenger transport and/ or temporary passenger (construction) lifts in the context of vertical transport. Document: WDAT-VT-Products. 3. Field-specific characteristics Lifting is a risky professional activity. In order to guarantee the social interest - safety and health of and around work - the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for guaranteeing the professional competence of mobile crane operators. 3.1. Description scheme This WSCS-VT Machinist Earth-moving Machine with Lifting Function was proposed by the BHST and approved by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment, including any adjustments. the minister of Machine Translated by Google SZW can also make changes to the established documents on its own initiative. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this field-specific certification scheme, the following are active: •. BHST TCVT, hereinafter TCVT •. CCvD TCVT, hereinafter CCvD •. Workroom 4 TCVT professional competence 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Lifting and attaching loads is a high-risk activity in vertical transport. The machine used to lift, the hoisting and lifting equipment and the attachment of loads can each individually and/or together be dangerous for people and the environment. Assurance of this process by certified machines and hoisting and lifting equipment on the one hand and certified machinists and lifting supervisors on the other is necessary and recognized by the legislator. Cranes are complex installations and their share of serious and fatal accidents is relatively large. The cause of this insecurity can be divided into a number of subgroups: 1. instability load 2. Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load 3. Faucet instability 4. Boom instability 5. Inadequate construction and dismantling of cranes 6. Technical defects of the crane 7. Tap accessibility ad 1+2. Load instability / Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load In construction, crane operators often lift unknown and unstable loads over large groups of construction workers and unload the load in the immediate vicinity of people unrelated to the lifting activity. The burden is often lifted by non-experts. However, the operator is responsible for lifting the load. Little goes wrong with the lifting itself, but with the load (sliding, falling, hook break, etc.). This risk is caused by working with unsafe equipment, incompetent personnel, lack of time and the lack of a lifting plan. ad 3+ 4. Crane and boom instability Cranes and boom become unstable due to lifting and slewing. There are then large pressure displacements through the crane. Instability can lead to the crane sinking or falling over. Good stamping on good bulkheads is the solution. In addition, overloading and working in heavy winds cause problems. Machine Translated by Google Ad 5 + 6. Technical condition of the crane and inadequate assembly/dismantling of the crane Taps are used intensively and are subject to wear and tear. The installation and dismantling of the crane also has direct consequences for its use. Regular inspection of the tap is the solution. ad 7. Accessibility tap A crane on a construction site is a useful and sought-after item. Unfortunately, it still happens regularly that unauthorized persons use the crane for lifting work. The operator must therefore always close his crane when leaving the crane. Crane operator certification and crane inspection are management factors that the industry has taken up. The inspection prevents a number of mechanical defects and the certification maintains the competence of the operators. Other factors that can be influenced by the management of the work, are conflict management, human-machine interactions, communication and sufficient manpower 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of this specific scheme. This includes procedures for application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issue of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out inspections, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. 4.2. Certification procedure The candidate operator of earth-moving machine submits an application to a CKI for the personal certificate of operator of earth-moving machine, in accordance with these certification regulations. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who has not been involved in the assessment of the candidates and who has been qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the certification body has on the basis of the field-specific scheme for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate The maximum period of validity of a personal certificate is 5 years. Machine Translated by Google Earlier withdrawal is possible if the certificate holder does not meet the requirements with regard to the control of the attainment targets referred to under 9. (for conditions, see 4.5). 4.5. Validity conditions Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. These conditions are: – the certificate holder may not perform any actions contrary to the regulations; – the certificate holder must ensure that no misuse is made of the personal certificate. The CKI is authorized to suspend and/or revoke the certificate. The conditions and the way in which they must be supervised by the CKI are drawn up by the CCvD and recorded in the TCVT protocol 'suspension/withdrawal'. 4.6. Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. Machine Translated by Google However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. Machine Translated by Google The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non- granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: . name and address of submitter . date . a description of the contested decision . the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Machine Translated by Google Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with TCVT, this data is sent electronically at least as often as changes occur sent to Bureau TCVT for the purpose of the TCVT Persons Register, which is being set up Machine Translated by Google in accordance with legal provisions. This register has been made accessible via the Internet. The BHST is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then different interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. 5. Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the TCVT personal certificate for the operator of an earth-moving machine 5.1. Objective The examination takes place under the responsibility of the certification body and consists of the following parts: •. theory exam, and •. practical exam. 5.2. The exam institution The examination institution must adhere to the examination regulations. This includes the following: Hospitalized: 1. effective date of the certificate; 2. any entrance requirements for taking the exam; 3. the application procedure at the CKI; 4. confirmation of participation and call; 5. identification of the participants; 6. admission and absence; 7. exam duration and method of examination; 8. rules of conduct for candidates; 9. adjusted exam arrangement; 10. pass and fail standards; 11. announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; 12. retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; 13. right of inspection; 14. validity period of the exam result. If the examination institution is not an organizational part of the CKI, both have committed themselves by means of an agreement. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN- EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. The CKI is mandatory Machine Translated by Google to report to the BHST that exams are taken by an external examination institution and which institution it concerns. 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. The selection process must guarantee that exam personnel who take (part of) an exam at least meet the requirements as formulated in the TCVT exam protocol. Supervisor theory exam A supervisor is appointed by the examination institution for the theory exam. This officer does not require specific knowledge of the field. The supervisor does have: . organizational capabilities; . communication and interpersonal skills; . the ability to control and act decisively. The supervisor is expected to: . supervises compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations, the implementing regulations and the examination requirements; . correctly handles the established administrative procedures; . makes himself sufficiently available for the supervision of the purchase of theory exams. A supervisor performs the following tasks: – checking the candidate's personal details and registrations; – checking and subsequently preparing the theory exam so that the candidate can start immediately after the start of the exam; – exercising supervision in order to prevent abuse; – taking the exam papers and preparing them for dispatch; – the delivery of the total package to the examination institution. Corrector theory exam: A corrector is appointed by the examination institution to assess the written elaboration of the open questions of the theory exam. The corrector meets the following qualification criteria: . he/she masters the Dutch language (or the language in which the exam is taken (German and/or English)); . he has up-to-date professional knowledge and insight; . he fits the assessment criteria, as laid down in this TCVT certification scheme. Machine Translated by Google The corrector assesses the elaborations of the theory exams within the TCVT answer macros and the set term and attaches a mark to this according to the methodology as laid down in this TCVT certification scheme. Examiner practical exam An examiner is appointed by the examination institution for the practical exam. The examiner is charged with assessing whether, and to what extent, the candidate's knowledge, skills and attitude meet the requirements for passing the exam. To this end, the examiner applies the TCVT examiner's instruction during the assessment. In the case of an examination with more than one examiner, one of the examiners is designated as chairman and in that capacity is responsible for the orderly conduct of the examination and its settlement. The examiner has: •. at least two years of practical work experience in the relevant field; •. up-to-date practical and theoretical knowledge of the relevant field; •. good communicative skills; •. the ability to act decisively; •. sufficient knowledge of the examination regulations. The examiner is expected to: •. understands the influence that an exam situation has on the behavior of the candidates; •. is able to create an optimal climate for the candidate, so that knowledge and acquired experience, insight, skills and attitude are displayed as effectively as possible; •. properly deal with the candidates and all other persons who be present at the exam functionally; •. provides an objective assessment of the knowledge and understanding of the candidate; •. strictly observes the regulations for each examination component to apply; •. annually attends the TCVT examiners day; •. representatively represents the examination institution during the exam and ensures a correct course. The examiner must be an expert nominated by the examination institute and accepted by the CKI for each certification scheme. Independence The examination staff is independent. All examination staff signs a statement in which confidentiality and independence are guaranteed and in which they declare that they will not perform any work for or for a trainer. It declares itself independent of the candidate and any trainer/employer of the candidate. Should it become apparent during the examination that a relationship, of whatever nature, exists between the candidate and the relevant examination staff member, the examiner must inform the examiner in good time. Machine Translated by Google to report to the examination institution. Under no circumstances is it permitted for the relevant examiner to examine this candidate under penalty of invalidity of the exam. If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination are not discredited. These measures must be recorded. 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the certification/examination institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the certification body. Employees of the examination institute have signed a confidentiality statement. 5.4.2. General rules when conducting exams The theory exam is taken in writing and in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam to a person aged 18 and over. If there are valid reasons for an oral theory exam in the Dutch language (for example for candidates who are demonstrably dyslexic), the certification body may decide to do so. This alternative must meet the same conditions as the regular theory exam and the CEC must agree to this. The written oral exam is taken by an examiner and a supervisor additionally authorized by the CKI. The examination institution must keep a record of this alternative administration with a (minimum annual) report to the CEC. The practical exam is taken in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam. The candidate must be able to communicate adequately during the exam. For the other requirements for the exam (location, resources, etc) reference is made to the TCVT exam protocol. 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder meets the requirements. The supervision is completed depending on the subject of certification, the period of certification and the risk analysis. Machine Translated by Google 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the TCVT recognized training institute for further training, the national accreditation body and the SZW Inspectorate. The necessary provisions for this are included in the agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder. 6.2. Frequency of supervision When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of the practical experience and the training must be submitted to the CKI. The receipt will be confirmed within one calendar week (this confirmation is proof to clients regarding the absence of the TCPR booklet). The CKI checks the registration and tests whether the requirements of training and practical experience are met. The applicant will be informed about this within one calendar week. In addition, the CKI carries out, unannounced, a 5% random check on the reliability of the implementation of the training and practical experience. Proper administration must be kept by the CKI for the registration of the training and practical experience. This administration must remain available for at least five years. 6.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out At the time of training (2 times in a period of 5 years), the TCVT recognized training institute assesses each TCPR booklet with regard to training and practical experience. If a certificate holder no longer meets the requirements, the CKI will be notified of this within three working days. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI is obliged to make its findings with regard to 6.2 known to the certificate holder within two calendar weeks. 6.5. Measures (Article 1.5e Working Conditions Decree) If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards in the professional field-specific certification scheme, this will result in measures by the CKI in the shortest possible time. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. The CKI must exchange information with the Inspectorate SZW about identified dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and that could endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties. Machine Translated by Google If there is a sanction, this will be made known to the certificate holder. Relevant information about the sanction must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. This notification obligation must be elaborated in detail, in connection with the confidentiality of personal data and the contractual relationship between CKI and the customer. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the CKI must indicate (and register) the period after which certification is allowed again. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. Criteria: The CKI must in any case conduct an investigation after submitting a complaint regarding the working method of the certificate holder: •. from the SZW Inspectorate; •. from the market, submitted to TCVT and/or the CKI. Criteria on the basis of which the CKI must take measures are the following: 1. The certificate will be suspended if a complaint has been declared well-founded by the CKI. This concerns a complaint other than: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. founded The by the certificate CKI 2. regarding: will be revoked if there is a complaint that has been declared well- •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. Part II: Standards Part 2 of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to a certificate for professional competence in a professional field. Described is successively: •. the subject of certification, •. entrance criteria that are set to be admitted to the certification process, •. the attainment targets that apply to the certificate, •. the way in which compliance with the learning outcomes is assessed and reported, •. the assessment that takes place during recertification, •. requirements for the certificate, •. validity conditions. Machine Translated by Google 7. Subject of Certification This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of safe lifting by an earth-moving machine operator. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the performance of lifting work on construction sites with an earth-moving machine with an operating load moment of at least 10 tm. This is about: •. safe handling of the load; •. position earth-moving machine safely (stability, environment, surface); •. allow the earth-moving machine to function safely (construction, lifting, dismantling, shut down); •. keep the earth-moving machine in a safe and technically good condition; •. safe and healthy working with the earth-moving machine. 8. Entry Criteria A summary of the requirements for the first issue of the legally required personal certificate for an earth-moving machine operator follows. The candidate must meet the following entry criteria: . have sufficient material knowledge; . have sufficient material knowledge; . possess machine sense; . be able to work safely and in an environmentally responsible manner; . master the Dutch language at reading knowledge level A1 and writing knowledge level B2 or equivalent for examination in German or English language. There is no specific prior education requirement. 9. Attainment targets The candidate meets the following attainment targets and is therefore competent: Theory 1. The candidate can complete the various preparations for the describe and apply lifting work. 1.1 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. 1.2 The candidate can describe which preparations must be made in the workplace prior to working with an earth-moving machine. 2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and describe its function and the way of use. 3. The candidate can perform work with an earth-moving machine. 3.1 The candidate can name different types of faucets and describe their characteristics and their application. 3.2 The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. Machine Translated by Google 3.3 The candidate can describe how to safely perform lifting work with an earth-moving machine. 3.4 The candidate can determine how an earth-moving machine moves must be. 3.5 The candidate can understand the function and operation of the main components of the earth-moving machine. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting earth-moving machines. 4.1 The candidate is able to interpret the safety requirements of the earth-moving machine, lifting load and lifting equipment. 4.2 The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. 4.3 The candidate can describe how an earth-moving machine should be left behind after lifting work. 4.4 The candidate can understand the safety systems of the earth-moving machine and explain the function of the LMB. responsible Themanner candidate withcan andexplain on a 4.5 how earth-moving to work in an machine environmentally 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and malfunction aspects of an earth-moving machine. 5.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance must be carried out on an earth-moving machine. 5.2 The candidate can describe how malfunctions on a earth-moving machine can be recognized and in relation to this describe how to act. Practice 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior to working with an earth-moving machine. 2. The candidate can recognize, name and check lifting equipment and equipment for safety requirements 3. The candidate can perform work with an earth-moving machine. 3.1 The candidate can perform lifting work with an earth-moving machine. 3.2 The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a Earth-moving machine. 3.3 The candidate can move an earth-moving machine independently. 3.4 The candidate can use an earth-moving machine after lifting work left in accordance with the legal regulations. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting earth-moving machines. 4.1 The candidate can use safety measures when working with and on an earth-moving machine. 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and malfunction aspects of an earth-moving machine. 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on an earth-moving machine. Machine Translated by Google 5.2 The candidate can recognize malfunctions on an earth-moving machine and act accordingly. 10. testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms Each final term is elaborated in test terms. These test criteria are arranged in the diagrams below per final term. The total number of questions per test term is indicated below. Explanation of question code: *. FK = a question of factual knowledge *. BK = a question of conceptual knowledge *. RV = a question of reproductive skills *. PV = a demand for productive skills Test terms theory operator earth-moving machine W4-05 + number of mandatory questions 1. The candidate can describe and apply the various preparations for the lifting work. RV-1, FK-1, BK-2 1.1 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. The candidate can interpret a lifting table of an earth-moving machine. 1.2. The candidate can describe which preparations in the workplace must be taken before working with an earth-moving machine. – The candidate can identify the characteristics of the common species call ground – The candidate can explain why he takes into account the factors when setting up an earth-moving machine: *. the bearing capacity of the subsoil *. lifting work near a slope *. the view of work *. third parties (persons and traffic) *. the correct boom length in relation to the lifting height and/ or the mass of the load to be lifted *. the way of stamping 2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and the function and manner describe its use. BK-3 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate the function of lifting equipment, possibly on the basis of an image, and can explain whether and how they should be used. The candidate can perform work with an earth-moving machine. RV-6, FK-4, 3. BK-10 3.1 The candidate can use different types of earth-moving machines Name and describe its characteristics and applications. Machine Translated by Google – The candidate can, possibly on the basis of an image, name the types of earth-moving machines and describe their characteristics and applications 3.2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. – The candidate can recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment of the earth-moving machine, possibly on the basis of an image. – The candidate can describe the function of lifting equipment and equipment of the earth-moving machine. 3.3. The candidate can describe how to safely perform lifting work with an earth-moving machine. – The candidate can explain why the given safety aspects must be met. – The candidate can describe why the following additional safety measures must be met when using the earth-moving machine: *. place a load out of sight *. lifting work performed near railway tracks and/or power lines. *. standing at a work with several cranes – Given a situation, the candidate can determine in which situation which personal protective equipment must be worn. – Given the density of the materials, the candidate can calculate mass. – Given a situation, the candidate can determine risks and measures with regard to the shape, construction, composition and special properties of loads. 3.4. The candidate can determine how an earth-moving machine should be moved. – The candidate can determine a given situation: *. whether an earth-moving machine can be moved *. whether an earth-moving machine can be driven built up be with or without load *. whether a road or terrain is suitable to drive on *. whether an earth-moving machine can travel over different types of terrain (indicating the correct drive system). – The candidate can name the points for attention during assembly, use, disassembly and transport of the auxiliary boom. – The candidate can describe how, in accordance with the conditions and the settings mentioned in the user manual, must be driven. 3.5. The candidate can understand the function and operation of the main components of the earth-moving machine. – The candidate can understand the operation of main parts and explain the systems of the earth-moving machine. – The candidate can name when changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of an earth-moving machine can occur. Machine Translated by Google – The candidate can understand the consequences of changes in the determine the stability, load and tilting moment of an earth-moving machine. 4. The candidate is able to name and interpret the safety and environmental aspects of working with an earth-moving machine. RV-2, FK-3, BK-10 4.1 The candidate is able to interpret the safety requirements of the earth- moving machine, lifting load and lifting equipment. – The candidate can define concepts: * stability * tipping moment * flight * * stability moment * * workload * stamp base lifting equipment lifting equipment * * tilt line and tilt load moment angle – The candidate is able to operate and inspect earth-moving machines and the associated hoisting and lifting equipment interpret the legal obligations and describe the scope of these legal obligations. – The candidate can explain how he uses lifting equipment must check. – the candidate can explain how he should lift the lifting load to check. – The candidate can understand the function and content of the crane book with accompanying documents. 4.2. The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. – The candidate can determine which data in the lifting plan of important when carrying out work with the earth-moving machine. – The candidate can name which administrative obligations he has in the context of his professional practice. 4.3. The candidate can describe how an earth-moving machine should be left behind after lifting work. – The candidate can name the measures that apply when leaving an earth-moving machine behind. 4.4. The candidate can understand the safety systems of the earth-moving machine and explain the function of the LMB. – The candidate can name parts of the protection system of an earth-moving machine. – The candidate can perform the load moment protection function of set up the earth-moving machine. – The candidate can explain which protections must be present on the earth-moving machine and what their function is. 4.5. The candidate can explain how with and on a earth-moving machine must be operated in an environmentally responsible manner. – The candidate is able to interpret environmental and safety regulations that he must apply when moving environmentally harmful substances. Machine Translated by Google – The candidate can explain why environmentally responsible work is important. 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and failure aspects of a recognizing, interpreting and naming earth-moving machines. FK-2, BK-6 out on anThe earth-moving candidate machine. can describe how and what daily maintenance 5.1 must be carried – The candidate can carry out the daily maintenance of the Describe an earth-moving machine. – The candidate can state which cleaning work must be carried out on the earth-moving machine. 5.2. The candidate can describe how malfunctions on a earth-moving machine can be recognized and in relation to this describe how to act. – The candidate can summarize how to perform a fault diagnosis on parts of an earth-moving machine. – The candidate understands how, given the nature of the malfunction, must be acted upon, ie: *. stop work *. self-repair of the malfunction *. enable technical service – The candidate can explain how he can signal impermissible wear to parts of the earth-moving machine. – The candidate can list what is in a malfunction report should be mentioned. Test terms Practical exam (Sub)final objectives See activities 2 The candidate can: 1 3 4 5 6 7 1 the preparations 8 9 X X X X X at the workplace prior to working with an earth-moving machine. 2. lifting work X X X X to be carried out with an earth-moving machine. 3. lifting tools X X X attach to an earth- moving machine. 4.daily check X X and perform maintenance Machine Translated by Google to a earth-moving machine. 5. standalone a X X moving earth-moving machine. 6. Recognizing Malfunctions X X X X X X X X to a earth-moving machine and acting in relation to it. 7. X X X X X X use safety measures when working with and on an earth- moving machine. 8. an earth- moving machine after lifting work in accordance with legal X X regulations leave behind The practical exam consists of the following activities: 1. Go through assignment 6. Practical lifting assignments 2. Initial check of the 7. machine (visual) Assist in moving load 3. Maintenance of the 8. Practical lifting assignments machine 4. Control and inspection 9. hoisting equipment Setting up and making 5. the earth-moving machine10. ready Leave machine for use The table provides an overview of the distribution of the attainment targets over the activities of the practical exams for the operator of an earth-moving machine. Because attainment targets are subdivided into test objectives, an attainment target is often divided over several activities. As a result, an attainment target is usually not covered by an activity. Machine Translated by Google Explanation of codes: *. RV = Reproductive Skills Assignment *. PV = Productive Skills Assignment 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior to working with an earth- moving machine. RV-9, PV-1 1.1 Carry out a lifting plan taking into account: *. location and dimensions of the lifting location(s) *. position and dimensions of the obstacles *. dimensions, shape, mass and center of gravity of the load *. type, dimensions, shape and mass of the lifting equipment. 1.2. Checking the legally prescribed documents. 1.3. Close off the work area. 1.4. Consult with the supervisor (examiner) about the work, ao about: *. the nature of the materials to be lifted *. the location of underground cables and pipes 1.5. On the basis of the environmental factors the terrain conditions determine: *. the location of overhead and underground pipes *. the location and dimensions of obstacles *. the presence of people and traffic on and next to the work area 1.6. Estimate the dimensions, mass and center of gravity of the load. 1.7. Determine the choice and type of lifting equipment. 1.8. Attaching attachments and equipment to the earth-moving machine. 1.9. The following data from a lifting table of an earth-moving machine determine: *. the flight *. the lifting height *. the workload in relation to flight and/or altitude *. counterweight. 1.10. Set up the earth-moving machine safely and in accordance with the operating instructions, taking environmental factors into account. 1.11. Check for proper warning signs or signs on and around the earth-moving machine are installed. 1.12 Determining the manner of execution of the work. 2. The candidate can recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment and check for safety requirements RV-1 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate, possibly on the basis of an image, the function of lifting equipment and explain how they should be used 3. The candidate can perform work with an earth-moving machine. RV-12 3.1 The candidate is able to perform lifting work with a earth-moving machine. 3.1.1 Carry out lifting work with the earth-moving machine. 3.1.2 Giving legally prescribed hand and semaphore signals and following up on received hand and semaphore signals. Machine Translated by Google 3.1.3 communicating using two-way radios. 3.1.4 choose the necessary lifting equipment based on the shape, mass and material of the load to be lifted. 3.1.5 check the lifting equipment for: *. the display of the permitted workload on the lifting equipment *. visual damage or defects *. presence of a CE marking, certificate and inspection report 3.1.6 check the lifting table whether the earth-moving machine has the can perform work. 3.1.7 topping and topping a load with the earth-moving machine. 3.1.8 placing a load in a target with the earth-moving machine. 3.1.9 passing a load between obstacles with the earth-moving machine maneuver. 3.1.10 to control a pendulum movement with the earth-moving machine. 3.1.11 moving a load from horizontal to vertical with an earth-moving machine. 3.2. The candidate can attach lifting equipment to an earth-moving machine. Attach lifting tools to the crane hook and use them to attach a load. 3.3. The candidate can move an earth-moving machine independently. 3...1 make the earth-moving machine roadworthy. 3.3.2 moving the earth-moving machine independently on the exam location. 3.4. The candidate can leave an earth-moving machine after lifting work in accordance with company regulations. After the work has been completed, leave the earth-moving machine in the correct manner in accordance with the legal regulations. 4. The candidate is able to name and interpret the safety and environmental aspects of working with an earth-moving machine. RV-2 4.1 The candidate is able to use safety measures when working with and on an earth- moving machine. observes the safety regulations during daily maintenance and when working with the earth- moving machine. 4.2. The candidate is able to work in an environmentally responsible manner with and on a earth-moving machine. demonstrate how environmental and safety regulations should be applied during the storage, transshipment and use of environmentally harmful substances. 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and failure aspects of a recognizing, interpreting and naming earth-moving machines. RV-5, PV-1 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on an earth-moving machine. 5.1.1 indicate which parts of the crane must be maintained on a daily basis and which operations must be carried out. 5.1.1 the operation of earth-moving machinery systems to check. 5.2. The candidate can recognize malfunctions on an earth-moving machine and act accordingly. Machine Translated by Google 5.2.1 draw up a fault diagnosis on main components on the basis of the operating instructions, based on visual and auditory checks on the systems of an earth-moving machine. 5.2.2 demonstrate on the basis of the operating instructions how (minor) faults on the earth-moving machine can be remedied. 5.2.3 Report malfunctions to a mechanic or the technical service in such a way that they get an unambiguous and clear picture of the malfunction. This by to to give: *. what the failure of or where in the system is *. what is visually observable on the machine construction (parts) *. whether and where leakages are detectable *. what actions/repairs have been taken. 5.2.4. In the event of a malfunction of the earth-moving machine, determine which of the following actions it should take on the basis of the operating instructions: *. assess whether or not he can be responsible work through *. troubleshoot independently *. the technician or technical service for the malfunction switch. 10.2. Assessment method The theory exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions based on the test terms as described in point 10.1. The theory exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The maximum time to take the theory exam is 90 minutes. The maximum rating for the multiple choice questions is 50 points (1 point per correct answer). A candidate has passed if he has obtained 42 points or more. The result is expressed as a pass/fail. The practical exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The exam assignments must be completed within 240 minutes. The TCVT examiners instruction determines the assessment of the practical exam. The following matters will be discussed in the practical exam: General – The candidate is informed which type of machine he can expect. – Has the candidate received instruction about the machine used for the exam? If not, don't take an exam! – The candidate will be told the maximum length of time for the exam. Machine Translated by Google – If the candidate is suspected of having insufficient knowledge, the examiner questions the candidate about the motivation of his choices. – The exam assignment will be announced in the presence of the candidate (removed from the sealed envelope). Police report The examiner must always fill in an official report, even if there are no details to mention. The CKI will not accept requests to issue the certificate of professional competence without an attached official report. The official report also states the duration of the exam taken. If the exam is completed 30 minutes or earlier than the indicated time, the reason for this must be explicitly stated in the official report. The practical exam concerns the following components: 1. get acquainted and go through the assignment initial check of the earth-moving machine and the associated 2. documents 3. maintenance and operation of the earth-moving machine 4. lifting equipment 5. positioning on the lifting site and making the earth-moving machine ready for use 6. lifting order 1 7. assist moving load 8. lifting order 2 9. leave earth-moving machine 10. safety 10.3. caesura Valuation result The result of both the theory and practical exam is expressed as pass/fail. Candidates who have not passed the theoretical or practical component or both components are entitled to a re- examination. The requirements as stated in Article 4.2 apply here. Validity period of the result of the exam A candidate can retake the exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam, which is still qualified as insufficiently qualified, up to 6 months after obtaining a satisfactory result for his practical or theory test. In this case, the candidate can request a re-examination at most twice within the stipulated period of 6 months. After this, or after the expiry of the term, a full exam (both theory and practice) must be taken. There is no limit to the number of combined practical and theory exams. Machine Translated by Google Cesuur practice In the practical exam, a pass must be obtained for all components. Each component is assessed on the basis of an assessment protocol. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms recertification In order to be eligible for recertification as a certificate holder, it must be demonstrated that all of the following conditions have been met by the certificate holder in those five (5) years: 1. Schooling: – Two (2) training days (4 half-days) were attended at a training institute recognized by TCVT, and – One training day (2 half-days) is followed in the first 36 months of the five-year period, and – The second day of training is followed after the 36th month of the five-year period, and – During the training days, all attainment targets and current developments are available with regard to this scheme, and – The participant receives a certificate of participation from the TCVT recognized trainer of the training followed and this is noted in the TCPR booklet. 2. Practical experience: – During the period of five (5) years that the certificate is valid, the certificate holder has worked for at least eight quarters in the position stated on the certificate, and – Of these eight quarters, at least two quarters must fall in the last three years of the five-year period, and – The practical experience can be demonstrated by recording the practical experience of the certificate holder in the TCPR booklet or in the TCVT Practice Register. This practical experience must be verified and initialed by the employer at least every three months. If the holder cannot demonstrate that he has sufficient practical experience in the last five years, he can demonstrate through a practical test that he is still sufficiently competent. A practical test is taken in accordance with the requirements as laid down in this scheme. 11.2. Assessment method Recertification can be completed as follows: – If the positive recertification decision is made within two months before the expiry date, then the expiry date is also the effective date of the renewed certificate. Machine Translated by Google – If the positive certification decision is made before the two months prior to the expiry date, the date of the certification decision is the effective date of the renewed certificate. If due to circumstances the driver's personal certificate has expired without timely recertification and the driver still wants to obtain a personal certificate, a dispensation scheme is possible. To this end, the driver submits an application to a certification body. This application is then submitted to TCVT Werkkamer 4 Professional competence, which draws up an advice. This advice is then submitted to the certification body, which subsequently takes a decision about the (re- )issuance of the personal certificate. 11.3. Control of the registration of practical experience in recertification When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of practical experience included therein must be submitted to the certification body. The receipt is confirmed within a calendar week with a statement, with which clients can be informed about the reason for the absence of the original TCPR booklet. The certification body checks the registrations and tests whether the required practical experience is met and informs the applicant about the result within a calendar week. In addition, the certification body, whether it concerns a driver as an employee or as a self- employed driver, will pay an unannounced 5% discount when applying for recertification. carry out random checks on the reliability of the implementation of practical experience. Proper administration must be kept for the registration of practical experience. This must remain available for at least 5 years. 12. The certificate Facts: At least the following information must be stated on the certificate: Name of the certified person incl. date of birth; Unambiguous document number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards that are tested ; •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid. Machine Translated by Google Texts: The certificate must state that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements from the field-specific certification scheme and, if relevant, whether it concerned a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. After a positive certification decision, the candidate will receive a TCVT certificate and a TCPR booklet within 4 weeks. Both documents are legal evidence. The details (including withdrawal of the certificate) of the participant are registered in the TCVT register of persons. Unregistered Below are the conditions for removal from the TCVT certificate register. Certificate holders that do not meet the requirements associated with the certificate will be removed from the register of certificate holders. The following reasons can lead to deletion from the registry: a. Not being able to demonstrate that you are working as a train driver in the professional specialization for which the certificate is valid. b. Failure to fulfill obligations towards the certification body; c. Misuse or allow the certificate to be misused; Providing incomplete or incorrect information to the certification d. institution; e. It proves unfit for the exercise of the certificate cohesive professional skills; f. Failure to meet the requirements as formulated under recertification (11). These conditions must be included in the certification agreement between the certification body and the certificate holder. Other conditions for certificate holders The holder of the certificate must prevent misuse of the certificate by third parties and report the loss of this certificate in writing to the certification body within 10 days. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate is obliged to report changes in place of residence and home address in writing to the certification body. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate must report complaints lodged against him/her by third parties, which are related to the purport of this certificate, to the certification body that issued the certificate in question. Machine Translated by Google Annex XVIIe. belonging to Article 7.7, second paragraph under e, Working Conditions Regulations Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Machinist Loader Crane Document: WSCS-VT Machinist Loader Crane CONTENT 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. Field-specific characteristics 3.1 Description schemeanalysis Active parties and Risk 3.2 3.3 infringement criteria 4. CERTIFICATION RULES 4.1 Objective 4.2 Certification procedure 4.3 Certification decision 4.4 Validity period of the certificate 4.5 Validity conditions 4.6 Complaints procedure 4.7 Objection procedure 4.8 Register of professional competence 4.9 Norm Interpretation 5. Exam regulations 5.1 Objective 5.2 The exam institution 5.3 Requirements for the exam staff 5.4 Requirements for the exam 5.5 Manage central item bank and exam versions 6. Supervision 6.1 Cooperation with supervision 6.2 Frequency of supervision 6.3 The manner in which the supervision is carried out Machine Translated by Google 6.4 Report of findings Measures 6.5 ( Article 1.5e Working Conditions Decree ) PART II: STANDARDS 7. Subject of certification 8. Entry criteria 9. Attainment targets 10. Test method at initial certification 10.1 Key terms 10.2 Rating 10.3 Pass Exam 11. Recertification 11.1 Key terms recertification 11.2 Assessment method 11.3 Censorship in recertification. 12. The certificate 13. Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of safe lifting by a driver with a truck- mounted crane. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe performance of lifting work on construction sites with a truck-mounted crane ) Mobile hoisting equipment that is not tied to a fixed track, being a truck-mounted crane used in construction, and of which the maximum operating load moment is at least 10 tm, with the exception of the truck-mounted crane that is exclusively equipped or at least used exclusively for loading and unloading from the loading platform of the vehicle or a combination of vehicles.). The certification system of the Certification Body (CKI) must be structured in accordance with the requirements of the WDAT-VT-Personen. 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a certificate : The (legal) person who joins the Machine Translated by Google certification body applies for the issue of a personal certificate of professional competence. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-) by the CKI on the basis of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment established WDA&T. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme: TCVT. Central College of : The board, part of and/ Experts (CCvD) facilitated by BHST, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the drafting and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. In this case the CCvD-TCVT. Central Exam : Commission within the Commission (CEC) structure of the BHST which has a central item bank develops and manages. Certificate : A certificate in the meaning of article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 7 Commodities Act (Article 6e Machinery Commodities Act Decree Machine Translated by Google ). In addition, a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : Person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Approval institution Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The border between the Machine Translated by Google highest test score to which a fail and the lowest test score to which a pass is awarded. Competence : Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills and, where relevant, demonstrated personal attributes, as defined in the certification scheme. Check : Periodic assessment by the CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must meet in order to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/or test assignments), intended to be able to assess the individual candidate in the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards satisfies. Machine Translated by Google Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Exam protocol : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the BHST and the examination institution. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Examiner's instruction : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the examiner and the examination institution. crane Hoisting equipment for the hoisting of freely suspended loads in a fixed (fixed crane that can be moved on rails) or mobile (crane on caterpillars or tires) setup, with at least an operating load of 2 tons and an operating load moment of 10 tonne metres. With the exception of: • (car) loading crane mounted on a vehicle and which is exclusively intended for or is used for loading and unloading from the body of the vehicle, and • earth-moving machine that excavates and subsequently lays pipework in those excavations or for the purpose of carrying out Machine Translated by Google earthmoving work n install support bulkheads. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices to be made in field- specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. TCPR TCVT Certification Persons Register Supervision : Collecting the information about whether an act or thing complies with the requirements, the subsequent formation of a judgment about it and possibly to cause to intervene. TSJ TCVT Schedule Journal: annotation on a TCVT schedule. Field of competence: field of Indication of the work, the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a certain field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Declaration : The EC type- examination certificate or EC declaration Machine Translated by Google agreement as referred to in or pursuant to the Machinery Directive or any other EU product directive. Field-specific : Term used by SZW certification scheme for a certification scheme accepted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT-VT-Persons : Field specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and inspection bodies that certify persons in the context of vertical transport. Document: WDAT-VT-Persons. WDAT-VT Products : Field specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and Periodically inspect mobile cranes, tower cranes and/or hoisting and lifting equipment for professional passenger transport and/ or temporary passenger (construction) lifts in the context of vertical transportation. Document: WDAT-VT-Products. 3. Field-specific characteristics Machine Translated by Google Lifting is a risky professional activity. In order to safeguard the social interest - safety and health of and around work - the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme to guarantee the professional competence of truck-mounted crane operators. 3.1. Description scheme This WSCS-VT Machinist Loader Crane was proposed by the BHST and approved by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment, including any adjustments. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can also make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this field-specific certification scheme, the following are active: •. BHST TCVT, hereinafter TCVT; •. CCvD TCVT, hereinafter CCvD; •. Workroom 4 TCVT professional competence. 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Lifting and attaching loads is a high-risk activity in vertical transport. The machine used to lift, the hoisting and lifting equipment and the attachment of loads can each individually and/or together be dangerous for people and the environment. Assurance of this process by certified machines and hoisting and lifting equipment on the one hand and certified machinists and lifting supervisors on the other is necessary and recognized by the legislator. Cranes are complex installations and their share of serious and fatal accidents is relatively large. The cause of this insecurity can be divided into a number of subgroups: 1. Load instability 2. Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load 3. Faucet instability 4. Boom instability 5. Inadequate construction and dismantling of cranes 6. Technical defects of the crane 7. Tap accessibility ad 1+2. Load instability / Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load In construction, crane operators often lift unknown and unstable loads over large groups of construction workers and unload the load in the immediate vicinity of people unrelated to the lifting activity. The burden is often lifted by non-experts. However, the operator is responsible for lifting the load. Little goes wrong with the lifting itself, but with the load (sliding, Machine Translated by Google falls, hook break, etc.). This risk is caused by working with unsafe equipment, incompetent personnel, lack of time and the lack of a lifting plan. Ad 3+ 4. Crane and boom instability Cranes and boom become unstable due to lifting and slewing. There are then large pressure displacements through the crane. Instability can lead to the crane sinking or falling over. Good stamping on good bulkheads is the solution. In addition, overloading and working in heavy winds cause problems. Ad 5 + 6. Technical condition of the crane and inadequate construction/dismantling of the crane Taps are used intensively and are subject to wear and tear. The installation and dismantling of the crane also has direct consequences for its use. Regular inspection of the tap is the solution. Ad 7. Accessibility tap A crane on a construction site is a useful and sought-after item. Unfortunately, it still happens regularly that unauthorized persons use the crane for lifting work. The operator must therefore always close his crane when leaving the crane. Crane operator certification and crane inspection are management factors that the industry has taken up. The inspection prevents a number of mechanical defects and the certification maintains the competence of the operators. Other factors that can be influenced by the management of the work are conflict management, human-machine interactions, communication and sufficient manpower 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes procedures for application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issue of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out inspections, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. 4.2. Certification procedure The candidate loader crane driver must submit an application to a CKI, in accordance with these certification regulations, for a personal certificate for loader crane operator. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision Machine Translated by Google The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who has not been involved in the assessment of the candidates and who has been qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the certification body has on the basis of the field-specific scheme for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate The maximum period of validity of a personal certificate is 5 years. Earlier withdrawal is possible if the certificate holder has not met the requirements with regard to mastering the attainment targets referred to under 9. (for conditions, see 4.5). 4.5. Validity conditions Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. These conditions are: the certificate holder may not perform any actions contrary to the regulations; the certificate holder must ensure that the personal certificate is not misused. The CKI is authorized to suspend and/or revoke the certificate. The conditions and the way in which they must be supervised by the CKI are drawn up by the CCvD and recorded in the TCVT protocol 'suspension/withdrawal'. 4.6. Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person Machine Translated by Google If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the Machine Translated by Google complaint handler submits a proposal for improvement within 10 days and discusses this with the quality manager and involves the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non- granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: . name and address of submitter . date . a description of the contested decision . the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: – if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default – in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used Machine Translated by Google – the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. – The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. – The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. Machine Translated by Google •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with TCVT, this data is sent electronically to Bureau TCVT at least as often as changes occur for the purpose of the TCVT Persons Register, which is set up in accordance with statutory provisions. This register has been made accessible via the Internet. The BHST is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then different interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. 5. Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the TCVT personal certificate for loading crane driver. 5.1. Objective The examination takes place under the responsibility of the certification body and consists of the following parts: •. theory exam, and •. practical exam. 5.2. The exam institution The examination institution must adhere to the examination regulations. This includes the following: Hospitalized: 1. effective date of the certificate; 2. any entrance requirements for taking the exam; 3. the application procedure at the CKI; 4. confirmation of participation and call; 5. identification of the participants; 6. admission and absence; 7. exam duration and method of examination; 8. rules of conduct for candidates; adjusted exam arrangement; 9. 10. pass and fail standards; 11. announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; Machine Translated by Google 12. retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; 13. right of inspection; 14. validity period of the exam result. If the examination institution is not an organizational part of the CKI, both have committed themselves by means of an agreement. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN-EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. The CKI is obliged to report to the BHST that exams are taken by an external examination institution and which institution it concerns. 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. The selection process must guarantee that exam personnel who take (part of) an exam at least meet the requirements as formulated in the TCVT exam protocol (published on www.tcvt.nl). Supervisor theory exam A supervisor is appointed by the examination institution for the theory exam. This officer does not require specific knowledge of the field. The supervisor does have: •. organizational capabilities; •. communication and interpersonal skills; •. the ability to control and act decisively. The supervisor is expected to: •. supervises compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations, the implementing regulations and the examination requirements; •. correctly handles the established administrative procedures; •. makes himself sufficiently available for the supervision of the purchase of theory exams. A supervisor performs the following tasks: •. checking the candidate's personal details and registrations; •. checking and subsequently preparing the theory exam so that the candidate can start immediately after the start of the exam; •. exercising supervision in order to prevent abuse; •. taking the exam papers and preparing them for dispatch; •. the delivery of the total package to the examination institution. Corrector theory exam: Machine Translated by Google A corrector is appointed by the examination institution to assess the written elaboration of the open questions of the theory exam. The corrector meets the following qualification criteria: •. he masters the Dutch language (or the language in which the exam is held) taken (German and/or English); •. he has up-to-date professional knowledge and insight; •. he fits the assessment criteria, as laid down in the TCVT certification scheme. The corrector assesses the elaborations of the theory exams within the TCVT answer macros and the set term and attaches a mark to this according to the methodology as laid down in the relevant TCVT certification scheme. Examiner practical exam An examiner is appointed by the examination institution for the practical exam. The examiner is charged with assessing whether, and to what extent, the candidate's knowledge, skills and attitude meet the requirements for passing the exam. To this end, the examiner applies the TCVT examiner's instruction during the assessment. In the case of an examination with more than one examiner, one of the examiners is designated as chairman and in that capacity is responsible for the orderly conduct of the examination and its settlement. The examiner has: •. at least two years of practical work experience in the relevant field; •. up-to-date practical and theoretical knowledge of the relevant field; •. good communicative skills; •. the ability to act decisively; •. sufficient knowledge of the examination regulations. The examiner is expected to: •. understands the influence that an exam situation has on the behavior of the candidates; •. is able to create an optimal climate for the candidate, so that knowledge and acquired experience, insight, skills and attitude are displayed as effectively as possible; •. properly deal with the candidates and all other persons who be present at the exam functionally; •. provides an objective assessment of the knowledge and understanding of the candidate; •. strictly observes the regulations for each examination component to apply; •. annually attends the TCVT examiners day; •. representatively represents the examination institution during the exam and ensures a correct course. For each certification scheme, the examiner must be an expert nominated by the examination institute and accepted by the certification institute. Machine Translated by Google Independence The examination staff is independent. All examination staff signs a statement in which confidentiality and independence are guaranteed and in which they declare that they will not perform any work for or for a trainer. It declares itself independent of the candidate and any trainer/employer of the candidate. Should it become apparent during the examination that a relationship, of whatever nature, exists between the candidate and the relevant examination staff member, the examiner must report this to the examination institution in good time. Under no circumstances is it permitted for the relevant examiner to examine this candidate under penalty of invalidity of the exam. If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination are not discredited. These measures must be recorded. 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the certification/examination institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the certification body. Employees of the examination institute have signed a confidentiality statement. 5.4.2. General rules when conducting exams The theory exam is taken in writing and in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam to a person aged 18 and over. If there are valid reasons for an oral theory exam in the Dutch language (for example for candidates who are demonstrably dyslexic), the certification body may decide to do so. This alternative must meet the same conditions as the regular theory exam and the CEC must agree to this. The written oral exam is taken by an examiner and a supervisor additionally authorized by the CKI. The examination institution must keep a record of this alternative administration with a (minimum annual) report to the CEC. The practical exam is taken in the Dutch language. If the candidate If you have insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam can be taken in German or English. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam. The candidate must be able to communicate adequately during the exam. Machine Translated by Google For the other requirements for the exam (location, resources, etc) reference is made to the TCVT exam protocol. 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder meets the requirements. The supervision is completed depending on the subject of certification, the period of certification and the risk analysis. 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the TCVT recognized training institute for further training, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The necessary provisions for this are included in the agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder. 6.2. Frequency of supervision When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of the practical experience and the training must be submitted to the CKI. The receipt will be confirmed within one calendar week (this confirmation is proof to clients regarding the absence of the TCPR booklet). The CKI checks the registration and tests whether the requirements of training and practical experience are met. The applicant will be informed about this within one calendar week. In addition, the CKI carries out, unannounced, a 5% random check on the reliability of the implementation of the training and practical experience. Proper administration must be kept by the CKI for the registration of the training and practical experience. This administration must remain available for at least five years. 6.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out The TCVT accredited training institute assesses at the time of training (2 times in a period of 5 years) each TCPR booklet with regard to. training and practical experience. If a certificate holder no longer meets the requirements, the CKI will be notified of this within three working days. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI is obliged to make its findings with regard to 6.2 known to the certificate holder within two calendar weeks. 6.5. Measures Machine Translated by Google If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards in the professional field-specific certification scheme, this will result in measures by the CKI in the shortest possible time. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. The CKI must exchange information with the Inspectorate SZW about identified dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and that could endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties. If there is a sanction, this will be made known to the certificate holder. Relevant information about the sanction must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. This notification obligation must be elaborated in detail, in connection with the confidentiality of personal data and the contractual relationship between CKI and the customer. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the CKI must indicate (and register) the period after which certification is allowed again. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. Criteria The CKI must in any case conduct an investigation after submitting a complaint regarding the working method of the certificate holder: •. from the SZW Inspectorate; •. from the market, submitted to TCVT and/or the CKI. Criteria on the basis of which the CKI must take measures are the following: 1. The certificate will be suspended if a complaint has been declared well-founded by the CKI. This concerns a complaint other than: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. 2. The certificate will be revoked if there is a complaint that has been declared well- founded by the CKI regarding: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. Part II: Standards Part 2 of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to a certificate for professional competence in a professional field. Described is successively: •. the subject of certification, •. entrance criteria that are set to be admitted to the certification process, Machine Translated by Google •. the attainment targets that apply to the certificate, •. the way in which compliance with the attainment targets is assessed and reported, •. the assessment that takes place during recertification, •. requirements for the certificate, •. validity conditions. 7. Subject of Certification This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD TCVT. It concerns certification of safe lifting by a Machinist Loader Crane. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe performance of lifting work on construction sites with a truck-mounted crane with an operating load moment of at least 10 tm. This is about: •. safe handling of the load; •. safe positioning of the truck-mounted crane (stability, environment, surface); •. allow the truck-mounted crane to function safely (construction, lifting, dismantling, shut down); •. make sure the loader crane is in a safe and technically good condition; •. working safely and healthily with the Loader Crane. 8. Entry Criteria A summary of the requirements for the first issue of the legally required personal certificate for loading crane driver is given below. The candidate must meet the following entry criteria: •. have sufficient material knowledge; •. have sufficient material knowledge; •. possess machine sense; •. be able to work safely and in an environmentally responsible manner; •. master the Dutch language at reading knowledge level A1 and writing knowledge level B2 or equivalent for examination in German or English language. There is no specific prior education requirement. 9. Attainment targets The candidate meets the following attainment targets and is therefore competent: Theory 1. The candidate can complete the various preparations for the describe and apply lifting work. 1.1 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. Machine Translated by Google 1.2. The candidate can describe which preparations in the workplace must be taken before working with a truck-mounted crane. 2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and describe its function and the way of use. 3. The candidate can perform work with a truck-mounted crane. 3.1 The candidate can name different types of faucets and describe their characteristics and their application. 3.2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. 3.3 . The candidate can describe how to safely perform lifting work with a truck- mounted crane. 3.4. The candidate can determine how a truck-mounted crane should be moved become. 3.5. The candidate can understand the function and operation of the main components of the loader crane. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting truck-mounted cranes. 4.1 The candidate can meet the safety requirements of the truck-mounted crane, the lifting load and interpret lifting equipment. 4.2 The candidate takes responsibility with regard to the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. 4.3 The candidate can describe how a truck-mounted crane should be left behind after lifting work. 4.4 The candidate can understand the safety systems of the loader crane and explain the function of the LMB. 4.5 The candidate can explain how with and on a car loading crane work must be done in an environmentally responsible manner 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and failure aspects of a loader crane. 5.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance should be carried out on a truck-mounted crane. 5.2 The candidate can describe how faults on a truck-mounted crane can be recognized and, in relation to this, describe how to act. Practice 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior working with a loader crane. 2. The candidate can recognize, name and check lifting equipment and equipment for safety requirements 3. The candidate can perform work with a truck-mounted crane. 3.1 The candidate can perform lifting work with a truck-mounted crane. 3.2 The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a truck-mounted crane. 3.3 The candidate can independently move a truck-mounted crane. 3.4 The candidate can leave a truck-mounted crane after lifting work in accordance with the legal regulations. Machine Translated by Google 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting truck-mounted cranes. 4.1 The candidate can use safety measures when working with and on a car loading crane. 4.2 The candidate is able to work in an environmentally responsible manner with and on a truck-mounted crane. 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and failure aspects of a loader crane. 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on a car loading crane. 5.2 The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a truck-mounted crane and in relationship with it. 10. testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms Each final term is elaborated in test terms. These test criteria are arranged in the diagrams below per final term. The total number of questions per test term is indicated below. Explanation of question code: *. FK = a question of factual knowledge *. BK = a question of conceptual knowledge *. RV = a question of reproductive skills *. PV = a demand for productive skills Test terms theory driver truck-mounted crane W4-04 + number of mandatory questions 1. The candidate can describe and apply the various preparations for the lifting work. RV-1, FK-1, BK-2 1.1 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. The candidate can interpret a lifting table of a loader crane. 1.2 The candidate can describe which preparations must be made in the workplace prior to working with a truck-mounted crane. – The candidate can identify the characteristics of the common species call ground – The candidate can explain why, when drawing up of a truck-mounted crane takes into account the factors: *. the bearing capacity of the subsoil *. lifting work near a slope *. the view of work *. third parties (persons and traffic) *. the correct boom length in relation to the lifting height and/or the mass of the load to be lifted *. the way of stamping Machine Translated by Google The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and the function and manner 2. describe its use. BK-3 The candidate can recognize and formulate the function of lifting equipment, possibly on the basis of an image, and can explain whether and how they should be used. 3. The candidate can perform work with a truck-mounted crane. RV-6, FK-4, BK-10 3.1 The candidate can name different types of loader cranes and describe its characteristics and applications. – The candidate can, possibly on the basis of an image, name the types of cranes and describe their characteristics and applications 3.2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. – The candidate can recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment of the truck-mounted crane, possibly on the basis of an image. The candidate can describe the function of lifting equipment and equipment of the mobile crane. 3.3. The candidate can describe how in a safe way lifting work must be carried out with a truck-mounted crane. – The candidate can explain why the given safety aspects must be met. – The candidate can describe why the following additional safety measures must be met when using the loader crane: *. place a load out of sight *. lifting work performed near railway tracks and/or power lines. *. standing at a work with several cranes – Given a situation, the candidate can determine in which situation which personal protective equipment must be worn. – Given the density of the materials, the candidate can calculate mass. – Given a situation, the candidate can determine risks and measures with regard to the shape, construction, composition and special properties of loads. 3.4. The candidate can determine how a truck-mounted crane should be moved become. – The candidate can determine a given situation: *. whether a truck-mounted crane can be moved *. can be built up with or without load *. whether a terrain is suitable to drive over *. given a situation, the candidate can determine what the correct drive is *. whether a truck-mounted crane can drive over different types of terrain (indicating the correct drive. – The candidate can name the points for attention during assembly, use, disassembly and transport of the auxiliary boom. – The candidate can describe how, in accordance with the conditions and the settings mentioned in the user manual, must be driven. Machine Translated by Google 3.5. The candidate can understand the function and operation of the main components of the loader crane. – The candidate can understand the operation of main parts and explain the loader crane systems. – The candidate can name when changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a truck-mounted crane can occur. – The candidate can determine the consequences of changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a loader crane. 4. The candidate is able to name and interpret the safety and environmental aspects of working with a loader crane. RV-2, FK-3, BK-10 4.1 The candidate can meet the safety requirements of the truck-mounted crane and interpret lifting equipment. – The candidate can define concepts: * tilting moment * flight * workload * tilting line * stability moment * and tilt angle * * outrigger base lifting lifting gear *moment load tool – The candidate is able to operate and inspect loader cranes and the associated hoisting and lifting equipment interpret the legal obligations and describe the scope of these legal obligations. – The candidate can explain how he uses lifting equipment must check. – The candidate can explain how he should lift the lifting load to check. – The candidate can understand the function and content of the crane book with accompanying documents. 4.2 The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. – The candidate can determine which data in the lifting plan of important when carrying out work with the crane. – The candidate can name which administrative obligations he has in the context of his professional practice. 4.3. The candidate can describe how a truck-mounted crane lifting work must be left behind. – The candidate can name the measures that apply to the leaving a car loading crane. 4.4. The candidate can understand the safety systems of the loader crane and explain the function of the LMB. – The candidate can share parts of a called a loader crane. – The candidate can perform the load moment protection function of explain the loader crane. Machine Translated by Google – The candidate can explain which protections on the loader crane must be present and what its function is. 4.5. The candidate can explain how with and on a car loading crane should be done in an environmentally responsible manner. – The candidate is able to interpret environmental and safety regulations that he must apply when moving environmentally harmful substances. – The candidate can explain why environmentally responsible work is important. 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and failure aspects of a recognizing, interpreting and naming the truck-mounted crane. FK-2, BK-6 5.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance should be carried out on a truck-mounted crane. – The candidate can carry out the daily maintenance of the Describe a loader crane. – The candidate can name which cleaning work on the truck-mounted crane must be carried out. 5.2. The candidate can describe how malfunctions on a truck-mounted crane can be recognized and in relation to this describe how to act – The candidate can summarize how to perform a fault diagnosis to parts of a truck-mounted crane. – The candidate understands how, given the nature of the malfunction, must be acted upon, ie: *. stop work *. self-repair of the malfunction *. enable technical service – The candidate can explain how to avoid unacceptable wear can signal to parts of the truck-mounted crane. – The candidate can list what is in a malfunction report should be mentioned. Test terms Practical exam (Sub)final objectives See activities The candidate can: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 the preparations 8 9 X X X X X meeting in the workplace prior to working with a loader crane 2. lifting work X X X X to be carried out with a loader crane. 3. lifting tools X X X Machine Translated by Google attach to a truck- mounted crane. 4.Perform daily checks X X and maintenance on a truck- mounted crane. 5. independently move a truck- X mounted crane. 6. Recognizing Malfunctions X X X X X X X to a truck-mounted crane and in relation to it acting action. 7. X X X X X X use safety precautions when working with and on a truck-mounted crane. 8. a truck-mounted X X crane after lifting work in accordance with legal regulations leave behind. 9. working in an environmentally X X responsible manner with and on a truck-mounted crane. The practical exam consists of the following activities: 1. Go through assignment 6. Practical lifting assignments 2. Initial check of the 7. machine assist load (visual) move 3. Maintenance of the 8. Practical lifting assignments machine 4. Control and inspection 9. hoisting equipment Setting up 5. 10. and making the truck-mounted Leave machine crane ready for use The table provides an overview of the distribution of the attainment targets over the activities of the practical exams for loading crane driver. Because final objectives are subdivided into Machine Translated by Google assessment criteria, a final term is often divided over several activities. As a result, an attainment target is usually not covered by an activity. Explanation of codes: *. RV = Reproductive Skills Assignment *. PV = Productive Skills Assignment 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior working with a loader crane. RV-9, PV-1 1.1 Carry out a lifting plan taking into account: *. location and dimensions of the lifting location(s) *. position and dimensions of the obstacles *. dimensions, shape, mass and center of gravity of the load *. type, dimensions, shape and mass of the lifting equipment. 1.2. Checking the legally prescribed documents. 1.3. Close off the work area. 1.4. Consult with the supervisor (examiner) about the work, ao about: *. the nature of the materials to be lifted *. the location of underground cables and pipes 1.5. On the basis of the environmental factors the terrain conditions determine: *. the location of overhead and underground pipes *. the location and dimensions of obstacles *. the presence of people and traffic on and next to the work area 1.6. Estimate the dimensions, mass and center of gravity of the load. 1.7. Determine the choice and type of lifting equipment. 1.8. Attaching attachments and equipment to the truck-mounted crane. 1.9. The following data from a lifting table of a truck-mounted crane determine: *. the flight *. the lifting height *. the workload in relation to flight and/or altitude *. counterweight. 1.10. Set up the truck-mounted crane safely and in accordance with the operating instructions, taking into account environmental factors. 1.11. Check for proper warning signs or signs on and around the tap is installed. 1.12. Determine the manner of execution of the work. 2. The candidate can recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment and check for safety requirements RV-1 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate the function of lifting equipment and explain how they should be used, possibly on the basis of an image. 3. The candidate can perform work with a truck-mounted crane. RV-12 3.1 The candidate can perform lifting work with a truck-mounted crane. Machine Translated by Google 3.1.1 Carry out lifting work with the truck-mounted crane. 3.1.2 Giving legally prescribed hand and semaphore signals and following up on received hand and semaphore signals. 3.1.3 choose the necessary lifting equipment based on the shape, mass and material of the load to be lifted. 3.1.5 check the lifting equipment for: *. the display of the permitted workload on the lifting equipment *. visual damage or defects *. presence of a CE marking, certificate and inspection report 3.1.6. check the lifting table whether the loader crane can perform work. 3.1.7 topping and topping a load with the loader crane. 3.1.8 placing a load in a target with the loader crane. 3.1.9 passing a load between obstacles with the truck-mounted crane maneuver. 3.1.10 control a pendulum movement with the truck-mounted crane. 3.1.11 a load from horizontal to vertical with a truck-mounted crane move. 3.2. The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a truck-mounted crane. Attach lifting tools to the crane hook and use them to attach a load. 3.3. The candidate can independently move a truck-mounted crane. 3.3.1 make the truck-mounted crane roadworthy. 3.3.2 moving the truck-mounted crane independently on the exam location. 3.4. The candidate can install a truck-mounted crane after lifting work according to leave the company rules. after the work is completed, leave the truck-mounted crane in the correct manner in accordance with the legal regulations. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and interpreting truck-mounted cranes. RV-2 4.1. The candidate is able to use safety measures when working with and on a truck- mounted crane. Observe the safety regulations for daily maintenance and when working with the truck-mounted crane. 4.2. The candidate is able to work in an environmentally responsible manner with and on a truck-mounted crane. Demonstrate how environmental and safety regulations should be applied during the storage, transshipment and use of environmentally harmful substances. 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and failure aspects of a recognizing, interpreting and naming the truck-mounted crane. RV-5, PV-1 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on a car loading crane. 5.1.1 indicate which parts of the crane must be maintained on a daily basis and which operations must be carried out. 5.1.2 check the operation of loader crane systems. Machine Translated by Google 5.2. The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a truck-mounted crane and in relationship with it. 5.2.1 drawing up a fault diagnosis on the basis of the instructions for use on the basis of visual and auditory checks on the systems of a car loading crane. 5.2.2. demonstrate how (minor) faults on the truck-mounted crane can be remedied. 5.2.3. report malfunctions to a mechanic or the technical service in such a way that they get an unambiguous and clear picture of the malfunction. This by to to give: *. what the failure of or where in the system is *. what is visually noticeable in the crane construction (components) *. whether and where leakages are detectable *. what actions/repairs have been taken. 5.2.4. in the event of faults on the truck-mounted crane using the manual determine which of the following actions to take: *. assess whether or not he can be responsible work through *. troubleshoot independently *. the technician or technical service for the malfunction switch. 10.2. Rating The theory exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions based on the test terms as described in point 10.1. The theory exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The maximum time to take the theory exam is 90 minutes. The maximum rating for the multiple choice questions is 50 points (1 point per correct answer). A candidate has passed if he has obtained 42 points or more. The result is expressed as a pass/fail. The practical exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The exam assignments must be completed within 240 minutes. The TCVT examiners instruction determines the assessment of the practical exam. The following matters will be discussed in the practical exam: General •. The candidate is informed which type of machine he can expect. •. Has the candidate received instruction about the machine used for the exam? If not, don't take an exam! •. The candidate will be told the maximum length of time for the exam. •. If the candidate is suspected of having insufficient knowledge, the examiner questions the candidate about the motivation of his choices. •. The exam assignment will be announced in the presence of the candidate (removed from the sealed envelope). Police report Machine Translated by Google The examiner must always fill in an official report, even if there are no details to mention. The CKI will not accept requests to issue the certificate of professional competence without an attached official report. The official report also states the duration of the exam taken. If the exam is completed 30 minutes or earlier than the indicated time, the reason for this must be explicitly stated in the official report. The practical exam concerns the following components: 1. get acquainted and go through the assignment initial check of the truck-mounted crane and the associated 2. documents 3. maintenance and operation of the loader crane 4. lifting equipment 5. positioning on the lifting site and making the loader crane ready for use 6. lifting order 1 7. assist moving load 8. lifting order 2 9. leave a truck-mounted crane 10. safety 10.3. Pass Exam Valuation result The result of both the theory and practical exam is expressed as pass/fail. Candidates who have not passed the theoretical or practical component or both components are entitled to a re-examination. Validity period of the result of the exam A candidate can retake the exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam, which is still qualified as insufficiently qualified, up to 6 months after obtaining a satisfactory result for his practical or theory test. In this case, the candidate can request a re-examination at most twice within the stipulated period of 6 months. After this, or after the expiry of the term, a full exam (both theory and practice) must be taken. There is no limit to the number of combined practical and theory exams. Cesuur practice In the practical exam, a pass must be obtained for all components. Each component is assessed on the basis of an assessment protocol. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms recertification Machine Translated by Google In order to be eligible for recertification as a certificate holder, it must be demonstrated that all of the following conditions have been met by the certificate holder in those five (5) years: 1. Schooling: •. two (2) training days (4 half-days) were attended at a training institute recognized by TCVT, and •. one training day (2 half-days) is followed in the first 36 months of the five-year period, and •. the second day of training is taken after the 36th month of the five- year period, and •. During the training days, all final objectives and current developments are available with regard to this scheme, and •. of the training followed, the participant receives a certificate of participation from the TCVT recognized trainer and this is noted in the TCPR booklet. 2. Practical experience: •. in the period of five (5) years that the certificate is valid, the certificate holder must have worked for at least eight quarters in the position stated on the certificate, and •. of these eight quarters, at least two quarters must fall in the last three years of the five-year period, and •. the practical experience can be demonstrated by recording the practical experience of the certificate holder in the TCPR booklet or in the TCVT Practice Register. This practical experience must be verified and initialed by the employer at least every three months. If the holder cannot demonstrate that he has sufficient practical experience in the last five years, he can demonstrate through a practical test that he is still sufficiently competent. A practical test is taken in accordance with the requirements as laid down in this scheme. 11.2. Assessment method Recertification can be completed as follows: •. If the positive recertification decision is made within two months before the expiry date, then the expiry date is also the effective date of the renewed certificate. •. If the positive certification decision is made before the two months prior to the expiry date, the date of the certification decision is the effective date of the renewed certificate. If due to circumstances the driver's personal certificate has expired without timely recertification and the driver still wants to obtain a personal certificate, a dispensation scheme is possible. To this end, the driver submits an application to a certification body. This application is then submitted to TCVT Werkkamer 4 Professional competence, which draws up an advice. This advice is then Machine Translated by Google submitted to the certification body, which subsequently takes a decision on the (re)granting of the personal certificate. 11.3. Censorship in recertification When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of practical experience included therein must be submitted to the certification body. The receipt is confirmed within a calendar week with a statement, with which clients can be informed about the reason for the absence of the original TCPR booklet. The certification body checks the registrations and tests whether the required practical experience is met and informs the applicant about the result within a calendar week. In addition, the certification body, whether it concerns a driver as an employee or as a self- employed driver, will pay an unannounced 5% discount when applying for recertification. carry out random checks on the reliability of the implementation of practical experience. Proper administration must be kept for the registration of practical experience. This must remain available for at least 5 years. 12. The certificate Facts: At least the following information must be stated on the certificate: •. Name of the certified person incl. date of birth; •. Unambiguous document number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards against which it is tested; •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid. Texts: The certificate must state that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements from the field-specific certification scheme and, if relevant, whether it concerned a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. After a positive certification decision, the candidate will receive a TCVT certificate and a TCPR booklet within 4 weeks. Both documents are legal evidence. The details (including withdrawal of the certificate) of the participant are registered in the TCVT register of persons. Machine Translated by Google Unregistered Below are the conditions for removal from the TCVT certificate register. Certificate holders that do not meet the requirements associated with the certificate will be removed from the register of certificate holders. The following reasons can lead to deletion from the registry: a. Not being able to demonstrate that you are working as a train driver in the professional specialization for which the certificate is valid. b. Failure to fulfill obligations towards the certification body; c. Misuse or allow the certificate to be misused; d. Providing incomplete or incorrect information to the certification body; e. It proves unfit for the exercise of the certificate cohesive professional skills; f. Failure to meet the requirements as formulated under recertification (11). These conditions must be included in the certification agreement between the certification body and the certificate holder. Other conditions for certificate holders The holder of the certificate must prevent misuse of the certificate by third parties and report the loss of this certificate in writing to the certification body within 10 days. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate is obliged to report changes in place of residence and home address in writing to the certification body. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate must report complaints lodged against him/her by third parties, which are related to the purport of this certificate, to the certification body that issued the certificate in question. Annex XVIIf. belonging to Article 7.7, second paragraph under f, Working Conditions Regulations Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Machinist Telehandler Met Lifting function Document: WSCS-VT Operator Telehandler With Lifting Function CONTENT 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. Field-specific characteristics Machine Translated by Google 4. Certification Regulations 5. Exam regulations 6. Supervision PART II: STANDARDS 7. Subject of certification 8. Entry criteria 9. Attainment targets 10. test method at initial certification 11. Recertification 12. The certificate 13. Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of safe lifting by an operator with a telehandler. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe performance of lifting work on construction sites with a telehandler ) mobile multifunctional equipment not tied to a fixed track, designed for hoisting freely suspended loads, with an operating load moment of at least 10 tm.). The certification system of the Certification Body (CKI) must be structured in accordance with the requirements of the WDAT-VT-Personen. 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate applies to the certification body for the issue of a personal certificate of professional competence. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-)by the CKI on Machine Translated by Google based on the Minister of SZW adopted WDA&T. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme: TCVT. Central College of : The board, part of and/ Experts (CCvD) facilitated by BHST, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the preparation and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. In this case the CCvD- TCVT. Central Exam : Commission within the Commission (CEC) structure of the BHST developing a central item bank and manages. Certificate : A certificate within the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 27 Commodities Act (Article 6e Commodities Act Decree Machine). In addition, a certificate must be considered be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : Person in possession of a valid legally required Machine Translated by Google certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relationships between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Approval institution conformity assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score at which a fail and the lowest test score to which a pass is awarded. Competence : Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal Machine Translated by Google properties, as defined in the certification scheme. Check : Periodic assessment of CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to to be able to assess an individual candidate to the extent that he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards satisfies. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are held declined. Exam protocol : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the BHST and the examination institution. Exam regulations : Provisions for the Machine Translated by Google conducting examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Examiner's instruction : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the examiner and the examination institution. crane Hoisting equipment for the lifting free-hanging loads in a fixed (fixed crane that can be moved on rails) or mobile (crane on caterpillars or tires) with an operating load moment of at least 10 tonne metres. With the exception of: – (car) loading crane mounted on a vehicle and which is exclusively intended or used for loading and unloading from the body of the vehicle, and – earth- moving machine that excavates and subsequently lays pipework in those excavations or for the purpose of carrying out earthmoving work n install support bulkheads. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. TCPR TCVT Certification Persons Register Machine Translated by Google Supervision : Gathering the information about whether an act or thing meets the requirements set for it, then forming it of a judgment about it and, if necessary, to cause to intervene. TSJ TCVT Schedule Journal: annotation on a TCVT schedule. Field of competence: field of work, Indication of the the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a certain field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Declaration : The EC declaration of type examination or EC declaration of conformity as referred to in the provisions of or pursuant to the Machinery Directive or any other EU product directive. Field-specific : Term used by SZW certification scheme for a certification scheme that by the minister of SZW is accepted to be used within a specific designation Machine Translated by Google as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT-VT-Persons : Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and inspection bodies that certify persons in the context of vertical transport. Document: WDAT-VT-Persons. WDAT-VT Products : Field specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and Periodically inspect mobile cranes, tower cranes and/or hoisting and lifting equipment for professional passenger transport and/ or temporary passenger (construction) lifts in the context of vertical transportation. Document: WDAT-VT-Products. 3. Field-specific characteristics Lifting is a risky professional activity. In order to guarantee the social interest - safety and health of and around work - the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for guaranteeing the professional competence of mobile crane operators. 3.1. Description scheme This WSCS-VT Machinist Telehandler With Hoisting Function was proposed by the BHST and adopted by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment, including any adjustments. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can also make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. 3.2. Active parties Machine Translated by Google Within the framework of this field-specific certification scheme, the following are active: •. BHST TCVT, hereinafter TCVT; •. CCvD TCVT, hereinafter CCvD; •. Workroom 4 TCVT professional competence. 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Lifting and attaching loads is a high-risk activity in vertical transport. The machine used to lift, the hoisting and lifting equipment and the attachment of loads can each individually and/or together be dangerous for people and the environment. Assurance of this process by certified machines and hoisting and lifting equipment on the one hand and certified machinists and lifting supervisors on the other is necessary and recognized by the legislator. Cranes are complex installations and their share of serious and fatal accidents is relatively large. The cause of this insecurity can be divided into a number of subgroups: 1. instability burden 2. Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load 3. Faucet instability 4. Boom instability 5. Inadequate construction and dismantling of cranes 6. Technical defects of the crane 7. Tap accessibility ad 1+2. Load instability / Inadequate hooking up and unloading of load In construction, crane operators often lift unknown and unstable loads over large groups of construction workers and unload the load in the immediate vicinity of people unrelated to the lifting activity. The burden is often lifted by non-experts. However, the operator is responsible for lifting the load. Little goes wrong with the lifting itself, but with the load (sliding, falling, hook break, etc.). This risk is caused by working with unsafe equipment, incompetent personnel, lack of time and the lack of a lifting plan. ad 3+ 4. Crane and boom instability Cranes and boom become unstable due to lifting and slewing. There are then large pressure displacements through the crane. Instability can lead to the crane sinking or falling over. Good stamping on good bulkheads is the solution. In addition, overloading and working in heavy winds cause problems. Ad 5 + 6. Technical condition of the crane and inadequate assembly/dismantling of the crane Taps are used intensively and are subject to wear and tear. The installation and dismantling of the crane also has direct consequences for its use. Regular inspection of the tap is the solution. Machine Translated by Google ad 7. Accessibility tap A crane on a construction site is a useful and sought-after item. Unfortunately, it still happens regularly that unauthorized persons use the crane for lifting work. The operator must therefore always close his crane when leaving the crane. Crane operator certification and crane inspection are management factors that the industry has taken up. The inspection prevents a number of mechanical defects and the certification maintains the competence of the operators. Other factors that can be influenced by the management of the work are conflict management, human-machine interactions, communication and sufficient manpower 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes procedures for application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issue of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out inspections, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. 4.2. Certification procedure The candidate telehandler operator must submit an application to a CKI for the personal telehandler operator certificate, in accordance with these certification regulations. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who has not been involved in the assessment of the candidates and who has been qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the CKI has on the basis of the field-specific schedule for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate. The maximum period of validity of a personal certificate is 5 years. Earlier withdrawal is possible if the certificate holder has not met the requirements with regard to mastering the attainment targets referred to under 9. (for conditions, see 4.5). 4.5. Validity conditions Machine Translated by Google Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. These conditions are: •. the certificate holder may not perform any actions contrary to the regulations; •. the certificate holder must ensure that no misuse is made of the personal certificate. The CKI is authorized to suspend and/or revoke the certificate. The conditions and the way in which they must be supervised by the CKI are drawn up by the CCvD and recorded in the TCVT protocol 'suspension/withdrawal'. 4.6. Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Machine Translated by Google Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. Machine Translated by Google 4.7. Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non- granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: . name and address of submitter . date . a description of the contested decision . the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. Machine Translated by Google •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with TCVT, this data is sent electronically to Bureau TCVT at least as often as changes occur for the purpose of the TCVT Persons Register, which is set up in accordance with statutory provisions. This register has been made accessible via the Internet. The BHST is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation Machine Translated by Google The CCvD must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then different interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. 5. Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the WSCS-VT Machinist Telehandler With Hoisting Function. 5.1. Objective The examination takes place under the responsibility of the certification body and consists of the following parts: •. theory exam, and •. practical exam. 5.2. The exam institution The examination institution must adhere to the examination regulations. This includes the following: Hospitalized: 1. effective date of the certificate; 2. any entrance requirements for taking the exam; 3. the application procedure at the CKI; 4. confirmation of participation and call; 5. identification of the participants; 6. admission and absence; 7. exam duration and method of examination; 8. rules of conduct for candidates; 9. adjusted exam arrangement; 10. pass and fail standards; 11. announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; 12. retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; 13. right of inspection; 14. validity period of the exam result. If the examination institution is not an organizational part of the CKI, both have committed themselves by means of an agreement. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN- EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. The CKI is obliged to report to the BHST that exams are taken by an external examination institution and which institution it concerns. Machine Translated by Google 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. The selection process must guarantee that exam personnel who take (part of) an exam at least meet the requirements as formulated in the TCVT exam protocol. Supervisor theory exam A supervisor is appointed by the examination institution for the theory exam. This officer does not require specific knowledge of the field. The supervisor does have: . organizational capabilities; . communication and interpersonal skills; . the ability to control and act decisively. The supervisor is expected to: . supervises compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations, the implementing regulations and the examination requirements; . correctly handles the established administrative procedures; . makes himself sufficiently available for the supervision of the purchase of theory exams. A supervisor performs the following tasks: . checking the candidate's personal details and registrations; . checking and subsequently preparing the theory exam so that the candidate can start immediately after the start of the exam; . exercising supervision in order to prevent abuse; . taking the exam papers and preparing them for dispatch; . the delivery of the total package to the examination institution. Corrector theory exam: A corrector is appointed by the examination institution to assess the written elaboration of the open questions of the theory exam. The corrector meets the following qualification criteria: •. he/she masters the Dutch language (or the language in which the exam is taken (German and/or English)); •. he has up-to-date professional knowledge and insight; •. he fits the assessment criteria, as laid down in the TCVT certification scheme. The corrector assesses the elaborations of the theory exams within the TCVT answer macros and the set term and attaches a mark to this according to the methodology as laid down in the relevant TCVT certification scheme. Machine Translated by Google Examiner practical exam An examiner is appointed by the examination institution for the practical exam. The examiner is charged with assessing whether, and to what extent, the candidate's knowledge, skills and attitude meet the requirements for passing the exam. To this end, the examiner applies the TCVT examiner's instruction during the assessment. In the case of an examination with more than one examiner, one of the examiners is designated as chairman and in that capacity is responsible for the orderly conduct of the examination and its settlement. The examiner has: . at least two years of practical work experience in the relevant field; . up-to-date practical and theoretical knowledge of the relevant field; . good communicative skills; . the ability to act decisively; . sufficient knowledge of the examination regulations. The examiner is expected to: – understands the influence that an exam situation has on the behavior of the candidates; – is able to create an optimal climate for the candidate, so that knowledge and acquired experience, insight, skills and attitude are displayed as effectively as possible; – properly deal with the candidates and all other persons who be present at the exam functionally; – provides an objective assessment of the knowledge and understanding of the candidate; – strictly observes the regulations for each examination component to apply; – annually attends the TCVT examiners day; – representatively represents the examination institution during the exam and ensures a correct course. For each certification scheme, the examiner must be an expert nominated by the examination institute and accepted by the certification institute. Independence The examination staff is independent. All examination staff signs a statement in which confidentiality and independence are guaranteed and in which they declare that they will not perform any work for or for a trainer. It declares itself independent of the candidate and any trainer/employer of the candidate. Should it become apparent during the examination that a relationship, of whatever nature, exists between the candidate and the relevant examination staff member, the examiner must report this to the examination institution in good time. Under no circumstances is it allowed that the Machine Translated by Google concerning examiner examines this candidate on pain of invalidity of the exam. If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination are not discredited. These measures must be recorded. 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the certification/examination institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the certification body. Employees of the examination institute have signed a confidentiality statement. 5.4.2. General rules when conducting exams The theory exam is taken in writing and in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam to a person aged 18 and over. If there are valid reasons for an oral theory exam in the Dutch language (for example for candidates who are demonstrably dyslexic), the certification body may decide to do so. This alternative must meet the same conditions as the regular theory exam and the CEC must agree to this. The written oral exam is taken by an examiner and a supervisor additionally authorized by the CKI. The examination institution must keep a record of this alternative administration with a (minimum annual) report to the CEC. The practical exam is taken in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam. The candidate must be able to communicate adequately during the exam. For the other requirements for the exam (location, resources, etc) reference is made to the TCVT exam protocol. 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder meets the requirements. The supervision is completed depending on the subject of certification, the period of certification and the risk analysis. 6.1. Cooperation with supervision Machine Translated by Google The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the TCVT recognized training institute for further training, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The necessary provisions for this are included in the agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder. 6.2. Frequency of supervision When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of the practical experience and the training must be submitted to the CKI. The receipt will be confirmed within one calendar week (this confirmation is proof to clients regarding the absence of the TCPR booklet). The CKI checks the registration and tests whether the requirements of training and practical experience are met. The applicant will be informed about this within one calendar week. In addition, the CKI carries out, unannounced, a 5% random check on the reliability of the implementation of the training and practical experience. Proper administration must be kept by the CKI for the registration of the training and practical experience. This administration must remain available for at least five years. 6.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out At the time of training (twice in a period of 5 years), the TCVT recognized training institute assesses each TCPR booklet with regard to training and practical experience. If a certificate holder no longer meets the requirements, the CKI will be notified of this within three working days. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI is obliged to make its findings with regard to 6.2 known to the certificate holder within two calendar weeks. 6.5. Measures If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards in this field-specific certification scheme, this will result in measures by the CKI in the shortest possible time. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. The CKI must exchange information with the Inspectorate SZW about identified dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and that could endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties. If there is a sanction, this will be made known to the certificate holder. Relevant information about the sanction must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. This notification obligation must be elaborated in detail, in connection with the confidentiality of personal data and the contractual relationship between CKI and the customer. Machine Translated by Google If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the CKI must indicate (and register) the period after which certification is allowed again. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. Criteria The CKI must in any case conduct an investigation after submitting a complaint regarding the working method of the certificate holder: •. from the SZW Inspectorate; •. from the market, submitted to TCVT and/or the CKI. Criteria on the basis of which the CKI must take measures are the following. 1. The certificate will be suspended if a complaint has been declared well-founded by the CKI. This concerns a complaint other than: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. founded The by the certificate CKI 2. regarding: will be revoked if there is a complaint that has been declared well- •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver which causes the driver to and/or third parties are directly endangered. Part II: Standards Part 2 of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to a certificate for professional competence in a professional field. Described is successively: •. the subject of certification, •. entrance criteria that are set to be admitted to the certification process, •. the attainment targets that apply to the certificate, •. the way in which compliance with the learning outcomes is assessed and reported, •. the assessment that takes place during recertification, •. requirements for the certificate, •. validity conditions. 7. Subject of Certification This WSCS-VT Machinist Telehandler With Hoisting Function has been drawn up by the CCvD TCVT. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of safe lifting by a telehandler operator. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the execution Machine Translated by Google of lifting work on construction sites with a telehandler with an operating load moment of at least 10tm. This is about: •. safe handling of the load; •. position the telehandler safely (stability, environment, surface); •. allow the telehandler to function safely (construction, hoisting, dismantling, closing); •. keep the telehandler in a safe and technically good condition; •. working safely and healthily with the telehandler. 8. Entry Criteria For the first issue of the legally required person certificate for telehandler operator, a summary of the requirements follows. The candidate must meet the following entry criteria: . have sufficient material knowledge; . have sufficient material knowledge; . possess machine sense; . be able to work safely and in an environmentally responsible manner; . master the Dutch language at reading knowledge level A1 and writing knowledge level B2 or equivalent for examination in German or English language. There is no specific prior education requirement. 9. Attainment targets The candidate meets the following attainment targets and is therefore competent: Theory 1. The candidate can complete the various preparations for the describe and apply lifting work. 1.1 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. 1.2. The candidate can describe which preparations in the workplace must be taken before working with a telehandler. 2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and describe its function and the way of use. 3. The candidate can perform work with a telehandler. 3.1 The candidate can name different types of faucets and describe their characteristics and their application. 3.2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. 3.3. The candidate can describe how in a safe way lifting work must be carried out with a telehandler. 3.4. The candidate can determine how a telehandler should be moved. 3.5. The candidate is able to explain the function and operation of the main parts of the telehandler. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a name and interpret the telehandler. Machine Translated by Google 4.1 The candidate can understand the safety requirements of the telehandler, lifting load and Interpreting lifting equipment. 4.2 The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. 4.3 The candidate can describe how a telehandler lifting work must be left behind. 4.4 The candidate can name the telehandler's safety systems and explain the function of the LMB. 4.5 The candidate can explain how with and on a telehandler the environment must work responsibly 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and breakdown aspects of a telehandler recognizing, interpreting and naming. 5.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance must be performed on a telehandler. 5.2 The candidate can describe how malfunctions on a telehandler can be recognized and in relation to this describe how to act. Practice 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior to working with a telehandler. 2. The candidate can recognize, name and check lifting equipment and equipment for safety requirements 3. The candidate can perform work with a telehandler. 3.1 The candidate can perform lifting work with a telehandler. 3.2 The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a telehandler. 3.3 The candidate can move a telehandler independently. 3.4 The candidate can use a telehandler after lifting work according to the Leaving legal regulations behind. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a name and interpret the telehandler. 4.1 The candidate can use safety measures when working with and on a telehandler. 5. The candidate can understand the maintenance and breakdown aspects of a telehandler recognizing, interpreting and naming. 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on a telescopic handler. 5.2. The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a telehandler and act accordingly. 10. testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms Each final term is elaborated in test terms. These test criteria are arranged in the diagrams below per final term. The total number of questions per test term is indicated below. Machine Translated by Google Explanation of question code: *. FK = a question of factual knowledge *. BK = a question of conceptual knowledge *. RV = a question of reproductive skills *. PV = a demand for productive skills Test terms theory operator telehandler W4-07 + number of mandatory questions 1. The candidate can describe and apply the various preparations for the lifting work. RV-1, FK-1, BK-2 1.3 The candidate can apply the data from a lifting table. The candidate is able to interpret a lifting table of a telehandler. 1.4 The candidate can describe the preparations to be made in the workplace prior to working with a telehandler. – The candidate can identify the characteristics of the common species call ground – The candidate can explain why, when drawing up of a telehandler takes into account the factors: *. the bearing capacity of the subsoil *. lifting work near a slope *. the view of work *. third parties (persons and traffic) *. the correct boom length in relation to the lifting height and/or the mass of the load to be lifted *. the way of stamping 2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and the function and manner describe its use. BK-3 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate the function of lifting equipment, possibly on the basis of an image, and can explain whether and how they should be used. The candidate can perform work with a telehandler. RV-6, FK-4, BK-10 3. 3.1 The candidate can name different types of telehandlers and describe its features and applications. – The candidate can, possibly on the basis of an image, name the types of telehandlers and describe their characteristics and applications 3.2. The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and name and describe its application. – The candidate can recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment of the telehandler, possibly on the basis of an image. – The candidate can fulfill the position of lifting equipment and Describe equipment of the telehandler. 3.3. The candidate can describe how in a safe way lifting work must be carried out with a telehandler. – The candidate can explain why the given safety aspects must be met. – The candidate can describe why to the following additional safety precautions must be met if he with the telehandler: Machine Translated by Google *. place a load out of sight *. lifting work performed near railway tracks and/or power lines. *. standing on a work site with several cranes/telehandlers. *. lifting with a work basket. – Given a situation, the candidate can determine in which situation which personal protective equipment must be worn. – Given the density of the materials, the candidate can calculate mass. – Given a situation, the candidate can determine risks and measures with regard to the shape, construction, composition and special properties of loads. 3.4. The candidate can determine how a telehandler should be moved. – The candidate can determine a given situation: *. whether a telehandler can be moved packed *. whether a telescopic handler can be driven with or without burden *. whether a road or terrain is suitable to drive on *. whether a telehandler can travel over different types of terrain (indicating the correct drive. – Given a situation, the candidate can determine what is the right drive. – The candidate can name the points for attention during assembly, use, disassembly and transport of the auxiliary boom. – The candidate can describe how, in accordance with the conditions and the settings mentioned in the user manual, must be driven. 3.5. The candidate is able to explain the function and operation of the main parts of the telehandler. – The candidate is able to explain the operation of main components and systems of the telehandler. – The candidate can name when changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a telehandler can occur. – The candidate can determine the consequences of changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a telehandler. 4. The candidate is able to name and interpret the safety and environmental aspects of working with a telehandler. RV-2, FK-3, BK-10 4.1 The candidate can understand the safety requirements of the telehandler and interpret lifting equipment. – The candidate can define concepts: *. stability *. tipping point *. flight *. moment of stability *. stamp base *. lifting equipment *. workload *. tilt line and tilt angle Machine Translated by Google *. lifting equipment *. load moment – The candidate is able to operate and approve a telehandler and the associated hoisting and lifting equipment interpret the legal obligations and describe the scope of these legal obligations. – The candidate can explain how he uses lifting equipment must check. – The candidate can explain how he should lift the lifting load to check. – The candidate can describe the function and content of the crane book with accompanying documents. 4.2. The candidate takes responsibility for the lifting plan and his administrative obligations. – The candidate can determine which data in the lifting plan of are important in the performance of work with the telehandler. – The candidate can name which administrative obligations he has in the context of his professional practice. 4.3. The candidate can describe how a telehandler lifting work must be left behind. – The candidate can name the measures that apply when leaving a telehandler behind. 4.4. The candidate can name the telehandler's safety systems and explain the function of the LMB. – The candidate can share parts of a call telehandler. – The candidate can perform the load moment protection function of set out the telehandler. – The candidate can explain which protections must be present on the telehandler and what their function is. 4.5. The candidate can explain how to work with and on a telehandler in an environmentally responsible manner. – The candidate is able to interpret environmental and safety regulations that he must apply when moving environmentally harmful substances. – The candidate can explain why environmentally responsible work is important. 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and failure aspects of a telehandler. FK-2, BK-6 5.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance must be performed on a telehandler. – The candidate can carry out the daily maintenance of the telehandler to describe. – The candidate can state which cleaning activities must be carried out on the telehandler. 5.2. The candidate can describe how malfunctions on a telehandler can be recognized and in relation to this describe how to act. – The candidate can summarize how to perform a fault diagnosis to parts of a telehandler. Machine Translated by Google – The candidate understands how, given the nature of the malfunction, must be acted upon, ie: *. stop work *. self-repair of the malfunction *. enable technical service – The candidate can explain how to avoid unacceptable wear can signal to parts of the telehandler. – The candidate can list what is in a malfunction report should be mentioned. Test terms Practical exam The practical exam consists of the following activities: 1. Go through assignment 6. Practical lifting assignments 2. Initial check of the 7. machine Assist in moving (visual) load 3. Maintenance of the 8. Practical lifting assignments machine 4. Control and inspection 9. lifting equipment Setting up 5. and making telehandler10. Leave machine ready for use The table provides an overview of the distribution of the attainment targets over the activities of the practical exams for telehandler operator. Because attainment targets are subdivided into test objectives, an attainment target is often divided over several activities. As a result, an attainment target is usually not covered by an activity. Explanation of codes: *. RV = Reproductive Skills Assignment *. PV = Productive Skills Assignment 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior to working with a telehandler. RV-9, PV-1 1.1 carry out a lifting plan in view of: *. location and dimensions of the lifting location(s) *. position and dimensions of the obstacles *. dimensions, shape, mass and center of gravity of the load *. type, dimensions, shape and mass of the lifting equipment. 1.2. checking the legally required documents. 1.3. cordon off the work area. 1.4. consult with the supervisor (examiner) about the work, ao about: *. the nature of the materials to be lifted Machine Translated by Google *. the location of underground cables and pipes 1.5. on the basis of the environmental factors the terrain conditions determine: *. the location of overhead and underground pipes *. the location and dimensions of obstacles *. the presence of people and traffic on and next to the work area 1.6. estimate the dimensions, mass and center of gravity of the load. 1.7. determine the choice and type of lifting equipment. 1.8. attach attachments and equipment to the telehandler. 1.9. determine the following data from a lifting table of a telehandler: *. the flight *. the lifting height *. the workload in relation to flight and/or altitude *. counterweight. 1.10. set up the telehandler safely and in accordance with the operating instructions, taking into account environmental factors. 1.11. Check that the correct warning signs or signs are on and around the faucet are installed. 1.12. determine the manner of execution of the work. 2. The candidate can recognize and name lifting equipment and equipment and check for safety requirements RV-1 2.1 The candidate can recognize and formulate, possibly on the basis of an image, the function of lifting equipment and explain how they should be used 3. The candidate can perform work with a telehandler. RV-12 3.1 The candidate can perform lifting work with a telehandler. 3.1.1 Carry out lifting work with the telehandler. 3.1.2. to give legally prescribed hand and semaphore signals and to properly follow up on received hand and semaphore signals. 3.1.3. communicate using walkie-talkies. 3.1.4. choose the necessary lifting equipment based on the shape, mass and material of the load to be lifted. 3.1.5. check the lifting equipment for: *. the display of the permitted workload on the lifting equipment *. visual damage or defects *. presence of a CE marking, certificate and inspection report 3.1.6. check the lifting table whether the telehandler can carry out the work can perform. 3.1.7. topping up and topping off a load with the telehandler. 3.1.8. place a load in a target with the telehandler. 3.1.9. a load between obstacles with the telehandler maneuver. 3.1.10. control a pendulum movement with the telehandler. Machine Translated by Google 3.1.11. with the telehandler a load from horizontal to vertical move. 3.2. The candidate can attach lifting equipment to a telehandler. Attach lifting tools to the (crane) hook and use them to attach a load. 3.3. The candidate can move a telehandler independently. 3.3.1 make the telehandler roadworthy. 3.3.2. move the telehandler independently at the exam location. 3.4 The candidate can use a telehandler after lifting work according to the leave company regulations. after the work is completed, leave the telehandler in the correct manner in accordance with the legal regulations. 4. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a name and interpret the telehandler. RV-2 4.1 The candidate can use safety measures when working with and on a telehandler. observes the safety regulations during daily maintenance and when working with the telehandler. 5. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name the maintenance and failure aspects of a telehandler.RV-5, PV-1 5.1 The candidate is able to carry out daily checks and maintenance on a telescopic handler. 5.1.1 indicate which parts of the telehandler must be maintained on a daily basis and which operations must be carried out. 5.1.2 check the operation of the telehandler systems. 5.2. The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a telehandler and act accordingly. 5.2.1 to prepare a malfunction diagnosis on the basis of the instructions for use on the basis of visual and auditory checks on the systems of a telehandler. 5.2.2 demonstrate how (minor) faults on the telehandler can be remedied. 5.2.3 Report malfunctions to a mechanic or the technical service in such a way that they get an unambiguous and clear picture of the malfunction. This by to to give: *. what the failure of or where in the system is *. what is visually noticeable in the crane construction (components) *. whether and where leakages are detectable *. what actions/repairs have been taken. 5.2.4. in the event of a fault on the telehandler, using the manual determine which of the following actions to take: *. assess whether or not he can be responsible work through *. troubleshoot independently *. the technician or technical service for the malfunction switch. Machine Translated by Google 10.2. Assessment method The theory exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions based on the test terms as described in point 10.1. The theory exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The maximum time to take the theory exam is 90 minutes. The maximum rating for the multiple choice questions is 50 points (1 point per correct answer). A candidate has passed if he has obtained 42 points or more. The result is expressed as a pass/ fail. The practical exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The exam assignments must be completed within 240 minutes. The TCVT examiners instruction determines the assessment of the practical exam. The following matters will be discussed in the practical exam: General The candidate is informed which type of machine he can expect. Has the candidate received instruction about the machine used for the exam? If not, don't take an exam! The candidate will be told the maximum length of time for the exam. If the candidate suspects insufficient knowledge, the examiner must question the candidate about the motivation of his choices. The exam assignment is announced in the presence of the candidate (removed from the sealed envelope). Police report The examiner must always fill in an official report, even if there are no details to mention. The CKI will not accept requests to issue the certificate of professional competence without an attached official report. The official report also states the duration of the exam taken. If the exam is completed 30 minutes or earlier than the indicated time, the reason for this must be explicitly stated in the official report. The practical exam concerns the following components: 1. get acquainted and go through the assignment 2. initial check of the telehandler and the accompanying documents 3. maintenance and operation of the telehandler 4. lifting equipment 5. positioning on the lifting site and making the telehandler ready for use 6. lifting order 1 Machine Translated by Google 7. assist moving load 8. lifting order 2 9. leave telehandler 10. safety 10.3. caesura Valuation result The result of both the theory and practical exam is expressed as pass/fail. Candidates who have not passed the theoretical or practical component or both components are entitled to a re-examination. The requirements as set out in Article 4.2 . apply here Validity period of the result of the exam A candidate can retake the exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam, which is still qualified as insufficiently qualified, up to 6 months after obtaining a satisfactory result for his practical or theory test. In this case, the candidate can request a re-examination at most twice within the stipulated period of 6 months. After this, or after the expiry of the term, a full exam (both theory and practice) must be taken. There is no limit to the number of combined practical and theory exams. Cesuur practice In the practical exam, a pass must be obtained for all components. Each component is assessed on the basis of an assessment protocol. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms recertification In order to be eligible for recertification as a certificate holder, it must be demonstrated that all of the following conditions have been met by the certificate holder in those five (5) years: 1. Schooling: •. Two (2) training days (4 half-days) were attended at a training institute recognized by TCVT, and •. one training day (2 half-days) is followed in the first 36 months of the five-year period, and •. the second day of training is taken after the 36th month of the five-year period, and •. During the training days, all final objectives and current developments are available with regard to this scheme, and •. of the training followed, the participant receives a certificate of participation from the TCVT recognized trainer and this is noted in the TCPR booklet. Machine Translated by Google 2. Practical experience: •. in the period of five (5) years that the certificate is valid, the certificate holder must have worked for at least eight quarters in the position stated on the certificate, and •. of these eight quarters, at least two quarters must fall in the last three years of the five-year period, and •. the practical experience can be demonstrated by recording the practical experience of the certificate holder in the TCPR booklet or in the TCVT Practice Register. This practical experience must be verified and initialed by the employer at least every three months. If the holder cannot demonstrate that he has sufficient practical experience in the last five years, he can demonstrate through a practical test that he is still sufficiently competent. A practical test is taken in accordance with the requirements as laid down in this scheme. 11.2. Assessment method Recertification can be completed as follows: – If the positive recertification decision is made within two months before the expiry date, then the expiry date is also the effective date of the renewed certificate. – If the positive certification decision is made before the two months prior to the expiry date, then the date of the certification decision is the effective date of the renewed certificate. If due to circumstances the driver's personal certificate has expired without timely recertification and the driver still wants to obtain a personal certificate, a dispensation scheme is possible. To this end, the driver submits an application to a certification body. This application is then submitted to TCVT Werkkamer 4 Professional competence, which draws up an advice. This advice is then submitted to the certification body, which subsequently takes a decision on the (re)granting of the personal certificate. 11.3. Control of the registration of practical experience in recertification When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of practical experience included therein must be submitted to the certification body. The receipt is confirmed within a calendar week with a statement, with which clients can be informed about the reason for the absence of the original TCPR booklet. The certification body checks the registrations and tests whether the required practical experience is met and informs the applicant about the result within a calendar week. Machine Translated by Google In addition, the certification body, whether it concerns a driver as an employee or as a self- employed driver, will pay an unannounced 5% discount when applying for recertification. carry out random checks on the reliability of the implementation of practical experience. Proper administration must be kept for the registration of practical experience. This must remain available for at least 5 years. 12. The certificate Facts: At least the following information must be stated on the certificate: •. Name of the certified person incl. date of birth; •. Unambiguous document number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards against which it is tested; •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid. Texts: The certificate must state that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements from the field-specific certification scheme and, if relevant, whether it concerned a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. After a positive certification decision, the candidate will receive a TCVT certificate and a TCPR booklet within 4 weeks. Both documents are legal evidence. The details (including withdrawal of the certificate) of the participant are registered in the TCVT register of persons. Unregistered Below are the conditions for removal from the TCVT certificate register. Certificate holders that do not meet the requirements associated with the certificate will be removed from the register of certificate holders. The following reasons can lead to deletion from the registry: Machine Translated by Google a. Not being able to demonstrate that you are working as a train driver in the professional specialization for which the certificate is valid. b. Failure to fulfill obligations towards the certification body; c. Misuse or allow the certificate to be misused; Providing incomplete or incorrect information to the certification d. institution; e. It proves unfit for the exercise of the certificate cohesive professional skills; f. Failure to meet the requirements as formulated under recertification (11). These conditions must be included in the certification agreement between the certification body and the certificate holder. Other conditions for certificate holders The holder of the certificate must prevent misuse of the certificate by third parties and report the loss of this certificate in writing to the certification body within 10 days. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate is obliged to report changes in place of residence and home address in writing to the certification body. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate must report complaints lodged against him/ her by third parties, which are related to the purport of this certificate, to the CKI that issued the relevant certificate. Annex XVIIg. belonging to Article 7.7, second paragraph under g, Working Conditions Regulations Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Machinist Kleine Foundation machine Document: WSCS-VT Machinist Small Foundation Machine CONTENT 1. Introduction 2. Definitions 3. Field-specific characteristics 4. Certification Regulations 5. Exam regulations 6. Supervision PART II: STANDARDS 7. Subject of Machine Translated by Google certification 8. Entry criteria 9. Attainment targets 10. test method at initial certification 11. Recertification 12. The certificate 13. Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of safe work by a driver with a small foundation machine. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe performance of foundation and/ or lifting work on construction sites with a foundation machine: •. with an own mass including equipment and foundation element of less than 30 tons, and •. with an overall height of less than 10 metres, and •. which processes foundation elements shorter than 10 meters. The certification system of the certification body (CKI) must be structured in accordance with the requirements of the WDAT-VT-Personen. 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a : The (legal) person who certificate applies to the certification body for the issue of a personal certificate of professional competence. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-) by the CKI on the basis of the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment Machine Translated by Google established WDA&T. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme: TCVT. Central College of : The board, part of and/ Experts (CCvD) facilitated by BHST, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the drafting and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. In this case the CCvD-TCVT. Central Exam : Commission within the Commission (CEC) structure of the BHST which has a central item bank develops and manages. Certificate : A certificate in the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 7 Commodities Act (Article 6e Commodities Act Decree Machinery). In addition, a certificate must be regarded as a declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : Person who is in the is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via Machine Translated by Google which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Approval institution Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score with a fail and the lowest test score with a pass is awarded. Competence : Demonstrated ability to share knowledge and to add skills suit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal attributes, as defined in the Machine Translated by Google certification scheme. Check : Periodic assessment by the CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must meet in order to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to be able to assess the individual candidate in the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards satisfies. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose responsibility the exams are taken. Exam protocol : Provisions for the conduct of exams in the relationship between the BHST and the examination institution. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the Machine Translated by Google candidate and the examination institution. Examiner's instruction : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the examiner and the examination institution. Foundation elements : Foundation elements can consist of material such as wood, plastic, concrete (prefabricated or cast-in- place) or steel (tubes or profiles). In addition, foundation elements may have a connecting piece to allow them to be extended. Foundation machine : Machine suitable for the following applications: • installing foundations, closing and/or retaining walls, soil bearing capacity improvements, etc. by using piles or other elongated elements; • the removal of posts or other elongated elements; • installing drainage or injection elements. Foundation machine large: Foundation machine: • with its own mass including equipment and foundation element of equal to or more than 30 tons, or • with a total height of equal to or more than 10 metres, or • that Machine Translated by Google foundation elements equal to or longer than 10 metres. Foundation machine small : Foundation machine: • with an own mass including equipment and foundation element of less than 30 tons, and • with a total height of less than 10 metres, and • which processes foundation elements shorter than 10 metres. Inspection date : First day of the start of the inspection Last moment : The product of the load and the horizontal distance between the vertical projection of the centerline of the lifting hook and the center of the slewing ring or the point or line midway between the favorable load-side overturning line and the undercarriage support furthest from that overturning line during operation. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices in field-specific problem area, to be included in the intended certification scheme. TCPR TCVT Certification Persons Register Supervision : Collecting the information about whether an act or thing complies with the requirements imposed on it, Machine Translated by Google forming a judgment about it afterwards and intervene if necessary. TSJ TCVT Schedule Journal: annotation on a TCVT schedule. Field of competence: field of work, Indication of the the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a particular field or profession, are made of persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Declaration : The EC declaration of type examination or EC declaration of conformity as referred to in the provisions of or pursuant to the Machinery Directive or any other EU product directive. Field-specific : Term used by SZW certification scheme for a certification scheme accepted by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT-VT-Persons : Field specific document for designation and supervision Machine Translated by Google (WDA&T) on the certification and approval bodies that certify persons in the context of vertical transportation. Document: WDAT-VT-Persons. WDAT-VT Products : Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and mobile cranes, tower cranes and/or hoisting and lifting equipment for professional passenger transport and/ or temporary passenger (construction) lifts in the context of vertical inspection transportation. Document: WDAT-VT-Products. 3. Field-specific characteristics Lifting is a risky professional activity. In order to guarantee the social interest - safety and health of and around work - the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for guaranteeing the professional competence of mobile crane operators. 3.1. Description scheme The WSCS-VT Machinist Kleine Funderingsmachine was proposed by the BHST and adopted by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment, including any adjustments. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can also make changes to the established documents on his own initiative. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this field-specific certification scheme, the following are active: •. BHST TCVT, hereinafter TCVT •. CCvD TCVT, hereinafter CCvD •. Workroom 4 TCVT professional competence Machine Translated by Google 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Carrying out foundation works is a risky activity. In the process of working with small foundation machines, various circumstances can be distinguished with associated specific risks: 1. Foundation rig stability Tipping hazard of small foundation rigs differs greatly from one type to another. In principle, the stability is high during the execution. The risk of tipping over is low due to its compactness. The stability during maneuvering, on the other hand, is relatively low. The stability of the substrate is of great importance. There is also usually a risk of collision and entrapment. The risk of tipping over is increased by the use of a separate or external power pack and sometimes by limited outrigger capabilities in the given space. A (screw pile) drilling machine must be properly anchored for large drilling moments. 2. Falling Objects Another characteristic of the use of small foundation rigs is that a (protective) cabin on the machine is often missing. Operation then takes place from the side or from the rear. In that case, the driver stands next to or behind the machine. It is not protected against falling objects. A lot of work with small foundation machines is performed indoors. The danger of falling attic beams or falling walls is therefore great. 3. Working in existing buildings When working in existing buildings and old or (partially) demolished structures, a sound technical calculation of the foundation to be installed is often lacking in advance. A misjudgment by the operator can lead to the collapse of the building and/or surrounding area. 4. Exposure to harmful substances/noise Often work is done in small spaces. After all, the machines are designed for that. The operating personnel are completely exposed to noise. Ventilation also often leaves a lot to be desired. These include dust and DME (diesel engine emissions). 5. Stability of the subsurface and accessibility of the construction site Another risk of working in a limited space is the long and/or difficult supply of the machine and of foundation elements, tools and building materials. This also creates a risk for escape routes in the event of dangers such as collapse, fire or hazardous substances. Working with machines with electric motors poses the risk of hitting cables. Machine Translated by Google Finally, the stability of a machine on old and broken floors must be considered. 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes procedures for application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issue of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out inspections, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. 4.2. Certification procedure In accordance with these certification regulations, the candidate operator of small piling rig must submit an application to a CKI for the personal certificate of operator of small piling rig. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who has not been involved in the assessment of the candidates and who has been qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the certification body has on the basis of the field-specific scheme for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate. The maximum period of validity of a personal certificate is 5 years. Earlier withdrawal is possible if the certificate holder has not met the requirements with regard to mastering the attainment targets referred to under 9. (for conditions, see 4.5). 4.5. Validity conditions Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. These conditions are: •. the certificate holder may not perform any actions contrary to the regulations; •. the certificate holder must ensure that no misuse is made made from the personal certificate. Machine Translated by Google The CKI is authorized to suspend and/or revoke the certificate. The conditions and the way in which they must be supervised by the CKI are drawn up by the CCvD and recorded in the TCVT protocol 'suspension/withdrawal'. 4.6. Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: •. A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method Machine Translated by Google When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Machine Translated by Google Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: . name and address of submitter . date . a description of the contested decision . the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. Machine Translated by Google •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, the interested party must, where appropriate, apply to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with TCVT, this data is sent electronically to Bureau TCVT at least as often as changes occur for the purpose of the TCVT Persons Register, which is set up in accordance with statutory provisions. This register has been made accessible via the Internet. The BHST is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then different interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. Machine Translated by Google 5. Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the TCVT personal certificate operator of small foundation rig 5.1. Objective The examination takes place under the responsibility of the certification body and consists of the following parts: •. theory exam, and •. practical exam. 5.2. The exam institution The examination institution must adhere to the examination regulations. This includes the following: Hospitalized: 1. effective date of the certificate; 2. any entrance requirements for taking the exam; 3. the application procedure at the CKI; 4. confirmation of participation and call; 5. identification of the participants; 6. admission and absence; 7. exam duration and method of examination; 8. rules of conduct for candidates; adjusted exam arrangement; 9. 10. pass and fail standards; 11. announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; 12. retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; 13. right of inspection; 14. validity period of the exam result. If the examination institution is not an organizational part of the CKI, both have committed themselves by means of an agreement. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN- EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. The CKI is obliged to report to the BHST that exams are taken by an external examination institution and which institution it concerns. 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. The selection process must guarantee that exam personnel who take (part of) an exam at least meet the requirements as formulated in the TCVT exam protocol. The examination staff is nominated by the examination institution and appointed by the CB on the basis of testing against the criteria below and the procedure applicable to examiners. Machine Translated by Google Supervisor theory exam A supervisor is appointed by the examination institution for the theory exam. This officer does not require specific knowledge of the field. The supervisor does have: •. organizational capabilities; •. communication and interpersonal skills; •. the ability to control and act decisively. The supervisor is expected to: •. supervises compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations, the implementing regulations and the examination requirements; •. correctly handles the established administrative procedures; •. makes himself sufficiently available for the supervision of the purchase of theory exams. A supervisor performs the following tasks: •. checking the candidate's personal details and registrations; •. checking and subsequently preparing the theory exam so that the candidate can start immediately after the start of the exam; •. exercising supervision in order to prevent abuse; •. taking the exam papers and preparing them for dispatch; •. the delivery of the total package to the examination institution. Corrector theory exam: A corrector is appointed by the examination institution to assess the written elaboration of the open questions of the theory exam. The corrector meets the following qualification criteria: •. he masters the Dutch language (or the language in which the exam is held) taken (German and/or English); •. he has up-to-date professional knowledge and insight; •. he fits the assessment criteria, as laid down in this TCVT certification scheme. The corrector assesses the elaborations of the theory exams within the TCVT answer macros and the set term and attaches a mark to this according to the methodology as laid down in this TCVT certification scheme. Examiner practical exam An examiner is appointed by the examination institution for the practical exam. The examiner is charged with assessing whether, and to what extent, the candidate's knowledge, skills and attitude meet the requirements for passing the exam. To this end, the examiner applies the TCVT examiner's instruction during the assessment. At a Machine Translated by Google examination with more than one examiner, one of the examiners is appointed as chairperson and in that capacity is responsible for the orderly conduct of the examination and its settlement. The examiner has: •. at least two years of practical work experience in the relevant field; •. up-to-date practical and theoretical knowledge of the relevant field; •. good communicative skills; •. the ability to act decisively; •. sufficient knowledge of the examination regulations. The examiner is expected to: •. understands the influence that an exam situation has on the behavior of the candidates; •. is able to create an optimal climate for the candidate, so that knowledge and acquired experience, insight, skills and attitude are displayed as effectively as possible; •. properly deal with the candidates and all other persons who be present at the exam functionally; •. provides an objective assessment of the knowledge and understanding of the candidate; •. strictly observes the regulations for each examination component to apply; •. annually attends the TCVT examiners day; •. representatively represents the examination institution during the exam and ensures a correct course. For each certification scheme, the examiner must be an expert nominated by the examination institute and accepted by the certification institute. Independence The examination staff is independent. All examination staff signs a statement in which confidentiality and independence are guaranteed and in which they declare that they will not perform any work for or for a trainer. It declares itself independent of the candidate and any trainer/employer of the candidate. Should it become apparent during the examination that a relationship, of whatever nature, exists between the candidate and the relevant examination staff member, the examiner must report this to the examination institution in good time. Under no circumstances is it permitted for the relevant examiner to examine this candidate under penalty of invalidity of the exam. If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination are not discredited. These measures must be recorded. 5.4. Requirements for the exam Machine Translated by Google 5.4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the certification/examination institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the certification body. Employees of the examination institute have signed a confidentiality statement. 5.4.2. General rules when conducting exams The theory exam is taken in writing and in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam to a person aged 18 and over. If there are valid reasons for an oral theory exam in the Dutch language (for example for candidates who are demonstrably dyslexic), the certification body may decide to do so. This alternative must meet the same conditions as the regular theory exam and the CEC must agree to this. The written oral exam is taken by an examiner and a supervisor additionally authorized by the CKI. The examination institution must keep a record of this alternative administration with a (minimum annual) report to the CEC. The practical exam is taken in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam. The candidate must be able to communicate adequately during the exam. For the other requirements for the exam (location, resources, etc) reference is made to the TCVT exam protocol. 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder meets the requirements. The supervision is completed depending on the subject of certification, the period of certification and the risk analysis. 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the TCVT recognized training institute for further training, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The necessary provisions for this are included in the agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder. Machine Translated by Google 6.2. Frequency of supervision When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of the practical experience and the training must be submitted to the CKI. The receipt will be confirmed within one calendar week (this confirmation is proof to clients regarding the absence of the TCPR booklet). The CKI checks the registration and tests whether the requirements of training and practical experience are met. The applicant will be informed about this within one calendar week. In addition, the CKI carries out, unannounced, a 5% random check on the reliability of the implementation of the training and practical experience. Proper administration must be kept by the CKI for the registration of the training and practical experience. This administration must remain available for at least five years. 6.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out At the time of training (2 times in a period of 5 years), the TCVT recognized training institute assesses each TCPR booklet with regard to training and practical experience. If a certificate holder no longer meets the requirements, the CKI will be notified of this within three working days. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI is obliged to make its findings with regard to 6.2 known to the certificate holder within two calendar weeks. 6.5. Measures (Article 1.5e Working Conditions Decree) If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards in the professional field-specific certification scheme, this will result in measures by the CKI in the shortest possible time. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. The CKI must exchange information with the Inspectorate SZW about identified dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and that could endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties. If there is a sanction, this will be made known to the certificate holder. Relevant information about the sanction must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. This notification obligation must be elaborated in detail, in connection with the confidentiality of personal data and the contractual relationship between CKI and the customer. Machine Translated by Google If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the CKI must indicate (and register) the period after which certification is allowed again. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. Criteria The CKI must in any case conduct an investigation after submitting a complaint regarding the working method of the certificate holder: •. from the SZW Inspectorate; •. from the market, submitted to TCVT and/or the CKI. Criteria on the basis of which the CKI must take measures are the following. 1. The certificate will be suspended if a complaint has been declared well-founded by the CKI. This concerns a complaint other than: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. 2. The certificate will be revoked if there is a complaint that has been declared well- founded by the CKI regarding: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. Part II: Standards Part 2 of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to a certificate for professional competence in a professional field. Described is successively: •. the subject of certification, •. entrance criteria that are set to be admitted to the certification process, •. the attainment targets that apply to the certificate, •. the way in which compliance with the learning outcomes is assessed and reported, •. the assessment that takes place during recertification, •. requirements for the certificate, •. validity conditions. 7. Subject of Certification This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of safe working with a small foundation machine. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment by means of a static reference in the Working Conditions Regulation. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The to be certified Machine Translated by Google professional competence concerns the safe execution of foundation work on construction sites with a foundation machine: •. with an own mass including equipment and foundation element of less than 30 tons, and •. with an overall height of less than 10 metres, and •. which processes foundation elements shorter than 10 meters. This is about: •. safe handling of the load; •. small foundation machine crane safely positioning (stability, environment, substrate); •. allow a small foundation machine to function safely (construction, foundation, lifting, dismantling, closing); •. keep the small foundation rig in a safe and technically good condition; •. working safely and healthily with the small foundation machine. 8. Entry Criteria For the first issue of the legally required personal certificate for the operator of a small foundation rig, the following is a summary of the requirements. The candidate must meet the following entry criteria: . have sufficient material knowledge; . have sufficient material knowledge; . possess machine sense; . be able to work safely and in an environmentally responsible manner; . master the Dutch language at reading knowledge level A1 and writing knowledge level B2 or equivalent for examination in German or English language; . have the certificate A 'Working on foundations' of the training to Foundation worker. The diplomas or certificates of the courses 'machinist small foundation machine' and/or foundation worker small foundation machine and/or heier 'II/future foundation worker' are equated with this certificate; . Employees who have been in one of the above positions for more than 5 years worked without having been in possession of an old certificate for Machinist Mobile Piling Installation, only need to complete the practical exam TCVT machinist small foundation rig to receive a TCVT certificate small piling rig. Employees in possession of a valid TCVT certificate 'machinist large foundation machine' therefore meet all requirements set in the present certification scheme. 9. Attainment targets The candidate meets the following attainment targets and is therefore competent: Theory 1. The candidate can understand the various preparations for working with a describe and apply small foundation machine Machine Translated by Google 1.1 1.1. The candidate can describe which preparations must be made in the workplace (inside and outside) prior to working with a small foundation rig. 1.2. The candidate can apply the data from a capacity table. 1.3. The candidate can describe how in a safe way work is carried out with a small foundation machine. 1.4. The candidate can assess whether the work plan drawn up complies with the safety requirements laid down and have the plan adjusted if necessary on his instructions. 1.5. The candidate can carry out an installation inspection. 2. The candidate can perform work with a small foundation machine 2.1 The candidate can use different types of small foundation machines name and describe its characteristics and applications. 2.2 The candidate can explain the function and operation of the main parts of the small foundation rig. 2.3 The candidate can disassemble small foundation machines, preparing for transport, loading, unloading, assembling and building. 2.4 The candidate can use lifting tools and equipment recognize and name and describe the application thereof. 2.5 The candidate can recognize the different foundation techniques and apply. 2.6 The candidate knows his responsibility with regard to the work plan and its administrative obligations. 2.7 The candidate can assess how a small foundation rig is moved. 3. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a name and interpret small foundation rig 3.1 The candidate can meet the safety requirements of the small Interpret foundation rig, lifting load and lifting equipment. 3.2 The candidate can name the safety systems of the small foundation rig. The candidate can explain how with and with a small 3.3 foundation rig works in an environmentally responsible manner. 3.4 The candidate can describe how a small foundation rig the work is left behind. 3.5 The candidate has knowledge of fall and entrapment hazards and precautionary actions. 3.6 The candidate has knowledge of exposure risks from hazardous substances and noise and preventive measures. 3.7 The candidate knows the risks of electrical cables and hydraulic, pneumatic and fluid lines. 3.8 The candidate has knowledge of the danger of collapse of the environment and precautionary actions. 3.9 The candidate has knowledge of the stability of the small foundation machine, of the subsoil and the associated preventive measures. 4. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name maintenance and malfunction aspects of the small foundation rig Machine Translated by Google 4.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance is carried out on a small foundation machine. 4.2 The candidate can describe how malfunctions in a small foundation rig can be recognized and how to act. Practice 5. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior to working with a small foundation rig 5.1 The candidate can assess the condition of the job site. 5.2 The candidate can test the proposed working method against safety and environmental aspects and adjust the working method if necessary. 5.3 The candidate can carry out an installation inspection. 5.4 The candidate can recognize, name and check lifting equipment on safety requirements. 6. The candidate can perform work with a small foundation rig 6.1 The candidate can attach lifting equipment to foundation elements and tools. 6.2 The candidate can independently build a small foundation machine move and, if necessary, stamp and/or anchor. 6.3 In the event of unexpected circumstances, the candidate can take measures during the execution of the foundation work. 6.4 The candidate can disassemble, prepare, load, unload and assemble small foundation machines. 7. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and applying small foundation machine 7.1 The candidate can apply safety measures when working with and on a small foundation rig. 7.2 The candidate can leave a small foundation rig after the work according to the company regulations. 7.3 The candidate has knowledge of fall and entrapment hazards and knows how to apply preventive measures 7.4 The candidate has knowledge of exposure risks from hazardous substances and noise and knows how to take preventive measures. 7.5 The candidate knows the risks of electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic and fluid pipes and knows how to take preventive measures. 7.6 The candidate has knowledge of the danger of collapse of the environment and knows how to take preventive measures. 7.7 The candidate has knowledge of the stability of the small foundation machine, of the subsoil and the associated preventive measures. 8. The candidate can understand maintenance and failure aspects of the small foundation recognize, interpret and name a machine 8.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance is carried out on a small foundation machine. 8.2 The candidate can describe how malfunctions in a small foundation rig can be recognized and describe how to act in relation to this. Machine Translated by Google 8.3 The candidate can carry out daily checks and maintenance on a small foundation machine. 8.4 The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a small foundation machine and take measures. 10. testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms Each final term is elaborated in test terms. These test criteria are arranged in the diagrams below per final term. The total number of questions per test term is indicated below. Explanation of question code: *. FK = a question of factual knowledge *. BK = a question of conceptual knowledge *. RV = a question of reproductive skills *. PV = a demand for productive skills Test terms theory operator small foundation rig + number of mandatory questions 1. The candidate can describe which preparations in the workplace must be taken prior to working with a small foundation rig. RV-1, FK-2, BK-5 1.1 The candidate can identify the characteristics of the common species call subsurface. 1.2 The candidate can explain why, when setting up a small foundation machine, he takes into account circumstances such as the bearing capacity of the subsoil or floor, work in a limited space, the presence of third parties, the method of stamping or anchoring, etc. 1.3 The candidate can use a capacity table of a small Interpreting a foundation rig. 1.4 The candidate can draw up a work plan and the associated assess administrative burdens on the basis of safety requirements. 1.5 The candidate can make and assess an installation inspection. 2. The candidate can perform work with a small foundation machine. RV-6, FK-4, BK-10 2.1 The candidate can recognize foundation rigs and the operation of describe the main components. 2.2 The candidate can name when changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a small foundation rig can occur. 2.3 The candidate can determine the consequences of changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a small foundation rig. 2.4 The candidate has knowledge of (dis)assembling and moving small foundation machines 2.5 The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and appoint. Machine Translated by Google 2.6 The candidate can recognize and describe the foundation techniques. 3. The candidate can describe how in a safe and environmentally responsible way work can be carried out with a small foundation machine. RV-2, FK-3, BK-10 3.1 The candidate can explain why the given safety aspects must be met. 3.2 The candidate can determine in which situation which personal protective equipment must be worn. 3.3 Given the density of the materials, the candidate can find the mass calculate. 3.4 Given a situation, the candidate can determine risks and measures with regard to the shape, construction, composition and special properties of loads. 3.5 The candidate can determine in a given situation: *. whether a small foundation machine can be moved packed become *. can be built up with or without load *. whether a road, terrain or floor is suitable to drive on *. whether a machine can travel over different types of terrain (indicating the correct drive) 3.6. The candidate can describe how to drive in accordance with the conditions and settings mentioned in the user manual. 3.7. The candidate can define the following concepts: * stability * tipping moment * * outrigger base lifting equipment * * tilt line and tilt lifting equipment angle * stability moment * workload * load moment * flight 3.8. The candidate is able to operate and inspect small foundation rigs and the associated lifting equipment interpret the legal obligations and describe the scope of these legal obligations. 3.9 The candidate can explain what he needs to do with lifting equipment to check. 3.10 The candidate can use the function and contents of the crane book accompanying documents. 3.11 The candidate can name parts of the protection system of a small foundation rig. 3.12 The candidate can explain which protections on the small foundation machine must be present and what its function is. 3.13 The candidate is able to interpret environmental and safety regulations that he must apply when moving environmentally harmful substances. 3.14 The candidate can explain why environmentally responsible working of importance. Machine Translated by Google 3.15 The candidate can name the measures that apply to the leaving a small foundation rig. 4. The candidate can describe how and on what daily maintenance of a small foundation machine. FK-2, BK-6 4.1 The candidate can describe the daily maintenance. 4.2 The candidate can state which cleaning work must be carried out on the small foundation machine. 4.3 The candidate can describe how malfunctions in a small foundation machine can be recognized and how to act. The candidate can summarize how to perform a fault diagnosis 4.4 parts of a small foundation rig. 4.5 The candidate understands how to act, given the nature of the malfunction, ie: *. stop work *. self-repair of the malfunction *. enable technical service 4.6 The candidate can explain how he can avoid unacceptable wear signal to parts of the small foundation machine. 4.7 The candidate can list what is stated in a malfunction report must be. Test terms Practical exam Attainment targets See activities The candidate can: 1 2 3 4 5 7 8 9 6 1. the preparations X X X X X X meeting in the workplace prior to working with a small foundation machine. 2. work X X X X perform with a small foundation machine. 3. safety and X X X X X name environmental aspects of working with the small foundation rig. 4. maintenance and X X X X X failure aspects of the Machine Translated by Google name small foundation machine The practical exam consists of the following activities: 1. Go through assignment 6. Practice foundation assignments 2. Initial check of the 7. Assisting with moving the load machine (visually) 3. Maintenance of the 8. machine 4. Control and inspection 9. Leave machine lifting equipment Setting up 5. and making a small foundation rig ready for use The table provides an overview of the distribution of the attainment targets over the activities of the practical exams for the operator of a small foundation machine. Because attainment targets are subdivided into test objectives, an attainment target is often divided over several activities. As a result, an attainment target is usually not covered by an activity. Explanation of codes: *. RV-X = Reproductive Skills Assignment *. PV-X = Productive Skills Assignment 1. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior to working with a small foundation rig RV-10, PV-1 1.1 carry out a work plan taking into account: *. location and dimensions of the location(s) *. position and dimensions of the obstacles *. dimensions, shape, mass and center of gravity of the load *. type, dimensions, shape and mass of the lifting equipment. 1.2 checking the legally required documents. 1.3 cordon off the work area. 1.4 consult with the supervisor (examiner) about the work, ao about: *. the nature of the foundation work *. the location of underground cables and pipes 1.5. on the basis of the environmental factors the terrain conditions determine: *. the location of overhead and underground pipes Machine Translated by Google *. the location and dimensions of obstacles *. the presence of people and traffic on and next to the work area 1.6. determine the choice and type of lifting equipment. 1.7. attaching attachments and equipment to the small foundation rig. 1.8 determine the following data from a lifting table of a small foundation rig: *. the flight *. the lifting height *. the workload in relation to flight and/or altitude. 1.9. set up the small foundation rig safely and in accordance with the operating instructions, taking environmental factors into account. 1.10 Check that the correct warning signs or signs on and around the machine are fitted. 1.11 determine the manner of execution of the work. 2. The candidate can perform work with a small foundation machine RV-13 2.1 Carry out work with the small foundation rig. legally required hand and semaphore signals and to 2.2 receive the appropriate hand and arm signals. 2.3 on the basis of shape, mass and material of the load to be lifted the Select the necessary lifting equipment. 2.4 check the lifting equipment for: *. the display of the permitted workload on the lifting equipment *. visual damage or defects *. presence of a CE marking, certificate and inspection report 2.5 check the lifting table and determine whether the small foundation machine can perform the work. 2.6 topping and topping a load with the small foundation machine. 2.7 place a load in a target with the small foundation machine. 2.8 a load between obstacles with the small foundation machine maneuver. 2.9 control a pendulum movement with the small foundation machine. 2.10 Attach lifting equipment to the crane hook and bear a burden on it. 2.11 preparing the small foundation machine for road use. 2.12 moving the small foundation machine independently at the exam location. 2.13 after the work has been completed, leave the small foundation rig in the correct manner in accordance with the legal regulations. 3. The candidate can work safely and in an environmentally responsible manner with the small foundation rig RV-2 3.1 the candidate can observe safety measures when working with the small foundation machine Machine Translated by Google 4. The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a small foundation machine and take action, as well as perform maintenance RV-5, PV-1 4.1 drawing up a fault diagnosis on main components based on the operating instructions, based on visual and auditory checks on the systems of a small foundation rig. 4.2 demonstrate on the basis of the operating instructions how (minor) faults on the small foundation machine can be remedied. 4.3 report malfunctions to a mechanic or the technical service in such a way that they get an unambiguous and clear picture of the malfunction. This by indicating: *. what the failure of or where in the system is *. what is visually observable in the machine construction (components) *. whether and where leakages are detectable *. what actions/repairs have been taken. 4.4. in the event of malfunctions on the small foundation rig, on the basis of the manual determine which of the following actions to take: *. assess whether or not he can continue to work responsibly *. troubleshoot independently *. contact the engineer or technical service for the fault. 4.5. designate which parts of the small foundation rig daily must be maintained and which operations must be carried out. 4.6 the operation of small foundation rig systems to check. 10.2. Assessment method The theory exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions based on the test terms as described in point 10.1. The theory exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The maximum time to take the theory exam is 90 minutes. The maximum rating for the multiple choice questions is 50 points (1 point per correct answer). A candidate has passed if he has obtained 42 points or more. The result is expressed as a pass/fail. The practical exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The exam assignments must be completed within 240 minutes. The TCVT examiners instruction determines the assessment of the practical exam. The following matters will be discussed in the practical exam: General The candidate is informed which type of machine he can expect. •. Has the candidate received instruction about the machine used for the exam? •. If not, don't take an exam! •. The candidate will be told the maximum length of time for the exam. •. If the candidate is suspected of having insufficient knowledge, the examiner questions the candidate about the motivation of his choices. Machine Translated by Google •. The exam assignment will be announced in the presence of the candidate (removed from the sealed envelope). Police report The examiner must always fill in an official report, even if there are no details to mention. The CKI will not accept requests to issue the certificate of professional competence without an attached official report. The official report also states the duration of the exam taken. If the exam is completed 30 minutes or earlier than the indicated time, the reason for this must be explicitly stated in the official report. The practical exam concerns the following components: 1. get acquainted and go through the assignment 2. initial check of the small foundation rig and the associated 3. documents 4. maintenance and operation of the small foundation machine 5. lifting equipment 6. positioning on the lifting site and making the small foundation machine ready for use 7. (lifting) assignment 1 8. assist moving load 9. (lifting) assignment 2 10. leave a small foundation machine 11. safety 10.3. caesura Valuation result The result of both the theory and practical exam is expressed as pass/fail. Candidates who have not passed the theoretical or practical component or both components are entitled to a re- examination. Validity period of the result of the exam A candidate can retake the exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam, which is still qualified as insufficiently qualified, up to 6 months after obtaining a satisfactory result for his practical or theory test. In this case, the candidate can request a re-examination at most twice within the stipulated period of 6 months. After this, or after the expiry of the term, a full exam (both theory and practice) must be taken. There is no limit to the number of combined practical and theory exams. Cesuur practice Machine Translated by Google In the practical exam, a pass must be obtained for all components. Each component is assessed on the basis of an assessment protocol. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms recertification In order to be eligible for recertification as a certificate holder, it must be demonstrated that all of the following conditions have been met by the certificate holder in those five (5) years: 1. Schooling: •. Two (2) training days (4 half-days) were attended at a training institute recognized by TCVT, and •. one training day (2 half-days) is followed in the first 36 months of the five-year period, and •. the second day of training is taken after the 36th month of the five- year period, and •. During the training days, all final objectives and current developments are available with regard to this scheme, and •. of the training followed, the participant receives a certificate of participation from the TCVT recognized trainer and this is noted in the TCPR booklet. 2. Practical experience: •. in the period of five (5) years that the certificate is valid, the certificate holder must have worked for at least eight quarters in the position stated on the certificate, and •. of these eight quarters, at least two quarters must fall in the last three years of the five-year period, and •. the practical experience can be demonstrated by recording the practical experience of the certificate holder in the TCPR booklet or in the TCVT Practice Register. This practical experience must be verified and initialed by the employer at least every three months. If the holder cannot demonstrate that he has sufficient practical experience in the last five years, he can demonstrate through a practical test that he is still sufficiently competent. A practical test is taken in accordance with the requirements as laid down in this scheme. 11.2. Assessment method Recertification can be completed as follows: •. If the positive recertification decision is made within two months before the expiry date, then the expiry date is also the effective date of the renewed certificate. •. If the positive certification decision is made before the two months prior to the expiry date, the date of the certification decision is the effective date of the renewed certificate. Machine Translated by Google If due to circumstances the driver's personal certificate has expired without timely recertification and the driver still wants to obtain a personal certificate, a dispensation scheme is possible. To this end, the driver submits an application to a certification body. This application is then submitted to TCVT Werkkamer 4 Professional competence, which draws up an advice. This advice is then submitted to the certification body, which subsequently takes a decision about the (re- )issuance of the personal certificate. 11.3. Control of the registration of practical experience in recertification When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of practical experience included therein must be submitted to the certification body. The receipt is confirmed within a calendar week with a statement, with which clients can be informed about the reason for the absence of the original TCPR booklet. The certification body checks the registrations and tests whether the required practical experience is met and informs the applicant about the result within a calendar week. In addition, the certification body, whether it concerns a driver as an employee or as a self- employed driver, will pay an unannounced 5% discount when applying for recertification. carry out random checks on the reliability of the implementation of practical experience. Proper administration must be kept for the registration of practical experience. This must remain available for at least 5 years. 12. The certificate Facts •. At least the following information must be stated on the certificate: •. Name of the certified person incl. date of birth; •. Unambiguous document number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards that are tested ; •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid. Lyrics The certificate must state that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements from the field-specific certification scheme and, if relevant, whether it concerned a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. After a positive certification decision, the candidate receives within 4 Machine Translated by Google weeks a TCVT certificate and a TCPR booklet. Both documents are legal evidence. The details (including withdrawal of the certificate) of the participant are registered in the TCVT register of persons. Unregistered Below are the conditions for removal from the TCVT certificate register. Certificate holders that do not meet the requirements associated with the certificate will be removed from the register of certificate holders. The following reasons can lead to deletion from the registry: a) Not being able to demonstrate that you are working as a train driver in the professional specialization for which the certificate is valid. b) Failure to fulfill obligations towards the certification body; c) Misuse or allow the certificate to be misused; d) Providing incomplete or incorrect information to the certification institution; It proves unfit for the exercise of the certificate e) cohesive professional skills; f) Failure to meet the requirements as formulated under recertification (11). These conditions must be included in the certification agreement between the certification body and the certificate holder. Other conditions for certificate holders The holder of the certificate must prevent misuse of the certificate by third parties and report the loss of this certificate in writing to the certification body within 10 days. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate is obliged to report changes in place of residence and home address in writing to the certification body. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate must report complaints lodged against him/her by third parties, which are related to the purport of this certificate, to the certification body that issued the certificate in question. Annex XVIIh. belonging to Article 7.7, second paragraph under h, Working Conditions Regulations Field-specific certification scheme for the personal certificate Machinist Grote Foundation machine Document: WSCS-VT Machinist Large Foundation Machine CONTENT 1. PREFACE 2. DEFINITIONS Machine Translated by Google 3. Field-specific characteristics 4. Certification Regulations 5. Exam regulations 6. Supervision PART II: STANDARDS 7. Subject of certification 8. Entry criteria 9. Attainment 10. targets for testing methodology at initial certification 11. Recertification 12. The certificate 13. Validity conditions 1 Introduction This field-specific certification scheme for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of professional competence in the field of safe work by a machinist with a large foundation machine. The schedule has been established by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment. This established schedule thus replaces previous versions. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe performance of foundation and/or lifting work on construction sites with a foundation machine: •. with its own mass including equipment and foundation element equal to or •. more than 30 tons, or •. with a total height equal to or more than 10 metres, or •. that processes foundation elements equal to or longer than 10 meters. The certification system of the certification body (CKI) must be structured in accordance with the requirements of the WDAT-VT-Personen in the context of vertical transport. 2. Definitions Concept or abbreviation : Meaning Applicant for a certificate : The (legal) person who submits an application to the certification body for the issuance of a Machine Translated by Google personal certificate of competence. Note : Designation of an institution by or pursuant to statutory regulations by the Minister of Social Affairs and Employment. Rating : Assessment (initial, or re-) by the CKI on the basis of the Minister of SZW adopted WDA&T. BHST : Foundation that manages a statutory certification scheme: TCVT. Central College of : The board, part of and/ Experts (CCvD) facilitated by BHST, that offers interested parties in a certain sector or industry the opportunity to participate in the drafting and maintenance of field-specific documents in such a way that there is a balanced and representative representation of these parties. In this case the CCvD-TCVT. Central Exam : Commission within the Commission (CEC) structure of the BHST which is a central item bank develops and manages. Certificate : A certificate in the meaning of Article 20 Working Conditions Act and Article 7 Commodities Act (Article 6e Commodities Act Decree Machinery). In addition, a certificate must be considered become like a Machine Translated by Google declaration of conformity (declaration of conformity) as referred to in relevant ISO and EN standards. Certificate Holder : Person who is in possession of a valid legally required certificate. Certification Process : All activities via which a CKI assesses and decides whether a person, product or system meets and continues to comply with the standards, as included in the field-specific certification scheme. Certification Regulations : Provisions for the implementation of the certification process and the relations between candidate and CKI. Certification system : Set of procedures and resources required to carry out the certification process per certification scheme, leading to the issuance of a certificate of competence, including maintenance. Certification and : Calibration or Inspection body Conformity Assessment (CKI) g institutions such as certification bodies, user inspection services, laboratories, inspection bodies and test institutes. caesura : The boundary between the highest test score at which a fail and the lowest test score Machine Translated by Google to which a pass is awarded. Competence : Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills fit and, where relevant, demonstrated personal characteristics, as defined in the certification scheme. Check : Periodic assessment by the CKIs against the applicable rules for assessment of the Minister (WDA&T). Attainment targets : A description of the totality of knowledge, skills and attitudes of a specific field of competence for the benefit of the keys of exam candidates. Entry criteria : Criteria, such as previous education and work experience, that the candidate must meet in order to be admitted to the certification process. Exam : The whole of test assignments (test questions and/ or test assignments), intended to be able to assess the individual candidate in the extent to which he or she meets the attainment targets in accordance with the standards satisfies. Examination Committee : Commission within the structure of the CKI under whose Machine Translated by Google responsibility the exams are taken. Exam protocol : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the BHST and the examination institution. Exam regulations : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the candidate and the examination institution. Examiner's instruction : Provisions for the conduct of examinations in the relationship between the examiner and the examination institution. Foundation elements : Foundation elements can consist of material such as wood, plastic, concrete (prefabricated or cast-in-place) or steel (tubes or profiles). In addition, foundation elements may have a connecting piece to allow them to be extended. Foundation machine : Machine suitable for the following applications: – installing foundations, closing and/or retaining walls, soil bearing capacity improvements, etc. by using piles or other elongated elements; – the removal of posts or other elongated elements; – installing Machine Translated by Google drainage or injection elements. Foundation machine large: Foundation machine: – with its own mass including equipment and foundation element equal to or more than 30 tons, or – with a total height equal to or more than 10 meters, or – which processes foundation elements equal to or longer than 10 meters . Foundation machine small : Foundation machine: – with an own mass including equipment and foundation element of less than 30 tons, and – with an overall height of less than 10 metres, and – which processes foundation elements shorter than 10 metres. Last moment : The product of the load and the horizontal distance between the vertical projection of the centerline of the lifting hook and the center of the slewing ring or the point or line midway between the favorable load-side tilting line and the undercarriage support furthest from it during operation tilting line away. Risk analysis : Analysis showing motivation for choices in work field-specific problem area, to be included in the Machine Translated by Google intended certification scheme. TCPR TCVT Certification Persons Register Supervision : Gathering the information about the question whether an act or matter meets the requirements set for it, the subsequent formation of an opinion about it and the intervene if necessary. TSJ TCVT Schedule Journal: annotation on a TCVT schedule. Field of competence: field of Indication of the work, the position, or a set of tasks to which certain professional competence requirements relate. Professional competence requirements : The requirements that, within a certain field or profession, are imposed on persons with regard to their knowledge, skills and attitudes with regard to specific actions or tasks. Declaration : The EC type- examination certificate or EC declaration of conformity as referred to in or pursuant to the Machinery Directive or any other EU product directive. Field-specific : Term used by SZW certification scheme for a certification scheme that Machine Translated by Google by the minister of SZW is accepted to be used within a specific designation as CKI for persons, products or systems. WDAT-VT-Persons : Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and inspection bodies that certify persons in the frame of vertical transportation. Document: WDAT-VT-Persons. WDAT-VT Products : Field-specific document for designation and supervision (WDA&T) on the certification and mobile cranes, tower cranes and/or hoisting and lifting equipment for professional passenger transport and/ or temporary passenger (construction) lifts in the context of vertical transport. Document: WDAT-VT-Products. 3. Field-specific characteristics Lifting is a risky professional activity. In order to guarantee the social interest - safety and health of and around work - the government has opted for a legally required certification scheme for guaranteeing the professional competence of mobile crane operators. 3.1. Description scheme The WSCS-VT Machinist Large Foundation Machine was proposed by TCVT and adopted by the Ministry of Social Affairs and Employment, including any adjustments. The Minister of Social Affairs and Employment can Machine Translated by Google also make changes to the established documents on their own initiative. This established schedule supersedes previous versions. 3.2. Active parties Within the framework of this field-specific certification scheme, the following are active: •. BHST TCVT, hereinafter TCVT •. CCvD TCVT, hereinafter CCvD •. Workroom 4 TCVT professional competence 3.3. Risk analysis and risk of failure Carrying out foundation works is a risky activity. In the process of working with large foundation machines, various circumstances can be distinguished with associated specific risks: Carrying out foundation works is a high-risk activity. In the process of working with foundation rigs, various circumstances can be distinguished with associated specific risks: During assembly and disassembly During assembly and disassembly, work is generally carried out sideways from the construction site or on the construction site. A mobile crane, truck crane or wheel loader is often used. The basic machine is also used for loading, unloading and laying out the broker and/or boom parts to be mounted. There are no additional risks for the personnel and the machines involved in this work. If work is carried out within the fall range of another foundation rig, the personnel operating this machine must always inform the persons at the machine to be erected if there is an increased risk. While erecting and ironing During the erection and leveling of the machine, no other working machines or persons other than those involved in the foundation work may be present within the fall range of the machine. When laying out and moving road plates and/or dragline mats When laying out and moving ramps and/or dragline mats, no personnel and machines may be within the turning circle of the machine and the load. Only the person giving instructions to the operator is near the load and in the operator's field of vision. The machine has a higher risk, as acceleration and deceleration moments as well as skew pull can occur. Other persons and machines should be warned. It is recommended to carry out this work when (the) other machine(s) are standing still or when they operate under optimally safe working conditions. Machine Translated by Google In connection with the stability of the machine and the accessibility of the personnel, the dragline bulkheads should preferably be contiguous. When moving the machine to a (different) work location (also from pole to pole) In principle, the same applies to moving the machine to a work location (also from pile to pile) as for laying out and moving road plates and dragline mats. When lifting in and out of foundation elements and/or raw materials When lifting and hoisting foundation elements and/or raw materials, the same should be done as when laying out and moving road plates and dragline bulkheads. The lifting of foundation elements such as piles, pipes, sheet piling, reinforcement cages, etc., which usually have a large length, may only take place if persons and machines not involved in the foundation work remain outside the falling range of the foundation element. Also, other foundation machines within the fall range of the machines may not simultaneously lift foundation elements. While installing or removing foundation elements In general, this is the safest situation. During the installation or removal of foundation elements, the foundation machine is in principle in rest position. The pile driver, drill motor or vibrator is usually guided along a leader or leader which is supported on the ground (or a bulkhead). The leader or leader only serves to guide the pile driver, etc. The forces on the machine that affect the stability are stable and minimal (no acceleration and deceleration moments, no skew pull, etc.). The tipping moment has been calculated for the chosen work situation and can be regarded as safe, since no dynamic loads occur from movement(s) of the machine itself. Apart from the wind load, the machine experiences almost only static loads. While performing work with an auxiliary crane, excavator, wheel loader, etc. Work with an auxiliary crane, excavator, wheel loader, etc. is carried out in accordance with the instructions of a designated expert person, who gives clear instructions for these activities according to a previously established and discussed schedule. 1. Setup (inspection) 2. Work site condition 3. Machine instability 4. lifting 5. Foundation machines in each other's fall range Ad 1. Setup (inspection) According to Article 7.4a of the Working Conditions Decree, an (installation) inspection must be carried out by an expert at every assembly of work equipment, so also for all demountable foundation machines. A Machine Translated by Google Installation inspection must be carried out after each installation at a new location. The basic principle here is that the machine, the auxiliary equipment and the work to be performed as well as the construction site are assessed for safe execution within the set capacity requirements. This inspection can be performed by an expert to be designated by the user. An expert is a sufficiently trained and competent person who is authorized to perform inspection, testing or testing activities. The operator of the foundation rig who is in possession of the machinist's certificate for a large foundation rig can be regarded as an expert. Ad 2. Condition of the work site A flat and load-bearing building site is of great importance for accessibility and accessibility. The condition of the construction site has a direct influence on the stability of the equipment to be used, but also on the working conditions of the personnel involved. Unfortunately, accidents due to falling equipment still occur every year, sometimes even fatal. Poor working conditions also lead to neck and back complaints and complaints to the musculoskeletal system. In order to control the risks arising from poor access to building sites, a standard is first established – at the discretion of an expert – based on the measurement and assessment method in accordance with CUR/CROW/ Arbouw 2004-1. An expert is a sufficiently trained and competent person who is authorized to perform inspection, testing or testing activities. The operator of the foundation rig who is in possession of the machinist's certificate for a large foundation rig can be regarded as an expert. Ad 3. Machine instability Foundation machines generally have a high center of gravity. The stability of these machines is influenced by several factors. The stability of the subsoil is in the first place important and must be determined according to existing methods. The machine (and boom) become unstable due to the foundation work, lifting and swinging. This results in large pressure displacements through the machine. Instability can lead to the machine sinking or falling over. One of the solutions is to work on good bulkheads. In addition, overloading and working in heavy winds cause problems. Ad 4. Lifting For daily use (including lifting), maintenance and the erection and dismantling of the foundation machine, the instruction books of the machine concerned are normative. The instructions contained herein must be followed at all times Machine Translated by Google unless additional or alternative instructions are prepared by the foundation company. Lifting with the foundation machine is only permitted if the machine is equipped, secured and tested as a crane. If the machine is not equipped as a crane, lifting is only permitted for: . loading and unloading as well as mounting and dismounting equipment belonging to the machine; . unloading and transshipment of piles, sheet piles, reinforcements, etc., which machine processing; . dragline mats (max. 1 meter above ground level). Capacity tables must be available for all machine configurations where lifting is possible. Hoisting and lifting equipment Approved and certified means with which a load is attached to a hoisting or lifting device for hoisting or lifting loads. Examples of lifting equipment are: shackles, chains, wire rope slings, lifting straps, lifting beams and clamps. Lifting slings may be used in cases where sufficient rounding is present (such as pipes) and where it is sufficiently demonstrated that no overload occurs. Lifting steel pipes, steel profiles and sheet piles Only the following methods are permitted for lifting steel pipes, steel profiles and sheet piling: . A string growl, which is wrapped around the element and against sliding is secured by means of a welded-on retaining strip or a retaining lock clamped on the sheet pile lock or a sling with foot hook that runs to the foot of the element. . A sling with a fixed steel protective bracket that goes through a hole in the top of the element and attached to a valve hook or closure. . A Quick Release Shackle (QRS = remote controlled closure) attached to the element is secured through a hole in the top of the element and suspended from a valve hook or closure. This QRS must never remain attached to the element during pile driving or vibrating. A QRS is unsuitable for working in combination with a switched on vibrator. It must be ensured that the element is secured at all times. Positioning a pile under the foundation machine Lifting a pile lying on the ground to the vertical position under the block involves safety risks. The load can fall or fall over due to an incorrect working method or the collapse of lifting equipment. This applies to both concrete piles and other elongated foundation elements that are placed under the pile driver and that are only enclosed at the top by the cap. Machine Translated by Google The pile hoist must be able to take the weight of the pile plus the weight of the pile driver and cap, unless there are provisions to prevent the occurrence of these loads. In that case, the pile driver can be deposited on the pile and the combined weight can be controlled with the pile hoist. The method of slinging and striking is very precise. For lifting piles etc. from the horizontal position to the vertical position under the pile driver, vibratory hammer etc., the use of chains is not permitted. As a rule, a pile/elongated foundation element is lifted with two hoists (pole hoist and point hoist respectively). When lifting, oblique strip pull must be prevented. Lifting of dragline mats Because foundation machines often stand on dragline bulkheads, these bulkheads can sink into the ground. The lifting eyes are therefore difficult to reach. Lifting with hooks with safety valves can be problematic. Therefore, lifting with open hooks is permitted in these cases, provided that it is not higher than 1 meter above ground level. Ad 5. Foundation machines in each other's fall range Working machines and people in each other's immediate vicinity always leads to an increased risk. It is always safer if these situations are avoided. Nevertheless, it cannot always be prevented that economic and/or planned circumstances lead to the choice of a working method, where such situations are necessary or even unavoidable. If the following measures are taken in such situations, working within the fall range of foundation rigs, but also working with cranes and mobile cranes, where there is a danger of tipping over, can be reduced to an acceptable risk. The risks must be recognised, recorded in a TRA (task/risk analysis), discussed with those involved and corresponding measures (in particular, working level) taken to reduce the risk of falling over, knocking, etc. to almost nil. The foundation company must instruct its personnel clearly and record the aforementioned risks and recommendations for the prevention of hazards in work instructions. 4. Certification Regulations 4.1. Objective These regulations describe the procedures that are relevant for the correct application of the specific scheme. This includes procedures for application, examination, the way in which the result is announced and conditions with regard to certification, the issue of certificates/declarations, procedures for carrying out inspections, handling complaints and submitting a complaint. request for review. Machine Translated by Google 4.2. Certification procedure The candidate operator of a large piling rig must submit an application to a CKI, in accordance with these certification regulations, for the personal certificate of a large piling rig operator. The CKI then provides all relevant information about the state of affairs in the entire certification process. 4.3. Certification decision The certification decision is taken by an officer of the CKI who has not been involved in the assessment of the candidates and who has been qualified and appointed for this purpose in accordance with the quality system and the procedures that the certification body has on the basis of the field-specific scheme for designation and supervision. 4.4. Validity period of the certificate. The maximum period of validity of a personal certificate is 5 years. Earlier withdrawal is possible if the certificate holder has not met the requirements with regard to mastering the attainment targets referred to under 9. (for conditions, see 4.5). 4.5. Validity conditions Conditions are set with regard to the validity of the certificate. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. These conditions are: . the certificate holder may not perform any actions contrary to the regulations; . the certificate holder must ensure that no misuse is made of the personal certificate. The CKI is authorized to suspend and/or revoke the certificate. The conditions and the way in which they must be supervised by the CKI are drawn up by the CCvD and recorded in the TCVT protocol 'suspension/withdrawal'. 4.6. Complaints procedure Complaints about the CKI An adequate handling of complaints is important for creating trust in certification and important for the protection of both certificate holders and certificate users. The following requirements are set for a CKI: Machine Translated by Google A publicly accessible complaints procedure must be in place. •. the complaints procedure contains at least the following: a description of the process of receiving, investigating and assessing the complaint; the manner of following up on the complaint and subsequent actions; and how to ensure corrective actions are taken. •. The decision on how to respond to the complaint should be made by persons not involved in the subject matter of the complaint. •. Complainants should, if possible, be informed of the receipt of the complaint, the progress of the handling and the outcome. Complaints about the company or person If the CKI receives complaints from third parties, such as a client, about compliance with this schedule by the company or person who has applied for the certificate or is a certificate holder, the CKI must refer the complainant to the company or person. The CKI must include the complaint in the next assessment at the company or person concerned. However, if in the opinion of the CKI it concerns a serious complaint, the CKI must, in addition to the handling by the company or the person, also directly assess whether the complaint should have consequences for the decision regarding certification. In that case, the CKI must consider whether it is desirable to carry out an additional assessment. In principle, the costs of this extra assessment are for the account of the certificate holder. Complaints procedure Introduction The handling of a complaint is discussed in this work instruction. A separate complaint form is completed for each individual complaint. Method When someone tries to report a complaint by telephone or verbally, they are asked to express it in writing. If a complaint is received in writing, it is immediately taken to the quality manager and if the complaint handler is clear, he/she immediately receives a copy of the complaint. The quality manager registers the complaint on a complaint form and informs the director of the CKI of the complaint. The director of the CKI appoints the complaint handler. The quality manager mentions the complaint handler on the complaint form and informs the complaint handler of the complaint in writing. The complaint handler will inform the complainant in writing about the receipt of the complaint. Machine Translated by Google Simple matters Complaint handler forwards complaint to company/person concerned; informs the submitter submits the file for monitoring progress and taking along the handling of the complaint by the company/ person at the next assessment. Serious complaints Complaint handler assesses the complaint and determines whether the complaint concerns an incident or whether the complaint must lead to an adjustment in the working method. If it concerns an incident, the submitter will be informed. The complaint handler, together with the person submitting the complaint, will come up with a solution for the settlement within three weeks of submitting the complaint and will involve the company/person in this. The solution as discussed with the submitter is recorded on the complaint form. It also states that this is an incident. If the complaint requires an adjustment of the working method, the complaint handler will come up with an improvement proposal within 10 days and discuss this with the quality manager and involve the company/person in this. The improvement proposal must entail a structural improvement of the working method. The improvement proposal is completed on the complaint form. The complaint handler will inform the submitter of the handling of the complaint. The quality manager announces the changed working method. If necessary, the quality manager starts a follow-up investigation into the implementation of the improvement proposal. The findings are recorded on the complaint form. The complaint form is archived. 4.7. Objection procedure Introduction The steps required for handling an objection are described below. Such a notice of objection can, for example, be submitted against decisions by the CKI regarding the non-granting, suspension or revocation of a certificate. Method General: •. A decision taken by or on behalf of the CKI, that is a final result or final judgment, shall be notified to the interested party in writing. •. A decision also includes refusing to decide whether the not making a decision in time. Machine Translated by Google •. The CKI informs the interested party in its correspondence of the possibility of submitting a notice of objection by means of the following clause: 'Under the CKI procedure 'objection procedure', an interested party can submit a notice of objection with regard to this decision. To this end, an objection must be submitted to the CKI within six weeks of the date on which the decision was sent. The notice of objection must state the reasons why the decision given is not found to be correct. It is requested that a copy of the contested decision be attached to the notice of objection.' •. The notice of objection must in any case contain the following elements: . name and address of submitter . date . a description of the contested decision . the grounds of the objection. The objection is declared inadmissible: •. if the deadline for submission is not met. This does not apply if the submitter demonstrates that he has not reasonably been in default •. in cases other than those referred to under a, if the opportunity offered by the CKI to rectify absenteeism is not used •. the objection is further declared inadmissible if, in the absence of application of a time limit, is submitted unreasonably late. This only applies if the objection relates to the failure to take a decision on time. •. The notice of objection does not suspend the effect of the decision. •. The notice of objection leads to reconsideration of the decision it is against directed. Procedure •. The CKI takes note of the notice of objection and confirms within two weeks the reception. •. The CKI offers the opportunity to hear the applicant. •. The notice of objection is reported to the quality manager who registers. •. The hearing mainly concerns the professional aspects that have led to to the decision and must in principle take place within six weeks after it has been established that a hearing procedure is in order. •. The hearing may be conducted by the CKI or by one or more experts appointed by the CKI. The hearing is conducted by a person or persons who is/have not been involved in the preparation of the decision, and who have no connection with the interested party. •. The hearing takes place at a time to be determined by the CKI within the normal office hours. •. Relevant documents can be received up to 10 days before the hearing submitted and are available for inspection during one week before the hearing. •. The hearing will be waived if the request for review is manifestly inadmissible or manifestly unfounded, if the request has meanwhile been complied with, or if the interested party declares not to make use of this. Machine Translated by Google •. A report is made of the hearing. The report is accompanied by the decision to the appeal for review. •. The hearing committee also provides advice to the CKI. Decision on the notice of objection •. The CKI decides on the basis of the information available to it within six weeks, calculated from the day after the date on which the term for submitting the notice of objection has expired. The decision period can be extended once by a maximum of 6 weeks. Thereafter, the term may only be extended with the consent of the interested party. •. If the objection is declared well-founded, the CKI will make the decision revoke and make a new decision. •. The CKI will provide the substantiation and to communicate justification to interested parties. administrative judge •. If the content or purport of the new decision gives cause to do so, he must, where appropriate, turn to the administrative court. •. In its decision on the objection, the CKI will point out this possibility. 4.8. Register of professional competence The CKI registers the details of the certificate holder. In accordance with the agreement with TCVT, this data is sent electronically at least as often as changes occur sent to Bureau TCVT for the purpose of the TCVT Persons Register, which is set up in accordance with legal provisions. This register has been made accessible via the Internet. The BHST is responsible for managing the register. 4.9. Norm Interpretation The CCvD must ensure an unambiguous standard interpretation of this certification scheme. Nevertheless, it is possible that during the operational phase there are different interpretations of one or more terms used in field-specific certification schemes. If it happens that certificate holders, CKIs or other stakeholders use divergent definitions and there are differences of opinion about this, then different interpretations must be submitted to the CCvD. 5. Exam Regulations These regulations contain provisions for the preparation, execution and assessment of exams for the TCVT personal certificate operator large foundation rig 5.1. Objective •. The examination takes place under the responsibility of the CKI and consists of: from the following parts: Machine Translated by Google •. theory exam, and practical exam 5.2. The exam institution The examination institution must adhere to the examination regulations. This includes the following: Hospitalized: 1. effective date of the certificate; 2. any entrance requirements for taking the exam; 3. the application procedure at the CKI; 4. confirmation of participation and call; 5. identification of the participants; 6. admission and absence; 7. exam duration and method of examination; 8. rules of conduct for candidates; 9. adjusted exam arrangement; 10. pass and fail standards; 11. announcement of the result by the CKI to the candidate; 12. retention period of the exam documents such as answers and assessment forms; 13. right of inspection; 14. validity period of the exam result. If the examination institution is not an organizational part of the CKI, both have committed themselves by means of an agreement. In doing so, the CKI must adhere to Article 4.5 'subcontracting' of NEN- EN-ISO/IEC 17024:2012. The CKI is obliged to report to the BHST that exams are taken by an external examination institution and which institution it concerns. 5.3. Requirements to be imposed on the examination staff Examination staff must meet the general, professional and independence requirements of the CKI as included in competency profiles and other relevant documents. The selection process must guarantee that exam personnel who take (part of) an exam at least meet the requirements as formulated in the TCVT exam protocol (www.tcvt.nl). Supervisor theory exam A supervisor is appointed by the examination institution for the theory exam. This officer does not require specific knowledge of the field. The supervisor does have: •. organizational capabilities; •. communication and interpersonal skills; •. the ability to control and act decisively. Machine Translated by Google The supervisor is expected to: •. supervises compliance with and implementation of the examination regulations, the implementing regulations and the examination requirements; •. correctly handles the established administrative procedures; •. makes himself sufficiently available for the supervision of the purchase of theory exams. A supervisor performs the following tasks: •. checking the candidate's personal details and registrations; •. checking and subsequently preparing the theory exam so that the candidate can start immediately after the start of the exam; •. exercising supervision in order to prevent abuse; •. taking the exam papers and preparing them for dispatch; •. the delivery of the total package to the examination institution. Corrector theory exam: A corrector is appointed by the examination institution to assess the written elaboration of the open questions of the theory exam. The corrector meets the following qualification criteria: •. he/she masters the Dutch language (or the language in which the exam is taken (German and/or English); •. he has up-to-date professional knowledge and insight; •. he fits the assessment criteria, as laid down in the TCVT certification scheme. The corrector assesses the elaborations of the theory exams within the TCVT answer macros and the set term and attaches a mark to this according to the methodology as laid down in the relevant TCVT certification scheme. Examiner practical exam An examiner is appointed by the examination institution for the practical exam. The examiner is charged with assessing whether, and to what extent, the candidate's knowledge, skills and attitude meet the requirements for passing the exam. To this end, the examiner applies the TCVT examiner's instruction during the assessment. In the case of an examination with more than one examiner, one of the examiners is designated as chairman and in that capacity is responsible for the orderly conduct of the examination and its settlement. The examiner has: •. at least two years of practical work experience in the relevant field; •. up-to-date practical and theoretical knowledge of the relevant field; •. good communicative skills; •. the ability to act decisively; Machine Translated by Google •. sufficient knowledge of the examination regulations. The examiner is expected to: •. understands the influence that an exam situation has on the behavior of the candidates; •. is able to create an optimal climate for the candidate, so that knowledge and acquired experience, insight, skills and attitude are displayed as effectively as possible; •. properly deal with the candidates and all other persons who be present at the exam functionally; •. provides an objective assessment of the knowledge and understanding of the candidate; •. strictly observes the regulations for each examination component to apply; •. annually attends the TCVT examiners day; •. representatively represents the examination institution during the exam and ensures a correct course. For each certification scheme, the examiner must be an expert nominated by the examination institute and accepted by the certification institute. Independence The examination staff is independent. All examination staff signs a statement in which confidentiality and independence are guaranteed and in which they declare that they will not perform any work for or for a trainer. It declares itself independent of the candidate and any trainer/employer of the candidate. Should it become apparent during the examination that a relationship, of whatever nature, exists between the candidate and the relevant examination staff member, the examiner must report this to the examination institution in good time. Under no circumstances is it permitted for the relevant examiner to examine this candidate under penalty of invalidity of the exam. If examination staff has a potential conflict of interest in examining a candidate, the CKI must take steps to ensure that the reliability and impartiality of the examination are not discredited. These measures must be recorded. 5.4. Requirements for the exam 5.4.1. Restriction of exams Employees of the certification/examination institution are responsible for the absolute confidentiality of the examination papers, insofar as these are not part of a public standard. Verification and implementation of this must be done by the certification body. Employees of the examination institute have signed a confidentiality statement. Machine Translated by Google 5.4.2. General rules when conducting exams The theory exam is taken in writing and in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam to a person aged 18 and over. If there are valid reasons for an oral theory exam in the Dutch language (for example for candidates who are demonstrably dyslexic), the certification body may decide to do so. This alternative must meet the same conditions as the regular theory exam and the CEC must agree to this. The written oral exam is taken by an examiner and a supervisor additionally authorized by the CKI. The examination institution must keep a record of this alternative administration with a (minimum annual) report to the CEC. The practical exam is taken in the Dutch language. If the candidate has insufficient command of Dutch, an alternative theory exam in German or English can be taken. The certificate is issued in accordance with the language of the exam. The candidate must be able to communicate adequately during the exam. For the other requirements for the exam (location, resources, etc) reference is made to the TCVT exam protocol. 6. Supervision The purpose of supervision is to guarantee the professional competence of certified personnel. The CKI is obliged to assess whether the certificate holder meets the requirements. The supervision is completed depending on the subject of certification, the period of certification and the risk analysis. 6.1. Cooperation with supervision The certificate holder is obliged to cooperate with supervision by the CKI, the TCVT recognized training institute for further training, the national accreditation body and the Inspectorate SZW. The necessary provisions for this are included in the agreement between the CKI and the certificate holder. 6.2. Frequency of supervision When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of the practical experience and the training must be submitted to the CKI. The receipt will be confirmed within one calendar week (this confirmation is proof to clients regarding the absence of the TCPR booklet). The CKI checks the registration and tests whether the requirements of training and practical experience are met. The applicant will be informed about this within one calendar week. In addition, the CKI carries out, unannounced, a 5% random check on the reliability of the implementation of the training and practical experience. For the registration of the training and the Machine Translated by Google practical experience, proper administration must be kept by the CKI. This administration must remain available for at least five years. 6.3. The manner in which the supervision is carried out At the time of training (2 times in a period of 5 years), the TCVT recognized training institute assesses each TCPR booklet with regard to training and practical experience. If a certificate holder no longer meets the requirements, the CKI will be notified of this within three working days. 6.4. Report of findings The CKI is obliged to make its findings with regard to 6.2 known to the certificate holder within two calendar weeks. 6.5. Measures (Article 1.5e Working Conditions Decree) If it appears that a certificate holder does not meet the requirements or standards in the professional field-specific certification scheme, this will result in measures by the CKI in the shortest possible time. Possible measures include refusing, suspending or revoking the certificate. The CKI must exchange information with the Inspectorate SZW about identified dangerous situations during activities that are regulated by an issued or yet to be issued certificate and that could endanger the safety or health of employees or third parties. If there is a sanction, this will be made known to the certificate holder. Relevant information about the sanction must be entered by the CKI in a central registration system. This notification obligation must be elaborated in detail, in connection with the confidentiality of personal data and the contractual relationship between CKI and the customer. If a certificate holder wishes to be re-certified after a withdrawal, the same procedure must be followed as for initial certification. When imposing a sanction, the CKI must indicate (and register) the period after which certification is allowed again. Before issuing a certificate, the CKI must verify with the central registration system whether there has been a withdrawal with the associated waiting period. Criteria The CKI must in any case conduct an investigation after submitting a complaint regarding the working method of the certificate holder: •. from the SZW Inspectorate; •. from the market, submitted to TCVT and/or the CKI. Criteria on the basis of which the CKI must take measures are the following. Machine Translated by Google 1. The certificate will be suspended if a complaint has been declared well-founded by the CKI. This concerns a complaint other than: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. 2. The certificate will be revoked if there is a complaint that has been declared well- founded by the CKI regarding: •. illegally filling in the TCPR booklet, and/or •. about unsafe behavior by the driver as a result of which the driver and/or third parties are directly endangered. Part II: Standards Part 2 of this certification scheme contains the standards that apply to a certificate for professional competence in a professional field. Described is successively: •. the subject of certification, •. entrance criteria that are set to be admitted to the certification process, •. the attainment targets that apply to the certificate, •. the way in which compliance with the learning outcomes is assessed and reported, •. the assessment that takes place during recertification, •. requirements for the certificate, •. validity conditions. 7. Subject of Certification This WSCS for persons has been drawn up by the CCvD-TCVT. It concerns certification of safe lifting by a large foundation machine operator. The professional competence to be certified concerns the safe performance of foundation and/or lifting work on construction sites with a foundation machine: •. with its own mass including equipment and foundation element equal to or more than 30 tons, or •. with a total height equal to or more than 10 metres, or •. that processes foundation elements equal to or longer than 10 meters. This is about: •. safe handling of the load; •. safely position large foundation rigs (stability, environment, substrate); •. allow large foundation rigs to function safely (construction, foundation/lifting, dismantling, closing); •. large foundation rig in safe and technically good condition; •. work safely and healthily with the large foundation rig. 8. Entry Criteria Machine Translated by Google The following is a summary of the requirements for the first issue of the legally required personal certificate for the operator of a large foundation rig. The candidate must meet the following entry criteria: •. have sufficient material knowledge; •. have sufficient material knowledge; •. possess machine sense; •. be able to work safely and in an environmentally responsible manner; •. master the Dutch language at reading knowledge level A1 and writing knowledge level B2 or equivalent for examination in German or English language; •. have the Foundation Worker certificate, consisting of the certificates A 'Working on foundations' and B 'Foundation techniques' and/or the certificate 'Machinist large foundation machine' and/or Heier I/Foundation worker'. 9. Attainment targets The candidate meets the following attainment targets and is therefore competent: Theory 1. The candidate can understand the various preparations for working with a describe and apply large foundation rigs 1.1 The candidate can describe which preparations must be made in the workplace (outside) prior to working with a large foundation rig. 1.2. The candidate can apply the data from a capacity table. 1.3. The candidate can describe how in a safe way work with a large foundation machine. 1.4. The candidate can assess whether the work plan drawn up complies with the safety requirements set and, if necessary, have the plan adjusted on his instructions. 1.5. The candidate can carry out an installation inspection. 2. The candidate can perform work with a large foundation machine 2.1 The candidate can handle different types of large foundation rigs name and describe its characteristics and applications. 2.2. The candidate can explain the function and operation of the main parts of the large foundation rig. 2.3. The candidate can disassemble, prepare, load, unload, assemble and build large foundation machines. 2.4. The candidate can recognize and name lifting tools and equipment and describe their application. 2.5. The candidate can recognize the different foundation techniques and apply. 2.6. The candidate knows his responsibility with regard to the work plan and its administrative obligations. 2.7. The candidate can assess how a large foundation rig is moved. 3. The candidate is able to name and interpret the safety and environmental aspects of working with a large foundation rig Machine Translated by Google 3.1 The candidate can meet the safety requirements of the major Interpret foundation rig, lifting load and lifting equipment. 3.2 The candidate can name the safety systems of the large foundation rig. The candidate can explain how with and with a large 3.3 foundation rig works in an environmentally responsible manner. 3.4 The candidate can describe how a large foundation machine after the work is left behind. 3.5 The candidate has knowledge of fall and entrapment hazards and precautionary actions. 3.6 The candidate has knowledge of exposure risks from hazardous substances and noise and preventive measures. 3.7 The candidate knows the risks of electrical cables and hydraulic, pneumatic and fluid lines. 3.8 The candidate has knowledge of the danger of collapse of the environment and precautionary actions. 3.9 The candidate has knowledge of the stability of the large foundation machine, of the subsoil and the associated preventive measures. 4. The candidate is able to recognize, interpret and name maintenance and failure aspects of the large foundation rig 4.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance is carried out on a large foundation machine. 4.2 The candidate is able to describe how failures to a large foundation machine can be recognized and describe how it is handled. Practice 5. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior working with a large foundation machine 5.1 The candidate can assess the condition of the job site. 5.2 The candidate can test the proposed working method against safety and environmental aspects and adjust the working method if necessary. 5.3 The candidate can carry out an installation inspection. 5.4 The candidate can recognize, name and check lifting equipment on safety requirements. 6. The candidate can perform work with a large foundation machine 6.1 The candidate can attach lifting equipment to foundation elements and tools. 6.2 The candidate can independently build a large foundation machine move and, if necessary, stamp and/or anchor. 6.3 In the event of unexpected circumstances, the candidate can take measures during the execution of the foundation work. 6.4 The candidate is able to disassemble, prepare, load, unload and assemble large foundation machines. 7. The candidate can understand the safety and environmental aspects of working with a naming and applying large foundation rigs Machine Translated by Google 7.1 The candidate can apply safety measures when working with and on a large foundation machine. 7.2 The candidate can leave a large foundation rig after the work according to company regulations. 7.4 The candidate has knowledge of fall and entrapment hazards and knows how to apply preventive measures 7.5 The candidate has knowledge of exposure risks from hazardous substances and noise and knows how to take preventive measures. 7.6 The candidate knows the risks of electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic and fluid pipes and knows how to take preventive measures. 7.7 The candidate has knowledge of the danger of collapse of the environment and knows how to take preventive measures. 7.8 The candidate has knowledge of the stability of the large foundation machine, of the subsoil and the associated preventive measures. 8. The candidate can understand maintenance and failure aspects of the large foundation recognize, interpret and name a machine 8.1 The candidate can describe how and what daily maintenance is carried out on a large foundation machine. 8.2. The candidate is able to describe how failures to a large foundation machine can be recognized and in relation to this describe how to act. 8.3. The candidate can perform daily checks and maintenance on a large foundation machine. 8.4. The candidate can recognize malfunctions by a large foundation machine and take measures. 10. testing methodology for initial certification 10.1. Key terms Each final term is elaborated in test terms. These test criteria are arranged in the diagrams below per final term. The total number of questions per test term is indicated below. Explanation of question code: *. FK = a question of factual knowledge *. BK = a question of conceptual knowledge *. RV = a question of reproductive skills *. PV = a demand for productive skills Test terms theory operator large foundation rig + number of mandatory questions 1. The candidate can describe which preparations in the workplace must be taken prior to working with a large foundation rig. RV-1, FK-2, BK-5 1.1 The candidate can identify the characteristics of the common species call ground. Machine Translated by Google 1.2 The candidate can explain why, when setting up a large foundation machine, he takes into account circumstances such as the bearing capacity of the substrate or floor, work in a limited space, the presence of third parties, the method of stamping or anchoring, etc. 1.3 The candidate can read a capacity table of a large Interpreting a foundation rig. 1.4 The candidate can draw up a work plan and the associated assess administrative burdens on the basis of safety requirements. 1.5 The candidate can make and assess an installation inspection. 2. The candidate can perform work with a large foundation machine. RV-6, FK-4, BK-10 2.1 The candidate can recognize foundation rigs and the operation of describe the main components. 2.2 The candidate can name when changes in the stability, loading and tipping moment of a large foundation rig can occur. 2.3 The candidate can determine the consequences of changes in the stability, load and tipping moment of a large foundation rig. 2.4 The candidate has knowledge of (dis)assembling and moving large foundation machines The candidate can recognize lifting equipment and equipment and 2.5 appoint. 2.6 The candidate can recognize and describe the foundation techniques. 3. The candidate can describe how in a safe and environmentally responsible way work can be carried out with a large foundation machine. RV-2, FK-3, BK-10 3.1 The candidate can explain why the given safety aspects must be met. 3.2 The candidate can determine in which situation which personal protective equipment must be worn. 3.3 Given the density of the materials, the candidate can find the mass calculate. 3.4 Given a situation, the candidate can determine risks and measures with regard to the shape, construction, composition and special properties of loads. 3.5 The candidate can determine in a given situation: *. whether a large foundation machine can be moved packed become *. whether a large foundation machine can be driven built up be with or without load *. whether a road, terrain or floor is suitable to drive on *. whether a large foundation rig can drive over different types of terrain (indicating the correct drive) 3.6. The candidate can describe how to drive in accordance with the conditions and settings mentioned in the user manual. 3.7. The candidate can define the following concepts: * stability * tipping moment Machine Translated by Google * * stamp base lifting equipment * * tilt line and lifting equipment tilt angle * stability moment * workload * load moment * flight 3.8. The candidate is able to operate and inspect large foundation rigs and the associated lifting equipment interpret the legal obligations and describe the scope of these legal obligations. 3.9. The candidate can explain what he needs to do with lifting equipment to check. 3.10. The candidate can understand the function and content of the crane book with accompanying documents. 3.11. The candidate can name parts of the protection system of a large foundation machine. 3.12 The candidate is able to explain which safeguards on the large foundation machine must be present and what its function is. 3.13 The candidate is able to interpret environmental and safety regulations that he must apply when moving environmentally harmful substances. 3.14 The candidate can explain why environmentally responsible working of importance. 3.15 The candidate can name the measures that apply to the leaving behind a large foundation rig. 4. The candidate can describe how and on what daily maintenance of a large foundation machine. FK-2, BK-6 4.1 The candidate can carry out the daily maintenance of the large Describe foundation machine. 4.2 The candidate can state which cleaning work must be carried out on the large foundation machine. 4.3 The candidate can describe how malfunctions on a large foundation machine can be recognized and how to act. The candidate can summarize how to perform a fault diagnosis 4.4 parts of a large foundation rig. 4.5 The candidate understands how, given the nature of the malfunction, should be ie: *. stop work *. self-repair of the malfunction *. enable technical service 4.6. The candidate can explain how he can identify impermissible wear and tear on parts of the large foundation rig. 4.7. The candidate can list what is stated in a malfunction report must be. Practice Machine Translated by Google Attainment targets See activities The candidate can: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 5. the preparations X X X X X X in the workplace prior to working with a large foundation rig. 6. work X X X X to be carried out with a large foundation machine. 7. safety and X X X X X environmental aspects of working with the small name foundation machine. 8. maintenance and X X X X X naming failure aspects of the large foundation rig The practical exam consists of the following activities: 1. Go through assignment 6. Practice foundation assignments 2. Initial check of the 7. Assisting the load machine (visual) move 3. Maintenance of the 8. machine 4. Control and inspection 9. Leave machine lifting equipment Set up and 5. make ready for use of large foundation rig The table provides an overview of the distribution of the attainment targets over the activities of the practical exams for the operator of a large foundation rig. Because final objectives Machine Translated by Google If they are subdivided into test criteria, an attainment target is often divided over several activities. As a result, an attainment target is usually not covered by an activity. Explanation of codes: *. RV-X = Reproductive Skills Assignment *. PV-X = Productive Skills Assignment 5. The candidate can make preparations in the workplace prior to working with a large foundation rig RV-10, PV-1 5.1 carry out a work plan taking into account: *. location and dimensions of the location(s) *. position and dimensions of the obstacles *. dimensions, shape, mass and center of gravity of the load *. type, dimensions, shape and mass of the lifting equipment. 5.2. checking the legally required documents. 5.3. cordon off the work area. 5.4. consult with the supervisor (examiner) about the work, ao about: *. the nature of the foundation work *. the location of underground cables and pipes 5.5. on the basis of the environmental factors the terrain conditions determine: *. the location of overhead and underground pipes *. the location and dimensions of obstacles *. the presence of people and traffic on and next to the work area 5.6. determine the choice and type of lifting equipment. 5.7. attach attachments and equipment to the large foundation rig. 5.8. determine the following data from a lifting table of a large foundation rig: *. the flight *. the lifting height *. the workload in relation to flight and/or altitude. 5.9. set up the large foundation rig safely and in accordance with the operating instructions, taking environmental factors into account. 5.10. Check that the correct warning signs or signs are on and around the machine are fitted. 5.11. determine the manner of execution of the work. 6. The candidate can perform work with a large foundation machine RV-13, 6.1 Carry out work with the large foundation rig. legally required hand and semaphore signals and to 6.2 receive the appropriate hand and arm signals. 6.3 on the basis of shape, mass and material of the load to be lifted the Select the necessary lifting equipment. 6.4 check the lifting equipment for: Machine Translated by Google *. the display of the permitted workload on the lifting equipment *. visual damage or defects *. presence of a CE marking, certificate and inspection report 6.5. check the lifting table and determine whether the large foundation rig can perform work. 6.6. topping and topping a load with the large foundation machine. 6.7. place a load in a target with the large foundation rig. 6.8. a load between obstacles with the large foundation machine maneuver. 6.9. control a pendulum movement with the large foundation machine. 6.10. attach lifting tools to the crane hook and bear a burden on it. 6.11. preparing the large foundation machine for road use. 6.12. independently move the large foundation rig at the exam location. 6.13. after the work has been completed, leave the large foundation rig in the correct manner in accordance with the legal regulations. 7. The candidate can work safely and in an environmentally responsible manner with the large foundation rig RV-2 7.1 the candidate can observe safety measures when working with the large foundation machine 8. The candidate can recognize malfunctions on a large foundation machine and take action, as well as perform maintenance RV-5, PV-1 8.1 drawing up a fault diagnosis on main components based on the operating instructions, based on visual and auditory checks on the systems of a large foundation rig. 8.2 demonstrate how (small) malfunctions on the large foundation machine can be remedied. way that they report get malfunctions an unambiguous to a mechanic and clearorpicture the technical of the malfunction. service 8.3 in This such by ato to give: *. what the failure of or where in the system is *. what is visually observable in the machine construction (components) *. whether and where leakages are detectable *. what actions/repairs have been taken. 8.4. in the event of malfunctions on the large foundation rig on the basis of the manual determine which of the following actions to take: *. assess whether or not he can continue to work responsibly *. troubleshoot independently *. contact the engineer or technical service for the fault. 8.5. indicate which parts of the large foundation rig daily must be maintained and which operations must be carried out. 8.6. the operation of systems of the large foundation rig to check. Machine Translated by Google 10.2. Assessment method The theory exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions based on the test terms as described in point 10.1. The theory exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The maximum time to take the theory exam is 90 minutes. The maximum rating for the multiple choice questions is 50 points (1 point per correct answer). A candidate has passed if he has obtained 42 points or more. The result is expressed as a pass/fail. The practical exam is provided exclusively from the TCVT item bank. The exam assignments must be completed within 240 minutes. The TCVT examiners instruction determines the assessment of the practical exam. The following matters will be discussed in the practical exam: General The candidate is informed which type of machine he can expect. •. Has the candidate received instruction about the machine used for the exam? If not, don't take an exam! •. The candidate will be told the maximum length of time for the exam. •. If the candidate is suspected of having insufficient knowledge, the examiner questions the candidate about the motivation of his choices. •. The exam assignment will be announced in the presence of the candidate (removed from the sealed envelope). Police report The examiner must always fill in an official report, even if there are no details to mention. The CKI will not accept requests to issue the certificate of professional competence without an attached official report. The official report also states the duration of the exam taken. If the exam is completed 30 minutes or earlier than the indicated time, the reason for this must be explicitly stated in the official report. The practical exam concerns the following components: 1. get acquainted and go through the assignment initial check of the large foundation rig and the associated 2. documents 3. maintenance and operation of the large foundation rig 4. lifting equipment 5. positioning on the lifting site and making the large foundation machine ready for use (lifting) assignment 1 7. 6. assist moving load 8. (lifting) assignment 2 9. leave a large foundation machine 10. safety Machine Translated by Google 10.3. caesura Valuation result The result of both the theory and practical exam is expressed as pass/fail. Candidates who have not passed the theoretical or practical component or both components are entitled to a re-examination. The requirements as set out in Article 4.2 . apply here Validity period of the result of the exam A candidate can retake the exam for the theoretical or practical part of the exam, which is still qualified as insufficiently qualified, up to 6 months after obtaining a satisfactory result for his practical or theory test. In this case, the candidate can request a re-examination at most twice within the stipulated period of 6 months. After this, or after the expiry of the term, a full exam (both theory and practice) must be taken. There is no limit to the number of combined practical and theory exams. Cesuur practice In the practical exam, a pass must be obtained for all components. Each component is assessed on the basis of an assessment protocol. 11. Recertification 11.1. Test terms recertification In order to be eligible for recertification as a certificate holder, it must be demonstrated that all of the following conditions have been met by the certificate holder in those five (5) years: 1. Schooling: •. Two (2) training days (4 half-days) were attended at a training institute recognized by TCVT, and •. one training day (2 half-days) is followed in the first 36 months of the five-year period, and •. the second day of training is taken after the 36th month of the five-year period, and •. During the training days, all final objectives and current developments are available with regard to this scheme, and •. of the training followed, the participant receives a certificate of participation from the TCVT recognized trainer and this is noted in the TCPR booklet. 2. Practical experience: •. in the period of five (5) years that the certificate is valid, the certificate holder must have worked for at least eight quarters in the position stated on the certificate, and Machine Translated by Google •. of these eight quarters, at least two quarters must fall in the last three years of the five-year period, and •. the practical experience can be demonstrated by recording the practical experience of the certificate holder in the TCPR booklet or in the TCVT Practice Register. This practical experience must be verified and initialed by the employer at least every three months. If the holder cannot demonstrate that he has sufficient practical experience in the last five years, he can demonstrate through a practical test that he is still sufficiently competent. A practical test is taken in accordance with the requirements as laid down in this scheme. 11.2. Assessment method Recertification can be completed as follows: •. If the positive recertification decision is made within two months before the expiry date, then the expiry date is also the effective date of the renewed certificate. •. If the positive certification decision is made before the two months prior to the expiry date, the date of the certification decision is the effective date of the renewed certificate. If due to circumstances the driver's personal certificate has expired without timely recertification and the driver still wants to obtain a personal certificate, a dispensation scheme is possible. To this end, the driver submits an application to a certification body. This application is then submitted to TCVT Werkkamer 4 Professional competence, which draws up an advice. This advice is then submitted to the certification body, which takes a subsequent decision about the (re)granting of the personal certificate. 11.3. Control of the registration of practical experience in recertification When applying for recertification, the original TCPR booklet with the records of practical experience included therein must be submitted to the certification body. The receipt is confirmed within a calendar week with a statement, with which clients can be informed about the reason for the absence of the original TCPR booklet. The certification body checks the registrations and tests whether the required practical experience is met and informs the applicant about the result within a calendar week. In addition, the certification body, whether it concerns a driver as an employee or as a self- employed driver, will pay an unannounced 5% discount when applying for recertification. carry out random checks on the reliability of the implementation of practical experience. Proper administration must be kept for the registration of practical experience. This must remain available for at least 5 years. 12. The certificate Machine Translated by Google Facts: At least the following information must be stated on the certificate: •. Name of the certified person incl. date of birth; •. Unambiguous document number; •. Name of the CKI that issued the certificate; •. Reference to the standards against which it is tested; •. Scope of the certificate, including the validity conditions; •. The effective date of the certificate and the date on which the certificate ceases to be valid. Texts: The certificate must state that the CKI declares that the person concerned meets the requirements from the field-specific certification scheme and, if relevant, whether it concerned a recertification. 13. Validity Conditions During the term, the following conditions apply that the certificate holder must adhere to. If these conditions are not met, this may have consequences for the certificate. After a positive certification decision, the candidate will receive a TCVT certificate and a TCPR booklet within 4 weeks. Both documents are legal evidence. The details (including withdrawal of the certificate) of the participant are registered in the TCVT register of persons. Unregistered Below are the conditions for removal from the TCVT certificate register. Certificate holders that do not meet the requirements associated with the certificate will be removed from the register of certificate holders. The following reasons can lead to deletion from the registry: a. Not being able to demonstrate that you are working as a train driver in the professional specialization for which the certificate is valid. b. Failure to fulfill obligations towards the certification body; c. Misuse or allow the certificate to be misused; d. Providing incomplete or incorrect information to the certification institution; e. It proves unfit for the exercise of the certificate cohesive professional skills; f. Failure to meet the requirements as formulated under recertification (11). Machine Translated by Google These conditions must be included in the certification agreement between the certification body and the certificate holder. Other conditions for certificate holders The holder of the certificate must prevent misuse of the certificate by third parties and report the loss of this certificate in writing to the certification body within 10 days. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate is obliged to report changes in place of residence and home address in writing to the certification body. The holder of the vertical transport operator certificate must report complaints lodged against him/her by third parties, which are related to the purport of this certificate, to the certification body that issued the certificate in question. Annex XVIII. belonging to article 8.10 1. Prohibition signs Intrinsic Features: – round; – black icon on white background, red border and bar running from left to right over the icon at an angle of 45° to the horizontal. The red color occupies at least 35% of the surface of the board. [Illustration 52019.png] Forbidden to smoke [Illustration 52020.png] Fire, open flame and smoking prohibited [Illustration 52021.png] Forbidden for pedestrians [Illustration 52022.png] Machine Translated by Google Forbidden to extinguish with water [Illustration 52023.png] No drinking water [Illustration 52024.png] No unauthorized access [Illustration 52025.png] Prohibited for transport vehicles [Illustration 52026.png] Do not touch 2. Warning Signs Intrinsic Characteristics: – Triangular; – black icon on yellow background, black border. The yellow color occupies at least 50% of the surface of the board. [Illustration 52027.png] Flammable substances or high temperature [Illustration 52028.png] Explosives [Illustration 52029.png] Toxic gasses [Illustration 52030.png] Machine Translated by Google Aggressive substances [Illustration 52031.png] Radioactive materials or ionizing radiation [Illustration 52032.png] Hanging loads [Illustration 52033.png] Transport vehicles [Illustration 52034.png] Danger of electrical voltage [Illustration 52035.png] Danger ) This warning sign is not used to warn of dangerous goods, except in the case where the warning sign is used under Article 8.15 to indicate the storage of dangerous goods.) [Illustration 52036.png] Laser beam [Illustration 52037.png] Oxidizing agents [Illustration 52038.png] Non-ionizing radiation Machine Translated by Google [Illustration 52039.png] Important magnetic field [Illustration 52040.png] To trip [Illustration 52041.png] Falling due to height difference [Illustration 52042.png] Biological risk [Illustration 52043.png] Low temperature [Illustration 52045.png] Explosive atmosphere 3. Mandatory Signs Intrinsic Features: – round; – white icon on blue background. The blue color covers at least 50% of the surface of the board [Illustration 52046.png] Eye protection mandatory [Illustration 52047.png] Safety helmet mandatory Machine Translated by Google [Illustration 52048.png] Hearing protection mandatory [Illustration 52049.png] Respiratory protection mandatory [Illustration 52050.png] Safety shoes mandatory [Illustration 52051.png] Safety gloves mandatory [Illustration 52052.png] Safety suit mandatory [Illustration 52053.png] Face protection mandatory [Illustration 52054.png] Individual harness required [Illustration 52055.png] Mandatory crossing (pedestrians) [Illustration 52056.png] General commandment (possibly together with another sign 4. Rescue Signs Intrinsic Features: Machine Translated by Google – rectangular or square; – white icon on green background. The green color covers at least 50% of the surface of the board. [Illustration 52057.png] Escape route emergency exit [Illustration 52058.png] Direction to follow Used in conjunction with one of the signs below [Illustration 52059.png] First aid [Illustration 52060.png] Stretcher [Illustration 52061.png] Safety shower [Illustration 52062.png] Rinse eyes [Illustration 52063.png] Phone for rescue and first aid 5. Signs related to the fire fighting equipment Intrinsic Features: – rectangular or square; – white icon on red background. The red color occupies at least 50% of the surface of the board. Machine Translated by Google [Illustration 52064.png] fire hose [Illustration 52065.png] ladder [Illustration 52066.png] extinguisher [Illustration 52067.png] Fire Fighting Phone [Illustration 52068.png] Direction to follow (used in conjunction with one of the above signs) Annex XIX. belonging to article 8.26 Hand and semaphore signals A. General Gestures Meaning DescriptionSTART Illustration Beware! Start Both arms belong to command stretched horizontally with palms up STOP Interruption The right hand is End of movement lifted and right palm held forward END End of the Both hands are joined at the height of the chest for work B. Vertical movements Machine Translated by Google Meaning Description Illustration LIFTING With the lifted right arm and to forward right palm is slowly made a circular motion TO CELEBRATE With the down directed right arm and right palm held inward is slowly made a circular motion VERTICAL DISTANCE The distance is displayed with hands indicated C. Horizontal movements Meaning Description Illustration FORWARD Both arms become bent, palms held inwards and forearms made slow movements towards the body BACKWARDS Both arms are bent, both palms are held out, with the forearms made slow movement away from the body TO THE RIGHT at With the right arm relative to the extended approximately signaller horizontally and the right palm held down, slow, directional movements are made TO THE LEFT of With the approximately the horizontally stretched sounder left arm and the to left palm held down become slow Machine Translated by Google made directional movements HORIZONTAL DISTANCE The distance is displayed with hands indicated D. Danger Meaning Description Illustration DANGER Both hands raised, palms forward FAST MOVEMENT The coded, commanding gestures to indicate the movement are executed very quickly SLOW MOVEMENT The coded, commanding gestures to indicate the movements are performed very slowly